Chapter 1 (textbook)

Question 1

Name and describe the 3 approaches to anatomy

Answer 1

1) Regional anatomy: Based on the organization of the body into parts (ex: head, neck, trunk)
2) Systemic anatomy: Based on the organization into organ systems
3) Clinical (applied) anatomy: Emphasizes aspects of structure and function critical to medicine or dentistry.

Question 2

Name and describe the 5 planes of the body

Answer 2

1) Median saggital plane: Divides the body into left and right halves
2) Saggital planes: Planes parallel to the median plane. Divide the body into unequal right and left parts.
3) Frontal (coronal) planes: Divide the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior).
4) Transverse planes: Divide the body into superior and inferior
5) Oblique planes/ sections: Don’t align with other planes

Question 3

1) Define dorsal & ventral
2) Define proximal & distal

Answer 3

1)Dorsal and ventral: Back and front
2) Proximal and distal: Closer to point of origin and further

Question 4

Define unilateral, ipsilateral, and contralateral

Answer 4

1) Unilateral: occurring on one side
2) Ipsilateral: occurring on the same side
3) Contralateral: occurring on the opposite side

Question 5

List 5 functions of the skin

Answer 5

1) Protection: from abrasions and substances
2) Containment: of tissues and substances of the body
3) Heat regulation: through sweat glands, blood vessels, etc
4) Sensation: via superficial nerves and their sensory endings
5) Synthesis and storage: of vitamin D

Question 6

Describe the epidermis and dermis

Answer 6

1) Epidermis: keratinized stratified squamous epithelium; has a tough outer keratin layer that’s replaced with new cells from basal layer. Entire epidermis replaced every 25-45 days. Avascular and very few nerve terminals.
2) Dermis: dense layer of collagen and elastic fibers (gives strength to skin), deep layer contains hair follicles with arrector pili muscles to arrect hairs and compress sebaceous glands

Question 7

What is below the dermis? What is it made of? What does it contain?

Answer 7

Subcutaneous tissue; made of loose connective tissue and fat and contains deepest parts of sweat glands, blood and lymph vessels, and nerves.

Question 8

What do skin ligaments connect?

Answer 8

The dermis to the underlying deep fascia

Question 9

1) What is the deep fascia made of?
2) What 3 things do extensions from its surface do?
3) What two things does the deep fascia form?

Answer 9

1) Organized connective tissue, devoid of fat
2) a) Invest deeper structures, like individual muscles and
neurovascular bundles (investing fascia)
b) Divide muscles into groups or compartments (intermuscular septa)
c) Lie between musculoskeletal walls and the serous
membranes lining the body (subserous fascia)
3) Forms retinacula (holds tendons in place during joint movement) and bursae (closed sacs with fluid to prevent friction)

Question 10

Define superficial burns, partial thickness burns, and full-thickness burns

Answer 10

1) Superficial: only superficial epidermis is damaged
2) Partial thickness: superficial part of the dermis is also damaged
3) Full thickness: entire epidermis, dermis, and potentially underlying muscle are damaged. Healing can generally not occur without grafting.

Question 11

Define axial and appendicular skeleton

Answer 11

1) Axial skeleton: makes up our central axis and consists of the following bones: skull, vertebrae, ribs and sternum.
2) Appendicular skeleton: consists of the limbs and girdles

Question 12

1) Is cartilage vascular or avascular? How does it get its nutrients?
2) What is the amount of cartilage in the body proportional with?

Answer 12

1) Avascular, diffusion
2) Age (older = less)

Question 13

The articulating surfaces of bones of a synovial joint are capped with what?

Answer 13

Articular cartilage

Question 14

Name the 5 functions of bone

Answer 14

1) Protection for vital structures
2) Support for the body and its vital cavities
3) The mechanical basis for movement
4) Storage for salts
5) A continuous supply of new blood cells (produced be the marrow in the medullary cavity of many bones)

Question 15

1) Name the two types of bone
2) What ratio of these two types of bones do most bones have?
3) Where are blood cells and platelets formed?

Answer 15

1) Spongy and compact
2) Most bones have a superficial thin layer of compact bone around a central mass of spongy bone, sometimes the spongy bone is replaced by a medullary (marrow) cavity
3) Between the spicules of spongy bone

Question 16

1) What does compact bone provide?
2) What is the fibrous connective tissue covering surrounding bone called?
3) What is the tissue surrounding cartilage (excluding articular cartilage) called?

Answer 16

1) Support
2) Periosteum
3) Perichondrium

Question 17

1) What are the 3 functions of the periosteum and perichondrium?
2) Define heterotropic bone
3) What happens to unused bones?
4) How is a broken bone repaired? What is created and by what cells?

Answer 17

1) They help nourish the tissue, can help make more bone/ cartilage, and serve as a place of attachment
2) Bone growing where it shouldn’t (i.e. soft tissue)
3) Atrophy
4) Fibroblasts (connective tissue cells) proliferate and secrete collagen that forms a collar of callus to hold the bones together. Remodeling of bone occurs in the fracture area, and the callus calcifies. Eventually, the callus is resorbed and replaced by bone.

