chapter 12/13 study questions Flashcards

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1
Q

an internal system of protective cells, fluids, and processes that includes inflammation and phagocytosis is called the _______ line of defense

A

second

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2
Q

which of the following host defenses are part of third line of defense?

a. T cells
b. inflammation
c. physical barriers
d. B cells

A

a and b

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3
Q

both the first and second lines of defense represent innate or __________ immunity, while the third line of defense represents acquired or _________ immunity

A

nonspecific

specific

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4
Q

the field of inquiry devoted to the study of all features of the body’s second and third line of defense

A

immunology

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5
Q

surface antigens are

A

a set of macromolecules on the cell surface

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6
Q

WBCs have been trained to recognize body cells or _______ cells to differentiate them from any foreign material in the body

A

self

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7
Q

inflammation is NOT part of the ________ line of defense

A

third

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8
Q

immunology encompasses all of the features pf the body’s second and third lines of defense as well as

A

allergy and cancer biology

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9
Q

the unique mix of macromolecules on the surface of cells that can be detected as foreign by the immune system are called _______

A

antigens

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10
Q

immune cell surface markers that many different kinds of microbes have in common are called _________

A

PAMPs

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11
Q

communication between separate fluid compartments of the body is conducted primarily through

A

capillaries

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12
Q

primary lymphatic organs

A

red bone marrow and thymus

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13
Q

secondary lymphatic organs

A

lymph nodes, spleen, SALT, MALT

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14
Q

a network of fibers and macrophages that permeates the tissues of the body called the __________

; it acts as a passage way within and between organs and tissues

A

mononuclear phagocyte system

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15
Q

______ are markers that many different kinds of microbes have in common

A

PAMPs (pattern recognition receptors PRRs recognize PAMPs)

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16
Q

lymphatic vessels are not found in

A

placenta, thymus, bones, CNS

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17
Q

lymph moves through lymphatic vessels through contraction of ________ muscles around the lymphatic ducts

A

skeletal

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18
Q

what sites do not have very high numbers of lymph vessels

A

kidney, ear drum, spleen

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19
Q

what cell types are produced in the red bone marrow

A

T and B cell precursors and RBCs

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20
Q

only the _______ complete their maturation in the red bone marrow

A

B lymphocytes

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21
Q

in lymph system, sites where immune cells become activated, reside, or carry out function are

A

secondry lymph organs

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22
Q

lymph vessels are not found in

A

bones, thymus, CNS, and placenta

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23
Q

red bone marrow is found in the matrix of

A

long bones

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24
Q

major lymph nodes are found in the

A

neck, groins, and axilla

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25
Q

bean shaped organs clustered along lymph channels and large blood vessels

A

lymph nodes

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26
Q

where is the spleen located

A

upper left abdomen

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27
Q

in order to remove worn-out red blood cells and pathogens, the spleen filter blood but not

A

lymph

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28
Q

what are considered GALT? (gut associated lymphoid tissue)

A

Peyer’s patches and the appendix

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29
Q

MALT

A

mucosa associated lymphoid tissue

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30
Q

the liquid substance that moves through the arteries veins, and capillaries

A

whole blood

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31
Q

clear fluid from clotted blood is

A

serum

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32
Q

hematopoiesis is the process in which all _____ cells are formed in bone marrow

A

blood

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33
Q

MALT and SALT function to

A

protect against influx of microbes

protect against foreign materials in food and air

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34
Q

liquid connective tissue consisting of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets suspended in plasma is called

A

whole blood

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35
Q

granulocytes differ from agranulocytes in that

A

granulocytes have dark staining granules and agranulocytes have large nuclei

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36
Q

which are agranulocytic WBCs

lymphocytes
eosinophils
neutrophils
monocytes
basophils
A

lymphocytes and monocytes

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37
Q

T cells modulate immune fx and kill foreign cells in __ ___ immunity

A

cell-mediated

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38
Q

large phagocytic WBC, derived from a monocyte, that leaves the circulation and has a high capacity for killing microbes is called a

