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Microbiology Exam 2 (Modules 3-5) > Chapter 12 (module 4) > Flashcards

Chapter 12 (module 4) Flashcards

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1
Q

a multilevel network of innate protections and adaptive protections that are commonly referred to as the first, second, and third lines of defense

A

host defenses

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2
Q

includes any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry; also limits access to the internal tissues of the body.

A

first line of defense (INNATE)

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3
Q

also called innate immunity; is a more internal system of protective cells, fluids, and processes that includes inflammation and phagocytosis; acts rapidly at both the local and systemic levels once the first line of defense has been overcome

A

second line of defense (INNATE)

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4
Q

acquired only as each foreign substance is encountered by WBCs called lymphocytes -> lymphocytes specifically adapt to each individual invader (adaptive immunity); provides long term immunity

A

third line of defense (ADAPTIVE)

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5
Q

line of defense that includes fever, inflammation, phagocytosis, antimicrobial products

A

second line of defense

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6
Q

a healthy functioning immune system is responsible for what three things?

A
  1. Surveillance of the body
  2. Recognition of foreign material
  3. Destruction of entities deemed to be foreign
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7
Q

cells display a unique mix of macromolecules on their surfaces that the immune system “senses” to determine if they are foreign or not, what are these called?

A

antigens

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8
Q

natural markers of the body that are recognized by the immune system

A

self

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9
Q

molecules recognized by the immune system as containing foreign markers, indicating a need for immune response

A

nonself

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10
Q

many autoimmune disorders are a result of what

A

the immune system mistakenly attacking the body’s own tissues and organs

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11
Q

any trait or factor of a cell, virus, or molecule that makes it distinct and recognizable; generally consist of sugars and proteins; ie. a genetic marker

-> another term for antigens

A

marker

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12
Q

molecules on the surfaces of MANY types of microbes that are not present on host cells that mark the microbes as foreign

A

pathogen-associated molecular patters (PAMPs)

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13
Q

used to recognize PAMPs; molecules on the surface of host defense cells that recognize pathogen-associated patterns on microbes

A

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

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14
Q

mandate of the immune system

A

Search, Recognize, Destroy

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15
Q

a collection of monocytes and macrophages scattered throughout the extracellular spaces that function to engulf and degrade foreign material

A

Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS)

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16
Q

a system of vessels and organs that serve as sites for development of immune cells and immune reactions. It includes the spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, and gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)

A

lymphatic system

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17
Q

what system does these major functions?

  1. Provides a route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system proper
  2. Acts as a “drain-off” system for the inflammatory response
  3. Renders surveillance, recognition, and protection against foreign materials through a system of lymphocytes, phagocytes, and antibodies
A

lymphatic system

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18
Q

the lymphatic system is present in the ___________ of the brain

A

meninges

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19
Q

plasma-like liquid carried by the lymphatic circulation; it is formed when certain blood components move out of the blood vessels into the extracellular spaces and diffuse or migrate into the lymphatic capillaries

A

lymph

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20
Q

what is the function of lymph?

A

transports numerous WBCs (especially lymphocytes) and miscellaneous materials such as fats, cellular debris, and infectious agents that have gained access to the tissue spaces

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21
Q

lymph is never subjected to _________ _________

A

high pressure

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22
Q

lymphatic vessels are more similar to ____-____ ____.

-> due to the fact that they are not exposed to high pressure

A

thin walled veins

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23
Q

what parts of the body do lymphatic capillaries not extend into?

A

parts of the CNS, and certain organs like bone, placenta, and thymus

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24
Q

where are there a lot of lymphatic vessels?

A

hands, feet, and areola of the breast

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25
Q

what are two difference in the circulation of the lymphatic system vs blood stream?

A
  1. lymph flows only in one direction ->from the extremities to the heart; and is then returned to the blood stream through the thoracic duct->right lymphatic duct->subclavian vein near the heart.
  2. while blood is transported by means of the heart -> lymph is moved only through contraction of the skeletal muscles
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26
Q

in the lymphatic system, sites of immune cell birth and the locations where they mature are considered what?