Question 18

1) Define osteoporosis
2) Name two long (tubular-shaped) bones
3) Where are short (cuboidal-shaped) bones found?
4) What do flat bones usually do? Name an example

Answer 18

1) An abnormal reduction in the quantity of bone
2) Humerus (arm), phalanges (fingers)
3) Only in the ankle (tarsus) and wrist (carpus)
4) Flat bones usually serve protective functions (ex: cranial bones)

Question 19

1) What are the 5 classifications of bone?
2) What bones are irregular?
3) The patella (kneecap) is an example of what bone classification? What does this class do?

Answer 19

1) Long, short, flat, irregular, and seismoid
2) Bones in the face
3) Seismoid bone; protects tendons and change their angles

Question 20

Bone markings
1) What is a condyle?
2) What is the ridge of a bone called?
3) What is the bony area above a condyle?
4) Define a facet

Answer 20

1) Rounded articular area
2) A crest
3) An epicondyle
4) A flat area usually covered with (cartilage) that articulates with another bone

Question 21

Bone markings
1) A passage through a bone is a called what?
2) Define a fossa
3) Define line (linea)
4) What is a rounded prominence called?

Answer 21

1) A foramen
2) A hollow or depressed area in a bone
3) Linear elevation
4) A malleolus

Question 22

Bone markings
1) What is an indentation at the edge of a bone called?
2) What is the projecting spine-like part of a bone?
3) Define a protuberance
4) What is a thorn-like process called?

Answer 22

1) A notch
2) A process
3) A projection of bone
4) A spine

Question 23

Bone markings
1) What is a trochanter?
2) What is a small, raised eminence called?
3) What is a large, rounded elevation?

Answer 23

1) A large, blunt elevation
2) A tubercle
3) A tuberosity

Question 24

1) Define endochondral ossification
2) What are the 3 steps of long bone formation?

Answer 24

1) Cartilaginous bone formation
2) a) Mesenchymal cells differentiate into chondroblasts, which grow cartilage tissue, creating a cartilaginous bone model.
b) In the midregion of the bone model, the cartilage calcifies and periosteal capillaries (capillaries from the periosteum) grow into the calcified cartilage of the bone model and supply its interior.
c) Those blood vessels and associated osteogeni (bone-forming) cells form a periosteal bud. The capillaries initiate a primary ossification center, which replaces most of the cartilage at the shaft of the bone model. This region is called the diaphysis.

Question 25

1) All bones are derived from what?
2) What are the two processes to create bone?
3) The flared part of the diaphysis near the epiphysis is called what?

Answer 25

1) Mesenchyme
2) Intramembranous ossification (directly from mesenchyme) and endochondral ossification (from mesenchyme-derived cartilage)
3) The metaphysis

Question 26

1) For growth to continue, what doesn’t fuse?
2) What keeps this fusion from happening?

Answer 26

1) The bone formed from the primary center in the diaphysis does not fuse with that formed from the secondary centers in the epiphyses until the bone reaches its adult size.
2) Epiphyseal plates

Question 27

1) What 3 places does the nutrient arteries (that go through the nutrient foramina) supply blood to?
2) What supplies most of the compact bone?
3) What two things supply the ends of the bones (and joints)?

Answer 27

1) The bone marrow, spongy bone, and deeper portions of compact bone
2) Small branches of the periosteal arteries
3) Metaphyseal and epiphysial arteries

Question 28

1) What is to blame for the pain from bone fractures?
2) What nerves regulate blood flow through the marrow?

Answer 28

1) Periosteal nerves
2) Vasomotor nerves

Question 29

1) Accessory bones are the result of what?
2) An injury that causes a fracture an adult usually leads to what in children instead?
3) Bone death due to loss of blood supply is what?

Answer 29

1) Extra ossification centers
2) Displacement of an epiphysis
3) Avascular necrosis

Question 30

Name and describe the 3 types of joints

Answer 30

1) Fibrous joints: two types are syndesmosis (partly movable, united by sheet of tissue) and gomphosis (ex: tooth socket, not movable)
2) Cartilaginous joints: Articulating structures united by hyaline or fibrocartilage. Synchondroses permit growth. Sympheses are strong, slightly mobile joints.
3) Synovial joints: The most common type of joint, uses a synovial fluid cavity usually reinforced by intrinsic or extrinsic ligaments. Some have articular discs or menisci. There are 6 types of synovial joints.

Question 31

1) What supplies joints with blood? How do they accomodate for the joint’s movement?
2) What accompanies these?
3) Are joints highly innervated?

Answer 31

1) Articular arteries; they anastomose (communicate) to form networks (peri-articular arterial anastomoses).
2) Articular veins
3) Joints have a rich nerve supply, nerve endings are numerous in joint capsule.

