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A&P > Chapter 1-6 > Flashcards

Chapter 1-6 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Homeostasis

A

Maintenance of stable internal environment regardless of outside changes

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2
Q

Name 5 components of Control Mechanism

A
  1. Stimulus - change in external environment
  2. Receptor - senses the change and sends a message via afferent pathway (sensory neuron) to the control centre
  3. Control Centre - analyses and decides on response and sends msg to effector via efference pathway (motor neuron)
  4. Effector - the muscle or gland that responds to the command from the control centre
  5. Response - the action carried out by the effector
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3
Q

Describe Negative Feedback and give an example

A

Response that reduces or shuts off the original stimulus. If stimulus is decreased then response is increased.

EG. regulation of blood volume
1. Receptor senses a decrease on blood volume

  1. Control Centre in hypothalumus detects the loss of blood and sends a msg to the pituitary gland to release ADH hormone
  2. ADH causes kidneys (effector) to return more water to the blood
  3. Response is increased blood volume
  4. Return to normal volume sensed by receptors.
  5. Control centre stops stimulation of pituitary gland.
  6. Pituitary gland stops release of ADH.
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4
Q

Describe positive feedback and give an example

A

Response increases or exaggerates original stimulus. If there is an increase in stimulus, response is increased.

This type of feedback is otherwise normal self limiting (childbirth) or can result in an abnormal disease condition (heart failure)

EG. Childbirth:
stretching of cervix -> oxytocin -> contraction of uterus -> more oxytocin -> more contractions -> more oxytocin, etc… then once baby is born the cycle will end

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5
Q

Describe a positive feed back that ends heart failure

A

EG. Heartfailure
plaque build up in vessels -> decreased diameter of vessels -> inflammation of vessels -> more plaque build up -> increased restriction of flow -> increased blood pressure -> stress on heart -> heart failuretion

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6
Q

What is the function of the plasma membrane and what is it made of?

A
  1. Plasma membrane separates intercellular fluid from extracellular fluid and plays a major part in cellular activity
  2. Constantly changing fluid mosaic
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7
Q

What is the fluid mosaic made up of?

A
  1. 75% phosophlipid bilayer
  2. 5% glycolipids
  3. 20% cholesterol
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8
Q

What is the phospholipid bilayer made up of?

A
  1. phosphate heads that are polar (hydrophilic)

2. fatty acid tails that are non polar (hydrophobic)

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9
Q

What are the glycolipids and where are they located?

A
  1. Glycolipids are lipids with attached sugar groups

2. They are attached to the outer surface of the membrane.

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10
Q

What is the function of cholesterol in the membrane?

A

stabilizes the membrane, regulates fluidity

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11
Q

List the 6 functions of the membrane protein

A

TRAEIC

  1. Transport (ATP - Active Transport)
  2. Receptors - sites for chemical messengers to bind on (eg. hormones)
  3. Attachment - cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix
  4. Enzymes - catalysts (speed up reactions)
  5. Intercellular joining - anchor cells to each other
  6. Cell to cell recognition - identify cells, self or foreign (eg. WBC’s can tell whether to attach or not)
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12
Q

Name the 3 membrane proteins, location and function

A
  1. Integral - located firmly into the membrane and transport proteins, enzymes or receptors
  2. Peripheral - loosely attached to integral proteins either inside or outside the membrane. They act as enzymes, motor proteins, cell-to-cell links, support on intracellular surface
  3. Glycoprotein - proteins with sugar groups attached. They function in cell identification and form part of the glycocalyx (sugar coating)
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13
Q

Name two special structures of the cell membrane

A
  1. Glycocalyx - sugar coating on cells, composed of glycolipids and glycoproteins and plays a part on cell recognition
  2. Microvilli - outfoldings on the apical cell membrane, increase surface area (eg. digestive tract)
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14
Q

Name the 3 membrane junctions

A
  1. Tight junction
  2. Desmosome
  3. Gap junction
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15
Q

What is the function of the tight junction and where in the body where it might be useful?

A

Prevents fluids and molecules from moving between cells.

These would be useful in the stomach

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16
Q

What is the function of the desmosome?

A

They act like rivets that anchor cells together. They resist tension and resist cells from being separated.

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17
Q

What is the function of the gap junction?

A

Permit quick spread of ions between cells.

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18
Q

What are the 3 functions of the plasma membrane?