-> sites where B and T lymphocytes are generated and become mature (red bone marrow and thymus)

A

primary lymphoid organs

red bone marrow and thymus

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27
Q

in the lymphatic system sites where immune cells become activated, reside, or carry out their functions are called what?

ie. lymph nodes, MALT, SALT, spleen

A

secondary lymphoid organs

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28
Q

important intersection between circulatory, skeletal, and lymphatic systems; typically found in flat bones and at the ends of long bones and is the site of blood cell production

-> primary lymphoid organ

A

red bone marrow

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29
Q

site of T-Cell maturation

A

thymus

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30
Q

butterfly shaped organ near the tip of the sternum that is the site of T-Cell maturation

A

thymus

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31
Q

lymphocytes that originate in the bone marrow as naive T lymphocytes migrate to the _______ to complete their maturation

A

thymus

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32
Q

where the action of immunity takes place

A

secondary lymphoid organs -> spleen, lymph nodes

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33
Q

where are the major aggregations of lymph nodes?

A

axilla (axillary nodes), groin (inguinal nodes), and neck (cervical nodes)

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34
Q

function is to filter out materials in the lymph and provide appropriate cells for immune reactions

A

lymph nodes

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35
Q

the outer rim of the lymph node is called the ______.

A

cortex

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36
Q

in regard to lymph nodes:
There are T lymphocytes in the _______ area,
and there are B lymphocytes and macrophages in the ________ sinus.

A
  1. paracortical (houses T cells)

2. medullary (houses B cells)

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37
Q

what may lymph node enlargement indicate?

A

systemic illness
or enlargement of an individual one may indicate a local infection

-> reflects the replication of many lymphocyte clones during an adaptive immune response

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38
Q

lymphoid organ in the upper left portion of the abdominal cavity; functions to filter out worn out blood cells AND to filter pathogens from the blood and to start phagocytosis by macrophages

A

spleen

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39
Q

SALT

A

skin associated lymphoid tissue

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40
Q

MALT

A

mucosa associated lymphoid tissue

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41
Q

in the pharynx, the ______ provide an active source of lymphocytes

A

tonsils

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42
Q

GALT

A

gut associated lymphoid tissue

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43
Q

what are some examples of GALT?

A

appendix, lacteals, Peyer’ patches (compact aggregations of lymphocytes in the ileum of the small intestine)

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44
Q

what does whole blood consist of?

A

blood cells and plasma

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45
Q

_____ is essentially the same as plasma, except it is the clear fluid from clotted blood.

A

serum

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46
Q

term for production of blood cells

A

hematopoiesis

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47
Q

what is the primary precursor of new blood cells?

A

a pool of undifferentiated cells called pluripotential stem cells in the bone marrow.

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48
Q

“Pluripotent” in regard to stem cells being precursors for blood cells

A

means that the cells are able to become any type of blood cell that is needed

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49
Q

two lines of cells that arise from stem cells

A
  1. those that differentiate from a common myeloid cell (RBC precursors (erythroblasts) and platelet precursors (megakaryoblasts))
  2. those that differentiate from a common lymphoid precursor cell such as precursors of many WBCs (myeloblasts) and precursors of lymphocytes (lymphoblasts)
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50
Q

two categories of leukocytes (WBCs, the primary infection-fighting blood cells)

A

granulocytes -> have dark staining granules (basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils, mast cells)

agranulocytes -> do not have granules and typically have large nuclei (monocytes (macrophages and dendritic cells) and lymphocytes (T, B, NK cells, NKT cells, Gamma-delta T cells))

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51
Q

what can the granules in granulocytes do?

A

be released to kill foreign cells

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52
Q

regulatory chemical released by cells of the immune system that serves as signals between different cells

A

cytokines

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53
Q

Four categories of Cytokines

A
  1. Pro-inflammatory (ENCOURAGE adaptive and innate immune responses)
    - > Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
  2. Anti-inflammatory (DISCOURAGE adaptive and innate immune responses)
    - > Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
  3. Vasodilators/Vasoconstrictors (can change diameter of blood vessels or vessel permeability)
    - > histamine, serotonin
  4. Growth factor (regulate lymphocyte growth or activation)
    - > Interleukin-7 (IL-7), Erythropoietin
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54
Q

where is the Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS) found?

A

in the thymus, where important WBCs mature; and in the lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, and lymphoid tissue in the mucosa of the gut and resp. tract where most of the MPS “action” takes place

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55
Q

where are some locations with greater phagocyte concentration?

A

head, chest/neck, ribs, inside of elbows, groin, wrists, knees, ankles

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56
Q

another term for macrophage

A

histiocyte

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57
Q

histiocyte cells in liver

A

Kupffer cells

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58
Q

histiocyte cells in lungs

A

alveolar macrophages

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59
Q

histiocyte cells in skin

A

Langerhans cells

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60
Q

12.2
defenses that are the physical and chemical barriers that impede the entry of not only microbes but any foreign agent, whether living or not

ie. mucus, sebaceous glands, cilia

A

inborn defenses

61
Q

how does the stratum corneum skin layer block entry of pathogens through the skin?