Question 32

1) What do articular nerves do? (2 main things)
2) What does the Hilton Law state?
3) Regarding joints, where are pain fibers numerous and where is insensitive?

Answer 32

1) Most articular nerves are branches that supply the muscles that cross & move the joint. In the distal parts of limbs, the articular nerves are branches of the cutaneous nerves supplying the overlying skin.
2) That the nerves supplying a joint also supply the muscles moving the joint and the skin covering their attachments
3) Numerous in fibrous layer of joint capsule and associated ligaments, synovial membrane mostly insensitive

Question 33

What sensation do joints transmit?

Answer 33

Proprioception

Question 34

What are the 3 types of muscle fibers? List what each does

Answer 34

1) Skeletal striated muscle: moves bones and other structures
2) Cardiac striated muscle: forms most of the walls of the heart & parts of great vessels
3) Smooth muscle: forms part of the walls of most vessels and hollow organs, moves substances through viscera (ex: intestine), and controls movement through blood vessels.

Question 35

1) What two portions make up all skeletal muscle?
2) List some functions of muscle besides movement

Answer 35

1) A fleshy contractile portion (one or more heads or bellies) composed of skeletal striated muscle, and a noncontractile portion composed mainly of collagen bundles (tendons (rounded) and aponeuroses (flat sheets))
2) Static support, give form to the body, and provide heat.

Question 36

1) Describe pennate muscles
2) Describe fusiform muscles
3) Describe parallel muscles

Answer 36

1) Pennate: Feather-like shape in regards to fascicle arrangement (unipennate, bipennate, multipennate)
2) Fusiform: spindle-shaped
3) Parallel muscles: Fascicles lie parallel to long axis

Question 37

1) Describe convergent muscles
2) Describe circular muscles
3) Describe digastric muscles

Answer 37

1) Convergent: Have a broad attachement, fasicles converge on a single tendon
2) Circular: surround an opening, constrict when contracted
3) Digastric: feature two bellies with a common intermediate tendon

Question 38

1) Muscles shorten to about ____% of their resting length when contracted
2) The _____ is usually the proximal end of the muscle which remains fixed, and the ______ is usually the distal end that moves.

Answer 38

1) 70%
2) origin; insertion

Question 39

What are the 3 ways in which skeletal muscle can undergo contraction?

Answer 39

1) Reflexive contraction: automatic and not voluntarily controlled (ex: respiratory movements of the diaphragm, reflex hammer)
2) Tonic contraction: a slight contraction (muscle tone) that does not produce movement or active resistance but gives the muscle firmness, assisting the stability of joints and the maintenance of posture.
3) Phasic contraction: two types, isometric and isotonic

Question 40

1) Describe isometric contractions
2) Describe isotonic contractions
3) What are the two types of isotonic contraction?

Answer 40

1) In isometric contractions, the muscle length remains the same (no movement occurs) but muscle tension is increased above tonic levels
2) In isotonic contractions, the muscle changes length to produce movement.
3) a) Concentric contraction: movement occurs owing to muscle shortening (abduction)
b) Eccentric contraction: progressive relaxation of a contracted muscle (controlled lengthening)

Question 41

1) What surrounds one muscle fiber?
2) What surrounds a group of muscle fibers?
3) What surrounds an entire muscle?

Answer 41

1) Endomysium
2) Perimysium
3) Epimysium

Question 42

1) What’s the structural unit of muscle?
2) What’s the functional unit of muscle?

Answer 42

1) A muscle fiber
2) A motor unit (a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it controls)

Question 43

Muscle movement
1) What’s another name for a prime mover?
2) What does a fixator do during movement?
3) What do synergists do?
4) What do antagonists do?

Answer 43

1) Agonist
2) Fix proximal parts while distal parts are moving
3) Synergists complement the actions of prime movers
4) Antagonists oppose the actions of prime movers (ex: contracts while prime mover relaxes)

Question 44

1) What forms the muscular wall of the heart?
2) What controls cardiac muscle?

Answer 44

1) Cardiac striated muscle
2) Pacemaker nodes, influenced by the autonomic nervous system (involuntary)

Question 45

1) Where can smooth muscle be found? (4 places)

Answer 45

a) It forms a large part of the middle coat or layer (tunica media) of the walls of most blood vessels
b) Forms the muscular part of the wall of the digestive tract and ducts, uterine tube, and ureter.
c) In skin (arrector muscles associated with hair follicles
d) In the eyeball (to control lens thickness and pupil size)

Question 46

1) True or false: smooth muscle can undergo partial contraction for long periods
2) True or false: smooth muscle is involuntary

Answer 46

1) True
2) True

Question 47

1) Where does smooth muscle undergo peristalsis?
2) What nervous system is in charge of this?

Answer 47

1) In the walls of the digestive tract, uterine tubes, ureters.
2) Enteric nervous system

Question 48

1) Define circulatory system; what does it do and what does it consist of?
2) What forms the cardiovascular system?

