chapter 12/13 study questions Flashcards
(186 cards)
1
Q
an internal system of protective cells, fluids, and processes that includes inflammation and phagocytosis is called the _______ line of defense
A
second
2
Q
which of the following host defenses are part of third line of defense?
a. T cells
b. inflammation
c. physical barriers
d. B cells
A
a and b
3
Q
both the first and second lines of defense represent innate or __________ immunity, while the third line of defense represents acquired or _________ immunity
A
nonspecific
specific
4
Q
the field of inquiry devoted to the study of all features of the body’s second and third line of defense
A
immunology
5
Q
surface antigens are
A
a set of macromolecules on the cell surface
6
Q
WBCs have been trained to recognize body cells or _______ cells to differentiate them from any foreign material in the body
A
self
7
Q
inflammation is NOT part of the ________ line of defense
A
third
8
Q
immunology encompasses all of the features pf the body’s second and third lines of defense as well as
A
allergy and cancer biology
9
Q
the unique mix of macromolecules on the surface of cells that can be detected as foreign by the immune system are called _______
A
antigens
10
Q
immune cell surface markers that many different kinds of microbes have in common are called _________
A
PAMPs
11
Q
communication between separate fluid compartments of the body is conducted primarily through
A
capillaries
12
Q
primary lymphatic organs
A
red bone marrow and thymus
13
Q
secondary lymphatic organs
A
lymph nodes, spleen, SALT, MALT
14
Q
a network of fibers and macrophages that permeates the tissues of the body called the __________
; it acts as a passage way within and between organs and tissues
A
mononuclear phagocyte system
15
Q
______ are markers that many different kinds of microbes have in common
A
PAMPs (pattern recognition receptors PRRs recognize PAMPs)
16
Q
lymphatic vessels are not found in
A
placenta, thymus, bones, CNS
17
Q
lymph moves through lymphatic vessels through contraction of ________ muscles around the lymphatic ducts
A
skeletal
18
Q
what sites do not have very high numbers of lymph vessels
A
kidney, ear drum, spleen
19
Q
what cell types are produced in the red bone marrow
A
T and B cell precursors and RBCs
20
Q
only the _______ complete their maturation in the red bone marrow
A
B lymphocytes
21
Q
in lymph system, sites where immune cells become activated, reside, or carry out function are
A
secondry lymph organs
22
Q
lymph vessels are not found in
A
bones, thymus, CNS, and placenta
23
Q
red bone marrow is found in the matrix of
A
long bones
24
Q
major lymph nodes are found in the
A
neck, groins, and axilla
25
bean shaped organs clustered along lymph channels and large blood vessels
lymph nodes
26
where is the spleen located
upper left abdomen
27
in order to remove worn-out red blood cells and pathogens, the spleen filter blood but not
lymph
28
what are considered GALT? (gut associated lymphoid tissue)
Peyer's patches and the appendix
29
MALT
mucosa associated lymphoid tissue
30
the liquid substance that moves through the arteries veins, and capillaries
whole blood
31
clear fluid from clotted blood is
serum
32
hematopoiesis is the process in which all _____ cells are formed in bone marrow
blood
33
MALT and SALT function to
protect against influx of microbes
| protect against foreign materials in food and air
34
liquid connective tissue consisting of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets suspended in plasma is called
whole blood
35
granulocytes differ from agranulocytes in that
granulocytes have dark staining granules and agranulocytes have large nuclei
36
which are agranulocytic WBCs
```
lymphocytes
eosinophils
neutrophils
monocytes
basophils
```
lymphocytes and monocytes
37
T cells modulate immune fx and kill foreign cells in __ ___ immunity
cell-mediated
38
large phagocytic WBC, derived from a monocyte, that leaves the circulation and has a high capacity for killing microbes is called a
macrophage
39
agranulocytic leukocytes include two general types
lymphocytes and monocytes
40
granulocytes mostly involved in immunologic responses to helminth worm infections and inflamm reactions
eosinophils
41
most common leukocyte
neutrophils
42
grans similar to mast cells that function in inflammatory events are called
basophils
43
largest phagocytic WBC derived from a monocyte is involved with specific immune reactions is called a tissue
macrophage
44
```
platelets function in which of the following
clotting
complement
inflammation
phagocytosis
```
clotting and inflammation
45
chemical substance produced and secreted by WBCs and tissues cells that regulates cell development, inflammation, and immunity is