A

macrophage

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39
Q

agranulocytic leukocytes include two general types

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

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40
Q

granulocytes mostly involved in immunologic responses to helminth worm infections and inflamm reactions

A

eosinophils

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41
Q

most common leukocyte

A

neutrophils

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42
Q

grans similar to mast cells that function in inflammatory events are called

A

basophils

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43
Q

largest phagocytic WBC derived from a monocyte is involved with specific immune reactions is called a tissue

A

macrophage

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44
Q
platelets function in which of the following
clotting
complement
inflammation
phagocytosis
A

clotting and inflammation

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45
Q

chemical substance produced and secreted by WBCs and tissues cells that regulates cell development, inflammation, and immunity is

A

cytokines

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46
Q

the MPS includes many components including the

A

thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, and tonsils

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47
Q

which is an insoluble protein that protects the skin

A

keratin

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48
Q

skin glands, and hair follicles are skin, or _________ barriers

A

cutaneous

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49
Q

the shedding of the outer skin layer and hair follicles as scales or flakes is called

A

desquamation

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50
Q

unbroken skin is an effective barrier against microbes b/c

A

outer layers slough off, taking microbes away

epithelial cells have been compacted and cemented together`

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51
Q

once mechanism that helps remove microbes from the skin is the flushing action of _________ glands

A

sweat

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52
Q

defecation and vomiting are part of what line of defense

A

first

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53
Q

which host defense competes with pathogens for space nutrients, or by altering pH

A

the microbiome

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54
Q

a host barrier with an acidic pH and fatty acid content that is inhibitory to many microbes is the

A

skin

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55
Q

which is not a second line host defense

a. fever
b. inflammation
c. phagocytosis
d. vomiting

A

d. vomiting

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56
Q

three activitis of phagocytes

A

ingest/destroy cellular materials for disposal

recognize antigens from foreign matter

survey tissues to discover microbes and other material for disposal

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57
Q

identify the three main types of phagocytes

A

dendritic cells
macros
and neutrophils

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58
Q

general-purpose phagocytes that engulf and kill bacteria but are themselves killed during the process are

A

neutrophils

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59
Q

true statements regarding neutrophils

A

neutrophils are a primary component of pus

neutrophils die rapidly when they produce reactive oxygen species

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60
Q

phagocytes do NOT

A

secrete antibodies
aid in T cell maturation,
transport materials for disposal to the kidneys

They DO: recognize antigens from foreign matter, survey tissues for microbes/other materials for disposal
ingest and destroy cellular materials

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61
Q

which cells are elevated in bacterial infections?

Hint: think pus with bacterial infections, which leukocyte is involved in pus?

A

neutrophils

***lymphocytes are elevated in viral infections

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62
Q

bound to connective tissue among capillaries and release mediators such as histamine

A

mast cells

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63
Q

t or f

in phagocytosis, the phagosome forms prior to the phagolysosome

A

True - the phagosome vacuole initially encloses the foreign object and then fuses with a lysosome to form the phagolysosome

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64
Q

in which vacuole does a phagocyte initially enclose foreign material?

A

phagosome

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65
Q

correct order of events in phagocytosis

A
  1. chemotaxis
  2. ingestion
  3. phagolysosome formation
  4. destruction
  5. excretion
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66
Q

a symptom of inflammation that is caused by stimulation of nerve endings is represented by the latin term:

A

dolor (pain)

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67
Q

what sign of inflammation is caused by increased circulation and vasodilation

A

rubor (redness)

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68
Q

latin term for warmth when considering inflammation

A

calor

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69
Q

inflammation may be triggered by the immune response or by _______ due to tissue infection or injury

A

trauma

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70
Q

in inflammation, the latin term for swelling

A

tumor

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71
Q

inflammation occurring over a long period of time, called _______ inflammation, can lead to host tissue damage or destruction

A

chronic

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72
Q

mater formed during inflammation that consists of leukocytes and tissue debris is called