Answer 48

1) Circulatory: transports fluids throughout the body and consists of the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems
2) Cardiovascular system: The heart and blood vessels form the blood transportation network

Question 49

1) Define pulmonary circulation
2) Define systemic circulation

Answer 49

1) Pulmonary circulation: the right heart propels low-oxygen blood returned to it into the lungs, where carbon dioxide is exchanged for oxygen.
2) Systemic circulation: oxygen-rich blood returned to the left heart is pumped to the remainder of the body, exchanging oxygen and nutrients for carbon dioxide with the body tissues

Question 50

1) Name the 3 types of blood vessels
2) List the flow of blood through the blood vessels (starting with artery)

Answer 50

1) Arteries, veins, capillaries
2) Artery, arteriole, capillary bed, venule, small vein, large vein, superior and inferior vena cava, heart

Question 51

List the layers of blood vessel tunics from deep to superficial

Answer 51

1) Tunica intima: thin endothelial lining of vessels
2) Tunica media: middle smooth muscle layer
3) Tunica adventitia: outer connective tissue coat

Question 52

1) What are the 3 characteristics that differentiate different types of arteries?
2) Describe the differences between artery types; are they always drastically different?

Answer 52

1) The different types of arteries are distinguished from each other on the basis of overall size, relative amounts of elastic tissue or muscle in the tunica media, and the thickness of the wall relative to the lumen
2) Artery size and type is a continuum (a gradual change in morphological characteristics from one type to another).

Question 53

What are the 3 types of arteries? Describe them and their compositions. Which expands? Which regulates blood flow paths? Which is related to hypertension?

Answer 53

1) Large elastic arteries (conducting arteries): have many elastic layers in their walls for the maintenance of blood pressure in the arterial system between contractions of the heart; allows them to expand when the heart contracts and to return to normal. ex: aorta and its branches.
2) Medium muscular arteries (distributing arteries): have walls mainly of circularly arranged smooth muscle.The ability of these arteries to decrease their diameter (vasoconstrict) regulates the flow of blood to different parts of the body as required. Ex: femoral artery
3) Small arteries and arterioles: have relatively narrow lumina and thick muscular walls. Degree of arterial pressure depends on arteriolar thickness, can result in hypertension.

Question 54

1) Which veins carry oxygenated blood?
2) Which has thinner walls, arteries or veins?
3) The smallest veins, called ______, unite to form larger veins that usually form _______ ________ (ex: dorsal venous arch of foot).

Answer 54

1) The large pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.
2) Veins have thinner walls
3) venules; venus plexuses

Question 55

1) What type of veins have valves?
2) Define SVC and IVC and what type of veins they are.
3) What type of veins are characterized by a well-developed tunica adventitia and wide longitudinal smooth muscle bundles?

Answer 55

1) Medium veins in the limbs and neck
2) Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava; large veins
3) Large veins

Question 56

1) Which are more variable, arteries or veins?
2) Which more frequently form anastomoses, arteries or veins?
3) True or false: veins usually consist of two or more vessels

Answer 56

1) Veins
2) Veins
3) True

Question 57

1) Arteries that do not anastomose with adjacent arteries are called what? What happens when they’re occluded?
2) Atherosclerosis is the buildup of what? Atherosclerosis is a type of what?

Answer 57

1) True terminal (end) arteries; the structure that depends on them will have disrupted blood supply
2) Fat (mainly cholesterol); arteriosclerosis

Question 58

1) What are accompanying veins? Where are they found?
2) As arteries expand during heart contraction, what happens to accompanying veins?
3) What is the musculovenous pump?

Answer 58

1) Veins that surround a deep artery in a branching network; found within vascular sheath
2) They’re stretched and flattened within the sheath, increasing venous return to the heart
3) As muscles contract in the legs, veins are compressed, resulting in increased return of venous blood

Question 59

What can be described as a simple endothelial tube connecting arterial and venous circulation? Where are they usually found?

Answer 59

1) A capillary
2) Found in capillary beds between arterioles and venules

Question 60

1) Where does blood in a capillary bed come from, and where does it go?
2) What forces blood through capillary beds?

Answer 60

1) Comes from arterioles, goes to venules
2) Hydrostatic pressure from arterioles

Question 61

What are direct connections between arteries and veins called? Where are they found?

Answer 61

Called arteriovenous anastomoses (AV shunts), found in fingers and are numerous in the skin

Question 62

What is lymph? What is it similar in composition to?

Answer 62

Surplus extracellular tissue fluid; similar to blood plasma

Question 63

1) Define lymphatic plexus
2) Define lymphatic capillaries

Answer 63

1) Lymphatic plexuses: networks of small lymphatic vessels
2) Lymphatic capillaries: originate in the extracellular spaces of most tissues

Question 64

1) Define lymphatic vessels (lymphatics).
2) Where are lymphatic vessels found?

Answer 64

1) Lymphatics are a nearly body-wide network of thin-walled vessels with abundant valves originating from lymphatic plexuses along which lymph nodes are located.
2) Almost everywhere blood capillaries are found, except the teeth, bone, bone marrow, and the entire central nervous system (excess fluid here drains into the cerebrospinal fluid).