A

it is a thick, compacted, cemented layer containing an insoluble protein called keratin

-> thick, tough layer that is highly impervious and waterproof

62
Q

to shed the cuticle in scaled; to peel off the outer layer of a surface
-> helps shed microbes from the skin

A

desquamate

63
Q

how do sebaceous glands help block microbial entry into the body?

A

flushing of the glands, and sweating helps remove microbes

64
Q

the mucous membranes of the digestive, urinary, and resp. tracts and of the eye are moist and permeable, and provide

A

barrier protection

65
Q

lacrimation and its function

A

tear production

-> flushes the eye’s surface with tears to rid of irritants

66
Q

function of saliva in blocking microbial infection

A

constant flow of saliva helps carry microbes into the harsh conditions of the stomach

67
Q

how do vomiting and defecation help rid of microbes

A

they evacuate noxious substances or microbes from the body

68
Q

resp tract functions of ridding microbes

A

nasal hair traps microbes, copious amounts of fluid and mucus that occur in colds/allergies flush microbes, ciliated epithelium in the trachea and bronchi move foreign particles entrapped in mucus toward the pharynx to be removed

sneezing expels a large volume of air at a high velocity

coughing ejects irritants

69
Q

protection by genitourinary tract

A

continuous trickle of urine though the ureters and from periodic bladder emptying that flushes the urethra

70
Q

vaginal secretions

A

provide cleansing of the lower reproductive tract in females

71
Q

the human microbiome forms a type of

A

structural barrier

72
Q

specialized glands of the eyelids lubricate the conjunctiva with

A

antimicrobial secretions

73
Q

additional defense in tears and saliva is

A

lysozyme

74
Q

lysozyme

A

an enzyme that hydrolyzes, or breaks down glycosidic bond between the neighboring sugars in the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cells

75
Q

sweat and skin in inhibiting microbes

A

the high lactic acid and electrolyte concentrations of sweat and the skin’s acidic pH and fatty acid content are inihbitory

76
Q

HCl

A

hydrochloric acid in the stomach renders protection against many pathogens that are swallowed

77
Q

intestines

A

digestive juices and bile are potentially destructive to microbes

78
Q

penis and vagina

A

semen contains an antimicrobial chemical that inhibits bacteria

vagina during repro years has a protective acidic pH maintained by normal biota

79
Q

12.2 Outcome

identify three components of the first line of defense

A

Physical or anatomical barriers at the body’s surface

Non-specific chemical defenses

specific resistance acquired immunity

_________________________________________________________

skin, mucous membranes and their secretions, normal biota

80
Q

12.2 Outcome

identify four body systems that participate in the first line of defense

A

skin
respiratory system
gastrointestinal
urogenital

81
Q

12.2 Outcome

Describe two examples of how the normal microbiota contribute to the first line of defense

A
  • normal microbiota help protect the body by competing with potential pathogens (microbial antagonism)
  • consumption of nutrients makes them unavailable to pathogens and they create an environment unfavorable to other microorganisms by changing pH
82
Q

12.3 The Second Line of Defense

Four mechanisms with important roles in host defenses

A
  1. Phagocytosis
  2. Inflammation
  3. Fever
  4. Antimicrobial products
83
Q
  1. Phagocytosis
  2. Inflammation
  3. Fever
  4. Antimicrobial products

innate or adaptive?

A

considered innate in their effects, BUT also support and interact with the adaptive immune responses

84
Q

three main types of phagocytes

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. macrophages
  3. dendritic cells
85
Q
  1. survey tissue compartments and discover microbes, particulate matter (dust, carbon particles, antigen-antibody complexes) and injured or dead cells
  2. ingest and eliminate these materials
  3. read immunologic information (antigens) from foreign matter
A

general activities of a phagocyte

86
Q

innate

A

referring to the fact that line of defense does not require previous training of the human cells

87
Q

mature granulocyte, phagocyte with limited ability due to rapid death when exposed to their own toxic oxygen products that also kill engulfed bacteria; common sign of bacterial infection when this granulocyte is in high count in the blood; multilobular

-> most common leukocyte

A

neutrophil

88
Q

after emigrating out of the blood stream into the tissues, ________ are transformed by various inflammatory mediators into __________.