A

pus

—> not exudate because it is a protein rush fluid that builds up in the extracellular spaces during inflammation

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73
Q

main fx of inflammation

A

to mobilize and attract immune components to the injury site

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74
Q

what is normal body temp in C and F

A

98.6 F

37 C

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75
Q

which of the following are host products that target infecting microbes

interferons
lymph fluid
PAMPs
antimicrobial peptides
complement
virulence factors
A

interferons
complement
antimicrobial peptides

76
Q

complement primarily targets pathogen ________.

membranes
capsules
electron transport chain
chromosomes

A

membranes

77
Q

interferons are small ______.

lipids
nucleic acids
proteins
carbohydrates

A

proteins

78
Q

antimicrobial product that is a protein and natural human chemical that inhibits viral replication; used therapeutically to combat viral infections and cancer

—> bind to cell surfaces and induce changes in genetic expression —> signals to cell to create more __________ which bind to other cells to inhibit viral multiplication

A

interferons

79
Q

antimicrobial product that is a short protein molecule found in epithelial cells; have the ability to kill bacteria

A

antimicrobial peptides

80
Q

interferon gamma are a product of what cells

A

T cells

81
Q

antimicrobial product that is not microbe-specific

A

interferons

82
Q

four stages of complement system

A

Initiation
Activation and cascade
polymerization
membrane attack

83
Q

which types of host cells produce interferon in the case of viral infection?

A

virally infected cells only

84
Q

what receptors do interferons bind to

A

uninfected host cells

85
Q

the complement system is a cascade of serum proteins that, when activated, results in

A

formation of membrane attack complexes

86
Q

t or f the complement system primarily works to destroy bacteria

A

T

87
Q

t or f

interferon is host specific but not virus specific

A

t

88
Q

perforation of the cell membrane or viral envelope is the end result of which process

A

complement cascade

89
Q

t or f

interferons only bind to virally infected host cell receptors

A

false

they only bind to uninfected cells, and then release antiviral proteins to infected cells

90
Q

which is not a direct function of the complement system

destroying bacteria
raising body temp
destroying parasites

A

raising body temp

91
Q

the ________ complement pathway is activated by surface antibodies bound to a foreign cell (antigen-antibody complex)

A

classical

92
Q

the _______ complement pathway is started by the presence of foreign cell antigens

A

alternative

93
Q

proteins that are 12-50 amino acids long and have the capability of inserting themselves into bacterial membranes are called _____

A

antimicrobial peptides

94
Q

specific immunity only occurs after an ______ event

A

immunizing

95
Q

acquired specific immunity is due to the cooperation between which two types of cells

A

T and B cells

96
Q

classical complement pathway is activated by

A

antibodies bound to microbes

97
Q

if a person has the ability to react to antigen and form a protective immune response even without previous exposure they are displaying

A

immunocompetence

98
Q

T and B cells only react to one specific

A

antigen

99
Q

the ability of the body to recognize and react with multiple foreign substances is

A

immunocompetence

100
Q

A __________ is any exposed or released protein or polysaccharide

A

antigen

101
Q

________ are molecules that can be seen and identified by the immune system. If they evoke an immune response they are called _________

A

antigens, immunogens

102
Q

a lymphocyte recognizes and responds only to a portion of an antigen molecule fragment called a ______

A

epitope

103
Q

after final maturation, T and B lymphs migrate to _____ areas in the _____ organs

A

separate

lymphoid

104
Q

upon entry of foreign cells or pathogens into tissue, phagocytic cells called ________ cells ingest antigens and migrate to the nearest lymph organ to present antigen to T lymphocytes

A

dendritic

105
Q

which type of lymphocytes is activated quickly by PAMPs?

A

Gamma-delta T cells

106
Q

what is the set of genes that encodes human cell receptors that play a role in recognition of self by immune system called?