Question 65

1) Define lymph nodes
2) Define lymphocytes
3) What produces lymphocytes? Where are they found?

Answer 65

1) Lymph nodes: small masses of lymphatic tissue through which lymph is filtered on its way to the venous system
2) Lymphocytes: circulating cells of the immune system that react against foreign materials
3) Lymphoid organs produce lymphocytes; found in the walls of the digestive tract, in the spleen, thymus, and lymph nodes, and in myeloid tissue in red bone marrow

Question 66

1) After going through at least 1 lymph node, lymph enters what?
2) What do these unite to form?

Answer 66

1) Larger lymphatic vessels, called lymphatic trunks.
2) Unite to form either the right lymphatic duct or the thoracic duct

Question 67

What are the two lymphatic ducts? What does each drain, and where does each end? Which begins in the abdomen?

Answer 67

1) The right lymphatic duct drains the lymph from the entire upper right quadrant of the body; ends in right venous angle (junction of right subclavian and internal jugular veins).
2) The thoracic duct drains lymph from the remainder of the body. This duct begins in the abdomen as a dilatation, the cisterna chyli, and ascends through the thorax and enters the junction of the left internal jugular and left subclavian veins, called the left venous angle.

Question 68

Besides collecting lymph, what does the lymphatic system do?

Answer 68

1) Absorption and transport of dietary fat: special lymphatic capillaries (lacteals) receive all absorbed fat (chyle) from the intestine and convey it through the thoracic duct to the venous system
2) Formation of a defense mechanism for the body: When foreign protein drains from an infected area, antibodies specific to the protein are produced by immunologically competent cells and/or lymphocytes and dispatched to the infected area.

Question 69

1) Define lymphangitis and lymphadenitis.
2) When would they occur?
3) Define lymphedema and when it occurs

Answer 69

1) Lymphangitis and lymphadenitis: the secondary inflammation of lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes, respectively. 2) When the lymphatic system is involved in the metastasis (spread) of cancer;
3) Lymphedema: the accumulation of interstitial fluid; occurs when lymph is not drained from an area of the body.

Question 70

1) How is the nervous system divided structurally? Describe each category
2) How is the nervous system divided functionally? Describe each category

Answer 70

1) Structurally: into the CNS (made up of the brain and spinal cord) and the PNS (consisting of nerve fibers and cell bodies outside the CNS).
2) Functionally: into the sensory (afferent) nervous system (carries information to the CNS) and the motor (efferent) nervous system (carries stimulatory impulses from the CNS to effector organs (ex muscles or glands)).

Question 71

Both the sensory and motor systems have somatic and visceral components.
1) What does the somatic (voluntary) motor system supply?
2) What is the visceral (involuntary) motor system also known as? What does it supply?

Answer 71

1) Somatic supplies skeletal muscle.
2) Visceral is also known as the autonomic nervous system; supplies smooth muscle, glands, and the conducting system of the heart.

Question 72

1) Where does the somatic sensory nervous system carry sensation from?
2) Where does the visceral sensory nervous system carry sensation from?

Answer 72

1) Somatic: Carries touch and pain from muscles, skin, and joints.
2) Visceral: Carries pain and reflex info from the viscera of body cavities

Question 73

1) What are the two main cell types of nervous tissue?
2) What is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system?

Answer 73

1) Neurons (nerve cells) and neuroglia (glial cells)
2) Neurons

Question 74

1) Describe the anatomy of a neuron.
2) What increases the speed of neuron impulses?
3) Where do neurons communicate with each other?
4) How do neurons communicate?

Answer 74

1) A cell body with processes (extensions) called dendrites, and an axon, which carries impulses to and away from the cell body.
2) Myelin sheath: Layers of lipid and protein substances formed around some axons, greatly increasing the velocity of impulse conduction.
3) At synapses
4) Neurotransmitters (chemical agents released or secreted by one neuron, which may excite or inhibit another neuron, continuing or terminating the relay of impulses)

Question 75

1) How abundant are neuroglia (glia)?
2) What are neuroglia and what do they do?

Answer 75

1) Approximately five times as abundant as neurons
2) They are nonneuronal, nonexcitable cells that form a major component (scaffolding) of nervous tissue. They support, insulate, and nourish the neurons.

Question 76

1) What does the CNS consist of?
2) Define a nucleus
3) Define a tract

Answer 76

1) Brain and spinal cord
2) A collection of nerve cell bodies in the CNS
3) A bundle of nerve fibers (axons) connecting neighboring or distant nuclei of the CNS

Question 77

1) What makes up the gray matter?
2) What forms the white matter?

Answer 77

1) Nerve cell bodies
2) Interconnecting fiber tract systems

Question 78

1) Describe the shape of the gray matter in the spinal cord
2) What are the two struts of the gray matter called?