-> this process is marked by an increase in size and by enhanced development of lysosomes and other organelles

A

monocytes -> macrophages

89
Q

_________ live much longer than neutrophils and can consume a lot more material.

A

macrophages

90
Q

what events are included in phagocytosis?

A

chemotaxis, ingestion, phagolysosome formation, destruction, and secretion

91
Q

describe chemotaxis in phagocytosis

A

phagocytes migrate into a region of inflammation, attracted by a gradient of stimulant projects from the parasite and host tissue at the site of injury

92
Q

describe adhesion in phagocytosis

A

phagocytes use their PRRs to recognize PAMPs on foreign cells, this receptor interaction causes the two to stick together

93
Q

describe engulfment and PHAGOSOME FORMATION in phagocytosis

A

once the phagocyte makes contact with its prey, it extends PSEUDOPODS that enclose the cells or particle in a pocket and internalize them in a vacuole called a PHAGOSOME.
It also secretes cytokines to further amplify the innate response.

94
Q

describe the PHAGOLYSOSOME FORMATION and killing process of phagocytosis

A

lysosomes migrate to the scene of the phagosome and fuse with it to form a PHAGOLYSOSOME.
Granules containing antimicrobial chemicals are released into the phagolysosome, forming a toxic brew designed to poison and then dismantle the ingested material

95
Q

describe the destruction process of phagocytosis

A

oxygen-dependent system (oxidative burst) involves several substances such as Myeloperoxidase, hydrogen peroxide, lactic acid, lysozyme, nitric oxide (NO), cationic proteins that injure bacterial cytoplasmic membranes, and a number of other enzymes that can degrade DNA, RNA, and proteins

96
Q

describe the elimination process of phagocytosis

A

the small bits of undigestible debris are released from the macrophage by exocytosis

97
Q

molecules shared by many microorganisms but are not present in mammals, and therefore serve as “red flags”

A

Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

98
Q

Peptidoglycan, lipopolysaccharide, double stranded RNA (viruses)

A

first two: bacterial PAMP

third: viral PAMP

99
Q

PRRs

A

pattern recognition receptors

100
Q

a large protein in phagocytic cells that contain PRRs to help these cells initiate the inflammatory response

A

inflammasome

101
Q

describe rubor, calor, tumor, and dolor in regards to inflammation

A

rubor - redness (caused by increased circulation and vasodilation in injured tissues)

calor - warmth (heat given off by the increased blood flow)

tumor - swelling (caused by increased fluid escaping into the tissues)

dolor - pain (caused by stimulation of nerve endings)

*loss of function has also been added to the characteristics of identifying inflammation)

102
Q

what can cardiovascular disease be caused by?

A

chronic inflammation

103
Q

inflammation can be at a local site, or it can affect

A

an entire system ie. lungs, joints, blood vessels, etc.

104
Q
  1. To mobilize and attract immune components to the site of injury
  2. To set in motion mechanisms to repair tissue damage and localize and clear away harmful substances
  3. To destroy microbes and block their further invasion
A

the chief functions of inflammation

105
Q

the inflammation response is a powerful defensive reaction, but can also cause….

A

tissue injury, destruction, and disease

106
Q

stage one of inflammation

A

Injury/Immediate Reactions

  • chemical mediators & cytokines are released by blood cells, tissues cells, and platelets in the injured area
  • some mediators are vasoactive -> they dilate or constrict the vessels
  • some mediators are chemotactic factors (chemokines) and stimulate the movement of WBCs
107
Q

stage two of inflammation

A

Vascular Reactions

  • blood vessels dilate, then constrict, and then dilate again (flushes irritants away from the area, and brings helpful components to the site)
  • exudate is formed (fluid that escapes in the extracellular spaces)
108
Q

stage three of inflammation

A

Edema and Pus Formation
-accumulation of fluid in the tissues (edema)
-fluid contains plasma proteins (globulins, albumin, fibrinogen, blood cells, cellular debris)
-fluid may be clear (serous) or may contain RBCs or pus
-pus is composed mainly of WBCs and debris from phago
-

109
Q

final and fourth stage of inflammation

A

Resolution/Scar Formation

  • repair
  • macrophages do diapedesis (migration of intact blood cells between endothelial cells of a blood vessel such as a venule)
  • differentiated stem cells in the area begin to divide and repopulate the damages site with new cells to replace the damaged ones
110
Q

the migration of WBCs out of blood vessels and into the tissues

A

diapedesis

111
Q

WBCs are actively _____ and readily change _______, allowing for diapedesis to take place (the migration of WBCs out of the vessels, they squeeze between spaces, and into the tissues)

A

motile

shape

112
Q

the tendency of cells to migrate to in response to a specific chemical stimulus given off at a site of injury

A

chemotaxis

113
Q

benefits of edema and leaky vessels

A
  • secretion of fluids helps dilute toxic substances (edema)
  • fibrin clot can effectively trap microbes and prevent further spread
  • neutrophils can aggregate in the inflamed site and are immediately involved in phagocytosing and destroying bacteria, dead tissues, and particulate matter
114
Q

in some types of inflammation, accumulated phagocytes contribute to ___, a white, gooey mass of cells, liquefied cellular debris, and bacteria.