cytokines
46
the MPS includes many components including the
thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, and tonsils
47
which is an insoluble protein that protects the skin
keratin
48
skin glands, and hair follicles are skin, or _________ barriers
cutaneous
49
the shedding of the outer skin layer and hair follicles as scales or flakes is called
desquamation
50
unbroken skin is an effective barrier against microbes b/c
outer layers slough off, taking microbes away
| epithelial cells have been compacted and cemented together`
51
once mechanism that helps remove microbes from the skin is the flushing action of _________ glands
sweat
52
defecation and vomiting are part of what line of defense
first
53
which host defense competes with pathogens for space nutrients, or by altering pH
the microbiome
54
a host barrier with an acidic pH and fatty acid content that is inhibitory to many microbes is the
skin
55
which is not a second line host defense
a. fever
b. inflammation
c. phagocytosis
d. vomiting
d. vomiting
56
three activitis of phagocytes
ingest/destroy cellular materials for disposal
recognize antigens from foreign matter
survey tissues to discover microbes and other material for disposal
57
identify the three main types of phagocytes
dendritic cells
macros
and neutrophils
58
general-purpose phagocytes that engulf and kill bacteria but are themselves killed during the process are
neutrophils
59
true statements regarding neutrophils
neutrophils are a primary component of pus
| neutrophils die rapidly when they produce reactive oxygen species
60
phagocytes do NOT
secrete antibodies
aid in T cell maturation,
transport materials for disposal to the kidneys
They DO: recognize antigens from foreign matter, survey tissues for microbes/other materials for disposal
ingest and destroy cellular materials
61
which cells are elevated in bacterial infections?
Hint: think pus with bacterial infections, which leukocyte is involved in pus?
neutrophils
***lymphocytes are elevated in viral infections
62
bound to connective tissue among capillaries and release mediators such as histamine
mast cells
63
t or f
| in phagocytosis, the phagosome forms prior to the phagolysosome
True - the phagosome vacuole initially encloses the foreign object and then fuses with a lysosome to form the phagolysosome
64
in which vacuole does a phagocyte initially enclose foreign material?
phagosome
65
correct order of events in phagocytosis
1. chemotaxis
2. ingestion
3. phagolysosome formation
4. destruction
5. excretion
66
a symptom of inflammation that is caused by stimulation of nerve endings is represented by the latin term:
dolor (pain)
67
what sign of inflammation is caused by increased circulation and vasodilation
rubor (redness)
68
latin term for warmth when considering inflammation
calor
69
inflammation may be triggered by the immune response or by _______ due to tissue infection or injury
trauma
70
in inflammation, the latin term for swelling
tumor
71
inflammation occurring over a long period of time, called _______ inflammation, can lead to host tissue damage or destruction
chronic
72
mater formed during inflammation that consists of leukocytes and tissue debris is called
pus
| ---> not exudate because it is a protein rush fluid that builds up in the extracellular spaces during inflammation
73
main fx of inflammation
to mobilize and attract immune components to the injury site
74
what is normal body temp in C and F
98.6 F
| 37 C
75
which of the following are host products that target infecting microbes
```
interferons
lymph fluid
PAMPs
antimicrobial peptides
complement
virulence factors
```
interferons
complement
antimicrobial peptides
76
complement primarily targets pathogen ________.
membranes
capsules
electron transport chain
chromosomes
membranes
77
interferons are small ______.
lipids
nucleic acids
proteins
carbohydrates
proteins
78
antimicrobial product that is a protein and natural human chemical that inhibits viral replication; used therapeutically to combat viral infections and cancer
---> bind to cell surfaces and induce changes in genetic expression ---> signals to cell to create more __________ which bind to other cells to inhibit viral multiplication
interferons
79
antimicrobial product that is a short protein molecule found in epithelial cells; have the ability to kill bacteria
antimicrobial peptides
80
interferon gamma are a product of what cells
T cells
81
antimicrobial product that is not microbe-specific
interferons
82
four stages of complement system
Initiation
Activation and cascade
polymerization
membrane attack
83
which types of host cells produce interferon in the case of viral infection?