A

MHC

107
Q

MHC or HLA

A

major histocompatibility complex or human leukocyte antigen

108
Q

MHC class proteins are found on all surfaces of human cells except ______

A

erythrocytes (no nucleus)

109
Q

for the MHC, ______ classes of MHC genes have been identified

A

3

110
Q

MHC class 1 genes are found on what cells

A

nucleated cells

111
Q

the MHC proteins that are involved in presenting antigens to T cells are encoded by the class _____ genes

A

II

112
Q

MHC class II molecules are found on what cells

A

macros
b lymphocytes
dendritic cells

113
Q

MHC class III genes encode proteins that are involved in the

A

complement system

114
Q

CD molecules are cell surface markers, CD stands for

A

cluster of differentiation

115
Q

T cells display _____ markers

A

CD4

116
Q

upon encountering antigen, lymphs undergo differentiation and proliferation resulting in production of a group of genetically identical cells called

A

clones

117
Q

antigen activated T cells give rise to

A

t reg cells
t helper cell
cytotoxic t cells

118
Q

which cell activates macros, assists B cell processes, and activated cytotoxic t cells

A

t helper cells

119
Q

cytotoxic t cells kill ______ cells and ______ host cells

A

foreign

infected/abnormal

120
Q

mature T cells express __ or __

A

CD8 or CD4

121
Q

all mature T cells express ______ coreceptors. they also express _____ coreceptors

A

CD3

CD4 or CD8

122
Q

plasma cells secrete immunoglobulins called

A

antibodies

123
Q

the process by which the B or T cell with an antigen-specific receptor is activated by the incoming antigen is called

A

clonal selection

124
Q

clonal selection theory

A

explanation for the development of lymphocyte specificity and variety during immune system maturation

125
Q

three main antigen presenting cells

A

B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells

126
Q

helper t cells can release interleukins, interferons, or cytokines to help with other WBC function

A
127
Q

cytokine interleukin-_______ is a

A

2; growth factor on helper t cells and cytotoxic t cells

128
Q

LPS from bacterial cell walls are on example of T-Cell-_________ antigens

A

independent

(they can trigger an immune response from B cells without APCs and T cells)`

129
Q

_______ lymphs require antigen presented with MHC molecules

A

T cells do, B cells do not

130
Q

_____ is released by activated T cells to activate and stimulate the growth of other white blood cells

A

interleukins

131
Q

Like B cells, T cells can also form ______ cells which can quickly respond upon secondary exposure to the eliciting antigen

A

memory

132
Q

b cells can recognize antigen that is

A

whole, unprocessed antigen

133
Q

what is not a fx of reg T cells

A

destruction of virus-infected cells

134
Q

what is not a fx of t helper 1 cells?

A

drive B cell proliferation

135
Q

functions of helper t 2 cells

A

phagocytose extracellular antigens

activate macrophages to attack helminths

136
Q

fx of reg T cells

A

prevent autoimmunity

control specific immune response

137
Q

T helper 1 cell fx

A

delayed hypersensitivity reaction
secrete cytokines
activation of cell-mediated immnuity

138
Q

T follicular helper cells function

A
drive B cell proliferation
aids B cell in antibody class switching
139
Q

granzymes are

A

enzymes that attack proteins of target cells

140
Q

granzymes and perforins often result in cell

A

apoptosis (natural death)

141
Q

the two arms of an antibody that bind the antigen are called

A

antigen binding fragments

142
Q

AIDS is characterized by a deficiency of _____ cells in the blood

A

T helper

143
Q

proteins that can punch holes in the membranes of target cells are

A

perforins

144
Q

the region of the antibody that does not bind to the antigen, designated Fc, is called the ________ fragment

A

crystallizable

145
Q

the action of perforins causes

A

granzymes to enter target cells

ions to leak out of target cells

146
Q

in an antibody molecules, each light chain is bonded by disulfide bonds to

A

one heavy chain

147
Q

by coating microbes or other particles and enhancing their phagocytosis antibodies can act as ________