A

pus

115
Q

pertains to pus formers

ie. such as: pneumococci, streptococci, staphylococci, and neisseriae

A

pyogenic

116
Q

where is body temp controlled in the brain?

A

hypothalamus region

117
Q

substance that causes rise in body temp

A

pyrogens

118
Q

low grade fever

A

37.7-38.3 C

100-101 F

119
Q

high grade fever

A

40-41 C

104-106 F

120
Q

pyrogens are described as __________ (coming from outside the body) or ________ (originating internally)

A

exogenous

endogenous

121
Q

_________ pyrogens are products of infectious agents such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa, and fungi

ie. endotoxin lipopolysaccharide

A

exogenous

122
Q

blood, blood products, vaccines, or injectable solutions can contain ______ pyrogens

A

exogenous

123
Q

_________ pyrogens are released by monocytes, neutrophils, and macrophages during phagocytosis and appear to be a part of normal immune response

A

endogenous

124
Q

Interleukin-1 (IL-1) and TNF (tumor necrosis factor)

A

two potent pyrogens released by macrophages (endogenous)

both are cytokines

125
Q

fevers above 104-105 should be

A

treated to prevent serious damage to host tissues

126
Q

benefits of fever

A
  • fever inhibits multiplication of temp-sensitive microorganisms such as the poliovirus, cold viruses, herpes zoster virus, systemic and subQ fungal infections
  • fever interferes with the nutrition of bacteria by reducing the availability of iron
  • fever increases metabolism and stimulates immune reactions and naturally protective physiological processes
  • speeds up hematopoiesis (blood cell formation), phagocytosis, adaptive immune reactions, and helps specific lymphocytes home in on sites of infection
127
Q

Hippocrates and fever

A

offered the idea that it was the body’s attempt to burn off a noxious agent

128
Q

side effects of fever

A

tachycardia, tachypnea, and in some a lowering of seizure threshold

129
Q

natural human chemical that inhibits viral replication; used therapeutically to combat viral infections and cancer

-> best known for targeting viruses, but can also target bacteria and tumor cells

A

interferon (IFN)

130
Q

serum protein components that act in a definite sequence when set in motion either by antigen-antibody complex or by factors of the alternative (properdin) pathway

-> targets membranes of pathogens and also pathogen-infected host cells

A

complement

131
Q

host cell molecules that inhibit viral replication

-> inhibit the multiplication of viruses in host cells

A

restriction factors

->restrict viral replication

132
Q

short protein molecules found in epithelial cells; have the ability to kill bacteria
-> can directly kill all manner or microbes

A

antimicrobial peptides

133
Q

small proteins produced naturally by certain WBCs and tissue cells

  • three major types of it are alpha and beta (ie. lymphocytes, fibroblasts, macrophages), and interferon gamma (product of T cells)
  • induce changes in genetic expression once bound to cell surfaces that inhibit viral multiplication
  • can inhibit the expression of cancer genes and have tumor suppression effects
  • not microbe specific
A

interferons

134
Q
  • consists of over 30 different blood proteins that work together to primarily destroy bacteria, but can also affect viruses, nearby cells, or other parasites
  • complement cascade:
    1. initiation (blood protein = hydrolyzed into two fragments)
    2. activation & cascade (C3b protein cleaves the protein C5 into C5a and C5b)
    3. polymerization (C5b fragment is now free to form a complex with C6, C7, C8) = this is the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
    4. membrane attack (MAC is positioned on offending cell’s membrane and forms pores in the membrane, structural integrity of mem is lost, and permeability is messed up= lysis
  • classical complement pathway: initiated by specific antigen-antibody interaction
  • alternative complement pathway: initiated by spontaneous breakdown of a blood protein called C3 in the presence of microbes
A

complement

135
Q

short proteins of between 12-50 amino acids
-have the capability of inserting themselves into bacterial membranes