Answer 78

1) In transverse sections of the spinal cord, the gray matter appears roughly as an H-shaped area embedded in a matrix of white matter.
2) The struts (supports) of the H are horns; therefore, there are right and left posterior (dorsal) and anterior (ventral) gray horns.

Question 79

1) What are the 3 layers of the meninges?
2) What do the meninges and CSF do?
3) The brain and spine are covered by a transparent covering called what?

Answer 79

1) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater
2) Protect the CNS
3) The pia mater

Question 80

1) Where is CSF found?
2) How does the dura mater differ between the brain and spinal cord?

Answer 80

1) In the subarachnoid space between the pia and the arachnoid mater (arachnoid)
2) It’s very related to the internal aspect of the bone of the surrounding neurocranium (braincase), whereas the dura of the spinal cord is separated from the vertebral column by the epidural space (a fat-filled space).q

Question 81

1) What makes up the PNS?
2) What 3 things make up peripheral nerves?
3) What makes up a nerve fiber?

Answer 81

1) Nerve fibers and nerve cell bodies outside of the CNS that connect the CNS with peripheral structures
2) Bundles of nerve fibers, their connective tissue coverings, and blood vessels (the vasa nervorum)
3) An axon, its neurolemma, and its endoneurium

Question 82

1) Define axon
2) Define neurolemma
3) Define endoneurium

Answer 82

1) Axon: The single process of a neuron
2) Neurolemma: The cell membranes of Schwann cells that immediately surround the axon, separating it from other axons
3) Endoneurium: A connective tissue sheath

Question 83

Describe the differences in the neurolemmas of myelinated nerves versus unmyelinated nerves

Answer 83

1) Myelinated: have a myelin sheath that consists of a continuous series of Schwann cells enwrapping an individual axon, forming myelin.
2) Unmyelinated: consist of multiple axons separately embedded within the cytoplasm of each Schwann cell. These Schwann cells do not produce myelin.

Question 84

1) Most fibers in cutaneous nerves (nerves that supply sensation to the skin) are myelinated or unmyelinated?
2) True or false: Peripheral nerves are fairly strong because of its connective tissue coverings

Answer 84

1) Unmyelinated
2) True

Question 85

List and describe the three connective tissue coverings of peripheral nerves

Answer 85

1) Endoneurium: a delicate connective tissue sheath that surrounds the neurolemma cells and axons.
2) Perineurium: a layer of dense connective tissue that encloses a fascicle (bundle) of peripheral nerve fibers, providing an effective barrier against penetration of the nerve fibers by foreign substances.
3) Epineurium: a thick connective tissue sheath that surrounds and encloses a bundle of fascicles, forming the outermost covering of the nerve; it includes fatty tissues, blood vessels, and lymphatics.

Question 86

1) The axons are individually insulated by the __________ and _________;
2) Together, those two things are bundled by the ___________
3) Those bundles are surrounded in turn by the _________, forming the outer wrapping

Answer 86

1) neurolemma and endoneurium
2) perineurium
3) epineurium

Question 87

1) Define ganglion
2) What are the two types of ganglia?

Answer 87

1) A collection of nerve cell bodies outside the CNS
2) Motor (autonomic) and sensory

Question 88

1) What are the two types of peripheral nerves?
2) There are 12 pairs of ______ nerves

Answer 88

1) Cranial and spinal
2) cranial

Question 89

1) Where do the cranial nerves originate?
2) Where do all cranial nerves exit?

Answer 89

1) 11 from the brain, 1 from the superior spinal cord
2) Through the foramina in the cranium

Question 90

1) How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
2) Where do all spinal nerves originate from and exit through?
3) What are the 5 categories of spinal nerves? How many in each category?

Answer 90

1) 31
2) Originate from spinal cord, exit through intervertebral foramina in the vertebral column
3) Cervical (8), thoracic (12), lumber (5), sacral (5), coccygeal (1)

Question 91

1) What is the somatic nervous system made of? What does it do?
2) What do somatic (general) sensory fibers do?
3) What do somatic motor fibers do?

Answer 91

1) Composed of somatic parts of the CNS and PNS; provides general sensory and motor innervation to all parts of the body (except the viscera in the body cavities, smooth muscle, and glands).
2) Somatic (general) sensory fibers: transmit sensations of touch, pain, temperature, and position from sensory receptors.
3) Somatic motor fibers: stimulate skeletal (voluntary) muscle exclusively, evoking voluntary and reflexive movement by causing its contraction

Question 92

1) A typical spinal nerve arises from the spinal cord by _____ _______, which converge to form two ____ _____
2) Those two things converge to form a _____ ______.
3) This then immediately divides into two _____

Answer 92

1) Nerve rootlets; nerve roots
2) Spinal nerve
3) Rami

Question 93

Each spinal nerve has two nerve roots; what are they called and what do they do?

Answer 93

1) The anterior (ventral) root: consists of motor (efferent) fibers passing from nerve cell bodies (in the anterior horn of the spinal cord gray matter) to effector organs located peripherally.
2) The posterior (dorsal) root: consists of sensory (afferent) fibers that convey neural impulses to the CNS from sensory receptors in various parts of the body (eg., in the skin).