A

opsonins

148
Q

principal activities of an antibody

A

call attention to
neutralize
immobilize

149
Q

______ are molecules that coat microbes or other particles enhancing their phagocytosis

A

opsonins

150
Q

by binding to viruses or toxins and preventing their attachment to host cells, antibodies _________ these harmful substances

A

neutralize

151
Q

an antibody that can neutralize a toxin can also be referred to as a _____

A

antitoxin

152
Q

the effect of an antibody’s Fc fragment binding to an Fc receptor on a cell depends on

A

the cell’s role

153
Q

process in which antibody-targeted cells are ruptured is termed

A

interaction with complement

154
Q

most prevalent antibody

A

IgG

155
Q

the first antibody produced by the primary response upon first encounter with the antigen is

A

IgM

156
Q

the binding of antigen to surface IgD molecules triggers __ cell activation

A

B

157
Q

IgE is in low concentration in the blood except during

A

allergic reactions and parasitic infections

158
Q

the Fc fragments of IgE can bind to Fc receptors on ______ cells and basophils

A

mast

159
Q

main function of IgD

A

receptor on B cells and activation of B cells

160
Q

percentage of IgA in serum

A

13%

161
Q

% of IgM in serum

A

6%

162
Q

in the blood, IgA circulates in the _____ form

A

monomer

163
Q

what term is used to describe the dimeric form of IgA

A

secretory IgA

164
Q

secretory (dimer) IgA coats the surface of mucous membranes and is found in

A

tears, saliva, and mucus

165
Q

important IgA

A

colostrum, breastmilk

166
Q

beginning of immune response = IgM but changes to __

A

IgG

167
Q

the type of immunity that occurs when an individual is stimulated by an antigen that activates B and T cell response is

A

active immunity

168
Q

process of inoculating someone with pus from small pox scabs

A

variolation

169
Q

Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) contains immunoglobulins extracted from

A

the pooled blood of many donors

—> is most useful in patients with diminished immunity

170
Q

__________ causes an immediate immune response upon entry of the pathogen in the body

A

vaccination

171
Q

objective of vaccines is to used modified microbes or their components to

A

obtain the same protective memory immune response as a natural infection

172
Q

a vaccine in which the entire pathogen is given but has been treated in such a way that it can no longer multiply is called __________ or _________ vaccine

A

killed or inactivated

173
Q

to _______ is to reduce the virulence of a pathogenic bacterium or virus

A

attenuate

174
Q

example of artificial active immunity

A

vaccination

175
Q

passive natural immunity is only acquired how

A

as a result of the prenatal and postnatal mother-child relationship; through placenta and breastmilk

  • –>IgG passes through placenta
  • –>IgA in breastmilk

**shortterm immunity

176
Q

natural active immunity example

A

getting the seasonal flu and building up immunity to that antigen

177
Q

artificial active immunity

A

flu shot and covid shot (vaccination)

178
Q

artificial passive immunity

A

immunotherapy= preparation involving specific antibodies against a particular infectious agent

ie. pooled human serum donor blood

179
Q

epitope based vaccines are called _______ vaccines

A

subunit

180
Q

toxin rendered nontoxic but still capable of eliciting formation of protective antitoxin antibodies is called

A

toxoid

181
Q

it is possible to isolate microbial components to use in vaccine production if exact ________ that stimulate protective immunity are known

A

epitopes

182
Q

treating an intact microbe with chemicals, radiation, heat (hint: think heat killed), or other agents that prevents multiplication but preserves antigenicity is used to produce a ______ vaccine for a bacterium and an _______ vaccine for a virus

A

killed

inactivated

183
Q

majority of vaccines are admin’d

A

intramuscularly
subq
intradermal

  • only a few are given orally
184
Q

advantages of oral vaccines are

A

well tolerated
more readily accepted
easy to admin
can stimulate secretory IgA

185
Q

most common complications with vaccines include

A

allergies
fever
local reactions at the injection site

186
Q

thimerosal

A

phased out vaccine preservative thought to cause allergies