virally infected cells only
84
what receptors do interferons bind to
uninfected host cells
85
the complement system is a cascade of serum proteins that, when activated, results in
formation of membrane attack complexes
86
t or f the complement system primarily works to destroy bacteria
T
87
t or f
| interferon is host specific but not virus specific
t
88
perforation of the cell membrane or viral envelope is the end result of which process
complement cascade
89
t or f
| interferons only bind to virally infected host cell receptors
false
| they only bind to uninfected cells, and then release antiviral proteins to infected cells
90
which is not a direct function of the complement system
destroying bacteria
raising body temp
destroying parasites
raising body temp
91
the ________ complement pathway is activated by surface antibodies bound to a foreign cell (antigen-antibody complex)
classical
92
the _______ complement pathway is started by the presence of foreign cell antigens
alternative
93
proteins that are 12-50 amino acids long and have the capability of inserting themselves into bacterial membranes are called _____
antimicrobial peptides
94
specific immunity only occurs after an ______ event
immunizing
95
acquired specific immunity is due to the cooperation between which two types of cells
T and B cells
96
classical complement pathway is activated by
antibodies bound to microbes
97
if a person has the ability to react to antigen and form a protective immune response even without previous exposure they are displaying
immunocompetence
98
T and B cells only react to one specific
antigen
99
the ability of the body to recognize and react with multiple foreign substances is
immunocompetence
100
A __________ is any exposed or released protein or polysaccharide
antigen
101
________ are molecules that can be seen and identified by the immune system. If they evoke an immune response they are called _________
antigens, immunogens
102
a lymphocyte recognizes and responds only to a portion of an antigen molecule fragment called a ______
epitope
103
after final maturation, T and B lymphs migrate to _____ areas in the _____ organs
separate
| lymphoid
104
upon entry of foreign cells or pathogens into tissue, phagocytic cells called ________ cells ingest antigens and migrate to the nearest lymph organ to present antigen to T lymphocytes
dendritic
105
which type of lymphocytes is activated quickly by PAMPs?
Gamma-delta T cells
106
what is the set of genes that encodes human cell receptors that play a role in recognition of self by immune system called?
MHC
107
MHC or HLA
major histocompatibility complex or human leukocyte antigen
108
MHC class proteins are found on all surfaces of human cells except ______
erythrocytes (no nucleus)
109
for the MHC, ______ classes of MHC genes have been identified
3
110
MHC class 1 genes are found on what cells
nucleated cells
111
the MHC proteins that are involved in presenting antigens to T cells are encoded by the class _____ genes
II
112
MHC class II molecules are found on what cells
macros
b lymphocytes
dendritic cells
113
MHC class III genes encode proteins that are involved in the
complement system
114
CD molecules are cell surface markers, CD stands for
cluster of differentiation
115
T cells display _____ markers
CD4
116
upon encountering antigen, lymphs undergo differentiation and proliferation resulting in production of a group of genetically identical cells called
clones
117
antigen activated T cells give rise to
t reg cells
t helper cell
cytotoxic t cells
118
which cell activates macros, assists B cell processes, and activated cytotoxic t cells
t helper cells
119
cytotoxic t cells kill ______ cells and ______ host cells
foreign
| infected/abnormal
120
mature T cells express __ or __
CD8 or CD4
121
all mature T cells express ______ coreceptors. they also express _____ coreceptors
CD3
| CD4 or CD8
122
plasma cells secrete immunoglobulins called
antibodies
123
the process by which the B or T cell with an antigen-specific receptor is activated by the incoming antigen is called
clonal selection
124
clonal selection theory
explanation for the development of lymphocyte specificity and variety during immune system maturation
125
three main antigen presenting cells
B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells
126
helper t cells can release interleukins, interferons, or cytokines to help with other WBC function
127
cytokine interleukin-_______ is a
2; growth factor on helper t cells and cytotoxic t cells
128
LPS from bacterial cell walls are on example of T-Cell-_________ antigens
independent
| (they can trigger an immune response from B cells without APCs and T cells)`
129
_______ lymphs require antigen presented with MHC molecules
T cells do, B cells do not
130
_____ is released by activated T cells to activate and stimulate the growth of other white blood cells
interleukins
131
Like B cells, T cells can also form ______ cells which can quickly respond upon secondary exposure to the eliciting antigen
memory
132
b cells can recognize antigen that is
whole, unprocessed antigen
133
what is not a fx of reg T cells
destruction of virus-infected cells
134
what is not a fx of t helper 1 cells?