Question 94

1) Both rami of a spinal nerve contain what type of nerves?
2) What does the posterior rami do?
3) What does the anterior rami do?

Answer 94

1) Both motor and sensory
2) Posterior: supply nerve fibers to synovial joints of the vertebral column, deep muscles of the back, and the overlying skin.
3) Anterior: supply nerve fibers to the much larger remaining area, consisting of anterior and lateral regions of the trunk and the upper and lower limbs arising from them

Question 95

What does a typical spinal nerve contain? (4 things)

Answer 95

1) Somatic sensory and motor fibers
2) Sympathetic visceral motor fibers
3) Connective tissue coverings
4) Vasa nervorum (blood vessels supplying nerves)

Question 96

1) Define dermatome
2) Define myotome
3) Where do sympathetic visceral motor fibers go?

Answer 96

1) The unilateral area of skin innervated by the general sensory fibers of a single spinal nerve
2) The unilateral muscle mass receiving innervation from the somatic motor fibers conveyed by a single spinal nerve
3) To the smooth muscle of blood vessels and to sweat glands and arrector pili muscles of the skin.

Question 97

What 3 things does the autonomic (visceral) nervous system consist of?

Answer 97

1) Visceral efferent (motor) fibers
2) Modified cardiac muscle (the intrinsic stimulating and conducting tissue of the heart)
3) Glands

Question 98

1) The visceral efferent (motor) fibers of the ANS serving viscera of the body cavities are accompanied by what?
2) What do visceral efferent (motor) fibers do?

Answer 98

1) Visceral afferent (sensory) fibers
2) Stimulate smooth (involuntary) muscle in the walls of blood vessels and organs and regulate visceral functions

Question 99

What are the two divisions of efferent (motor) nerve fibers and ganglia of the ANS? What do they do?

Answer 99

1) Sympathetic (thoracolumbar) division: generally catabolic (preparing the body for “flight or fight”) effects
2) Parasympathetic (craniosacral) division: generally anabolic (promoting normal function and conserving energy) effects

Question 100

1) Conduction of impulses from the CNS to the effector organ invovles what?
2) Where is the cell body of the presynaptic (preganglionic) neuron?
3) Where is the cell body of the postsynaptic neuron?

Answer 100

1) A series of two neurons in both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
2) Presynaptic neuron (first neuron) cell body: in the gray matter of the CNS, specifically the intermediolateral cell columns (IMLs) or nuclei of the spinal cord
3) Postsynaptic neuron cell body: outside the CNS in autonomic ganglia (specifically in the paravertebral and prevertebral ganglia), with the postsynaptic fibers terminating on the effector organ (smooth muscle, modified cardiac muscle, or glands).

Question 101

The anatomical distinction between the sympathetic and the parasympathetic motor divisions of the ANS is based primarily on what two things?

Answer 101

1) The location of the presynaptic cell bodies
2) Which nerves conduct the presynaptic fibers from the CNS.

Question 102

1) Intermediolateral cell columns (IMLs) appear as what in horizontal sections of the spine?
2) Where are the IMLs found?

Answer 102

1) Lateral horns
2) From T1 to L2 or L3

Question 103

1) What are paravertebral ganglia linked to form?
2) Where are the superior cervical (paravertebral) ganglion of each sympathetic trunk?
3) Where does a ganglion impar often form?

Answer 103

1) Right and left sympathetic trunks (chains) on each side of the vertebral column (that extend essentially the length of this column)
2) The base of the cranium
3) Inferiorly, where the two trunks unite at the level of the соссух.

Question 104

1) Where are the prevertebral ganglia (of sympathetic visceral motor innervation) found?
2) Give an example

Answer 104

1) In the plexuses that surround the origins of the main branches of the abdominal aorta (for which they are named)
2) Ex: the large celiac ganglia that surround the origin of the celiac trunk (a major vessel arising from the aorta) and the aortic, hypogastric, and pelvic plexuses that descend from them

Question 105

In regards to sympathetic visceral motor innervation: Almost immediately after entering the rami, the presynaptic sympathetic fibers leave the anterior rami and go through the ________ _______ __________ to reach the sympathetic trunks.

Answer 105

White rami communicantes

Question 106

Within the sympathetic trunks, what are the four courses a presynaptic fiber could take?

Answer 106

1) Ascend
2) Descend in the sympathetic trunk to synapse with a postsynaptic neuron of a higher or lower paravertebral ganglion
3) Enter and synapse immediately with a postsynaptic neuron of the paravertebral ganglion at that level
4) Pass through the sympathetic trunk without synapsing, continuing on within an abdominopelvic splanchnic nerve (innervates abdominopelvic viscera) to reach the prevertebral ganglia

Question 107

1) Are there more presynaptic or postsynaptic sympathetic fibers?
2) Postsynaptic sympathetic fibers destined for distribution within the neck, body wall, and limbs pass from the paravertebral ganglia of the sympathetic trunks to adjacent anterior rami of spinal nerves through what?
3) What do postsynaptic sympathetic fibers do?