  • ex: defensin inserts into mem of bacteria causing the membrane to fold around it, once a few defensin peptide molecules gather in the area they can form a pore and can lyse the cell
  • some are effective against eukaryotes or viruses
A

antimicrobial peptides

136
Q

molecules that can limit the ability of viruses to replicate once they are inside the host cell

-prevent synthesis of new virus parts, prevent assembly of a new virus, or prevent virus release from host cells

A

host restriction factors

137
Q

four main groups of antimicrobial products

A

interferon
complement
host restriction factors
antimicrobial peptides

138
Q

outline the steps of inflammation

A
  1. injury/immediate reactions - these changes are controlled by nervous stimulation, chemical mediators, and cytokines released by blood cells, tissue cells, and platelets in the injured area.
  2. vascular reactions - blood vessels dilate, the constrict, the dilate again. the wide-narrow-wide sequence is thought to be for the purpose of flushing irritants away from the area. The over all vasodilation is to increase the flow of blood to the area, which facilitates the influx of immune components and also causes redness and warmth
  3. edema and pus formation - accumulation of this fluid in the tissue gives rise to local swelling and hardness called edema. The fluid contains varying amounts of plasma proteins such as globuins, albumin, the clotting protein fibrinogen, blood cells, and cellular debris. Pus is composed mainly of white blood cells and the debris generated by the phagocytosis.
  4. resolution/scar formation - complete resolution to healthy tissue or the formation of scar tissue, depending on the tissue type and the extent of the damage.
139
Q

discuss the mechanisms of fever and how it helps defend the body

A

Inhibits multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms

Impedes nutrition of bacteria by reducing the availability of iron

Increases metabolism and stimulates immune reactions and naturally protective physiological processes: speeds up hematopoiesis, phagocytosis, and specific immune reactions

140
Q

outline the steps of phagocytosis

A
  1. chemotaxis - phagocytes migrate into region of inflammation with a deliberate sense of direction, attracted by a gradient of stimulant products from the parasite and host tissue at the site of injury
  2. adhesion - phagocytes use their PRRs to recognize PAMPS on foreign cells. This receptor interaction causes these two to “stick” together
  3. /4. engulfment and Phagosome formation - once the phagocyte has made contact with its prey. It extends pseudopods that enclose the cells or particles in a pocket and internalize them in a vacuole called a phagosome. It also secretes more cytokines to further amplify the innate response.
  4. Phagolysosome Formation and Killing - lysosomes migrate to the scene of the phagosome and fuse with it to form a phagolysosome. Granules containing antimicrobial chemicals are released into the phagolysosome, forming a potent brew designed to poison and then dismantle the ingested material.
  5. Destruction
  6. chemotaxis - phagocytes migrate into region of inflammation with a deliberate sense of direction, attracted by a gradient of stimulant products from the parasite and host tissue at the site of injury
  7. adhesion - phagocytes use their PRRs to recognize PAMPS on foreign cells. This receptor interaction causes these two to “stick” together7. Elimination - the small bits if indigestible debris are released from the macrophage by exocytosis
141
Q

overview of 12.1

A

the first line of defense consists of physical barriers, microbiota, and chemical barriers

the second line of defense consists of innate mechanisms

the third line of defense consists of adaptive responses to specific microorganisms

142
Q

12.2 overview

A

The first line of defense is made of physical, chemical, and microbiome barriers.

Mucous membranes and skin are physical barriers

Sweat, lysozyme, fatty acids, and pH levels are typical chemical barriers

143
Q

12.3 overview

“the second line of defense”

A

innate immune reactions are generalized responses to invasion, regardless of the source.

reactions include phagocytosis, inflammation, fever, and various antimicrobial products (interferons, complements, host restriction factors, antimicrobial peptides)

144
Q

a microorganism carries _______ markers, and a B cell carries ______ markers

A

nonself

self

145
Q

which of the following are lymphocytes

a. macrophages
b. neutrophils
c. RBCs
d. B cells

A

d

146
Q

cytokines are secreted by which cells?

a. macrophages
b. B cells
c. T cells
d. all of these

A

d

147
Q

the initial reaction to the presence of viruses in a human cell is the production of _____ by that cells.

a. complement
b. interferon
c. antiviral protein
d. fever

A

b

148
Q

endotoxin is an example of a _________ pyrogen

A

exogenous

149
Q

lymphatic fluid flows ______ the heart

A

toward

Microbiology Exam 2 (Modules 3-5) (13 decks)

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