drive B cell proliferation
135
functions of helper t 2 cells
phagocytose extracellular antigens
| activate macrophages to attack helminths
136
fx of reg T cells
prevent autoimmunity
| control specific immune response
137
T helper 1 cell fx
delayed hypersensitivity reaction
secrete cytokines
activation of cell-mediated immnuity
138
T follicular helper cells function
```
drive B cell proliferation
aids B cell in antibody class switching
```
139
granzymes are
enzymes that attack proteins of target cells
140
granzymes and perforins often result in cell
apoptosis (natural death)
141
the two arms of an antibody that bind the antigen are called
antigen binding fragments
142
AIDS is characterized by a deficiency of _____ cells in the blood
T helper
143
proteins that can punch holes in the membranes of target cells are
perforins
144
the region of the antibody that does not bind to the antigen, designated Fc, is called the ________ fragment
crystallizable
145
the action of perforins causes
granzymes to enter target cells
| ions to leak out of target cells
146
in an antibody molecules, each light chain is bonded by disulfide bonds to
one heavy chain
147
by coating microbes or other particles and enhancing their phagocytosis antibodies can act as ________
opsonins
148
principal activities of an antibody
call attention to
neutralize
immobilize
149
______ are molecules that coat microbes or other particles enhancing their phagocytosis
opsonins
150
by binding to viruses or toxins and preventing their attachment to host cells, antibodies _________ these harmful substances
neutralize
151
an antibody that can neutralize a toxin can also be referred to as a _____
antitoxin
152
the effect of an antibody's Fc fragment binding to an Fc receptor on a cell depends on
the cell's role
153
process in which antibody-targeted cells are ruptured is termed
interaction with complement
154
most prevalent antibody
IgG
155
the first antibody produced by the primary response upon first encounter with the antigen is
IgM
156
the binding of antigen to surface IgD molecules triggers __ cell activation
B
157
IgE is in low concentration in the blood except during
allergic reactions and parasitic infections
158
the Fc fragments of IgE can bind to Fc receptors on ______ cells and basophils
mast
159
main function of IgD
receptor on B cells and activation of B cells
160
percentage of IgA in serum
13%
161
% of IgM in serum
6%
162
in the blood, IgA circulates in the _____ form
monomer
163
what term is used to describe the dimeric form of IgA
secretory IgA
164
secretory (dimer) IgA coats the surface of mucous membranes and is found in
tears, saliva, and mucus
165
important IgA
colostrum, breastmilk
166
beginning of immune response = IgM but changes to __
IgG
167
the type of immunity that occurs when an individual is stimulated by an antigen that activates B and T cell response is
active immunity
168
process of inoculating someone with pus from small pox scabs
variolation
169
Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) contains immunoglobulins extracted from
the pooled blood of many donors
---> is most useful in patients with diminished immunity
170
__________ causes an immediate immune response upon entry of the pathogen in the body
vaccination
171
objective of vaccines is to used modified microbes or their components to
obtain the same protective memory immune response as a natural infection
172
a vaccine in which the entire pathogen is given but has been treated in such a way that it can no longer multiply is called __________ or _________ vaccine
killed or inactivated
173
to _______ is to reduce the virulence of a pathogenic bacterium or virus
attenuate
174
example of artificial active immunity
vaccination
175
passive natural immunity is only acquired how
as a result of the prenatal and postnatal mother-child relationship; through placenta and breastmilk
- -->IgG passes through placenta
- -->IgA in breastmilk
**shortterm immunity
176
natural active immunity example
getting the seasonal flu and building up immunity to that antigen
177
artificial active immunity
flu shot and covid shot (vaccination)
178
artificial passive immunity
immunotherapy= preparation involving specific antibodies against a particular infectious agent
ie. pooled human serum donor blood
179
epitope based vaccines are called _______ vaccines
subunit
180
toxin rendered nontoxic but still capable of eliciting formation of protective antitoxin antibodies is called
toxoid
181
it is possible to isolate microbial components to use in vaccine production if exact ________ that stimulate protective immunity are known
epitopes
182
treating an intact microbe with chemicals, radiation, heat (hint: think heat killed), or other agents that prevents multiplication but preserves antigenicity is used to produce a ______ vaccine for a bacterium and an _______ vaccine for a virus
killed
| inactivated
183
majority of vaccines are admin'd
intramuscularly
subq
intradermal
* only a few are given orally
184
advantages of oral vaccines are
well tolerated
more readily accepted
easy to admin
can stimulate secretory IgA
185
most common complications with vaccines include
allergies
fever
local reactions at the injection site
186
thimerosal
phased out vaccine preservative thought to cause allergies