Answer 107

1) More postsynaptic
2) Gray rami communicantes.
3) They enter all branches of each of the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, including the posterior rami, to stimulate contraction of blood vessels (casomotion) and the arrector muscles of hair (pilomotion, resulting in goose bumps) and to cause sweating (sudomotion)

Question 108

1) The cell bodies of postsynaptic sympathetic fibers of the head can be found where?
2) How do they leave the ganglion?

Answer 108

1) In the superior cervical ganglion at the superior end of the sympathetic trunk.
2) A cephalic arterial branch to form periarterial plexuses of nerves, which follow branches of the carotid arteries, or they may pass directly to nearby cranial nerves to reach their destination in the head

Question 109

1) What do splanchnic nerves do?
2) What passes through cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerves?
3) What passes through abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves?

Answer 109

1) Splanchnic nerves: convey visceral efferent (autonomic) and afferent sympathetic fibers to and from viscera of the body cavities
2) Convey postsynaptic sympathetic fibers destined for viscera of the thoracic cavity (e.g.. heart, lungs, and esophagus) to enter the cardiac, pulmonary, and esophageal plexuses.
3) The presynaptic sympathetic fibers involved in innervation of viscera of the abdominopelvic cavity (e.g., the stomach, intestines, and pelvic organs) pass to the prevertebral ganglia through abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves (the greater, lesser, least, and lumbar splanchnic nerves).

Question 110

1) Some presynaptic sympathetic fibers that pass through the prevertebral (aorticorenal) ganglia without synapsing terminate where?
2) What do suprarenal medullary cells do?

Answer 110

1) Directly on cells in the medulla of the suprarenal medullary gland
2) They function as a special type of postsynaptic neuron that, instead of releasing their neurotransmitter substance onto the cells of a specific effector organ, release it into the bloodstream to circulate throughout the body, producing a widespread sympathetic response

Question 111

Presynaptic parasympathetic cell bodies are found in what two parts of the CNS? What is the output from each part called?

Answer 111

1) Cranial site: From the gray matter of the brainstem, fibers exit the CNS within CN III, CN VII, CN IX, and CN X; these fibers make up cranial parasympathetic outflow.
2) Sacral site: From the gray matter of the sacral segments of the spinal cord (S2-S4), the fibers exit the CNS through the anterior roots of spinal nerves S2-S4 and the pelvic splanchnic nerves that arise from their anterior rami; these fibers constitute the sacral parasympathetic outflow.

Question 112

1) What parasympathetically innervates the head?
2) What parasympathetically innervates the pelvic viscera?
3) What parasympathetically innervates the thoracic and abdominal viscera?
4) What specifically does sacral outflow supply innervation to?

Answer 112

1) Cranial outflow
2) Sacral outflow
3) Cranial outflow through the vagus nerve (CN X) is dominant. It provides innervation to all the thoracic viscera and most of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from the esophagus through most of the large intestine (to its left colic flexure).
4) Only the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum

Question 113

1) True or false: The parasympathetic nervous system is far more limited in its distribution in comparison to the sympathetic nervous system
2) What doesn’t reach the body wall or limbs? Is it a component of spinal nerves?

Answer 113

1) True
2) The parasympathetic nervous system; and except for initial parts of the anterior rami of spinal nerves S2-S4, its fibers are not components of spinal nerves or their branches

Question 114

1) True or false: Most presynaptic parasympathetic fibers are short
2) Postsynaptic parasympathetic neurons of the GI tract are a part of what?

Answer 114

1) False; most are long
2) The enteric nervous system

Question 115

1) What are the two plexuses of the GI tract called?
2) What is the activity of the plexus modulated by?

Answer 115

1) The submucosal and myenteric plexuses
2) Extrinsic parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers

Question 116

1) Which part of the ANS is catabolic?
2) Which part of the ANS is homeostatic or anabolic?

Answer 116

1) The sympathetic nervous system is catabolic
2) The parasympathetic is homeostatic or anabolic

Question 117

1) What is the primary function of the sympathetic nervous system?
2) In what parts of the body does sympathetic stimulation result in vasodilation?

Answer 117

1) Regulate blood vessels
2) In the coronary vessels, vessels of skeletal muscles, and vessels of external genitalia

Question 118

Name 5 common types of diagnostic imaging, and list the basic idea of each

Answer 118

1) Conventional radiography (ordinary X-ray images): based on density
2) Computerized tomography (CT): X-ray images of transverse sections compiled by computer
3) Ultrasonography (US): ultrasonic waves
4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI): magnets, can reconstruct any plane
5) Positron emission tomography (PET): uses cyclotron-produced isotopes of extremely short half-life that emit positrons to show functions of organs on a dynamic basis (images show different colors)