A
  1. selectively permeable - only lets certain molecules through
  2. controls movement of materials in and out
  3. maintains homeostasis
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19
Q

Name the 2 types of membrane transport and describe

A
  1. Passive process - no ATP required, substance moves down its concentration gradient
  2. Active process - ATP energy required, proteins required, substances move against concentration gradient
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20
Q

Name 3 characteristics that determine whether or not a substance can passively penetrate a membrane

A
  1. its solubility
    Lipid soluble - substance can diffuse through the bilayerWater soluble - must use channels or carriers
  2. its size - large molecules cannot get through
  3. suitable carrier proteins - carriers are specific, can only bind to certain molecules
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21
Q

Name 4 types of passive procceses

A
  1. Filtration
  2. Simple Diffusion
  3. Facilitated Diffusion
  4. Osmosis
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22
Q

Describe Filtration

A

Materials are carried along with fluid from an area of high fluid pressure to an area of low fluid pressure

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23
Q

Describe Simple Diffusion

A

Diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer following a concentration gradient. Kinetic energy causes them to move - random movement

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24
Q

Describe Facilitated Diffusion

A
  1. Uses carriers or channel proteins

2. substances can only move with a concentration gradient from high to low.

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25
Q

Describe Osmosis

A

Diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane.

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26
Q

Describe carrier proteins

A

Integral proteins transport specific polar molecules. Binding of substrate causes shape change in carrier.

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27
Q

Describe channel proteins

A

aqueous channels formed that selectively transport ions or water

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28
Q

Name two types of channel proteins

A
  1. Leakage - always open

2. Gated - controlled by chemical or electrical signals

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29
Q

Name the two ways water diffuses through the plasma membrane during osmosis

A
  1. through the lipid bilayer - wiggling between phospholipids
  2. through protein channels calls aquaporins
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30
Q

What does water respond to when it diffuses?

A

It responds to concentration gradients from higher water concentration to areas of lower water concentration

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31
Q

What happens when osmosis occurs?

A
  1. Water enters or leaves a cell
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32
Q

What is tonicity?

A

Terms used to describe concentration solutes in two different solutions

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33
Q

What are isotonic solutions?

A

Two solutions with the same solute concentrations

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34
Q

What are hypertonic solutions?

A

A solution having a greater solute concentration than some other solution

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35
Q

What are hypotonic solutions?

A

A solution with a lower solute concentration than some other solution

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36
Q

What is the effect of an isotonic solution on a red blood cell?

A

no change - osmosis happens equally in both directions

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37
Q

What is the effect of a hypertonic solution on a red blood cell?

A

Cell will shrink (crenated)

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38
Q

What is the effect of a hypotonic solution on a red blood cell?

A

Cell will swell (lyses).

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39
Q

Name 2 types of active processes

A
  1. Active transport pumps

2. Vesicular transport

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40
Q

Name 3 characteristics of Active Transport

A
  1. requires carrier proteins
  2. moves solute against a concentration gradient
  3. requires ATP energy
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41
Q

Name 3 types of active transport

A
  1. Primary transport
  2. Secondary transport
  3. Cotransport
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42
Q

Describe primary active transport

A

Energy comes directly from hydrolysis of ATP. Causes shape change on transport protein so that ions are pumped across the membrane. (eg. sodium/potassium pump)

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43
Q

Describe secondary active transport

A

Depends on ion gradient created by primary active transport.

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44
Q

Describe cotransport

A

Always transports more than one substance at a time.

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45
Q

Name the two systems used by contransport

A

a. Symport system - two substances transported in the same direction
b. Antiport system - two substances transported in opposite direction

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46
Q

Describe vesicular transport

A

transports large molecules, macromolecules and fluids across plasma membrane..requires ATP.

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47
Q

Name 3 types vesicular transport

A
  1. Exocytosis - transport out of cell
  2. Endocytosis - transport into cell
  3. Transcytosis - transport into, across, and then out of cell
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48
Q

Name 3 types of endocytosis

A
  1. Phagocytosis - solid materials are engulfed and brought into interior of cell, carried out by some types of white blood cells
  2. Pinocytosis - liquids and solutes brought into cell by infolding of plasma membrane
  3. RME - specific endo and trans cytosis. Main mechanism for the movement of most macromolecules.
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49
Q

What type of molecules help cells stick together?

A

Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)

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50
Q

Name 3 things that CAMs do.

A
  1. anchor cells to extracellular matrix or to each other
  2. assist in movement of cells past one another
  3. CAMs of blood vessel lining attract white blood cells to injured or infected areas
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51
Q

What is the cytoplasm?

A

The cytoplasm is the cell contents outside the nucleus and is the major site of most activities carried out by the cell.

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52
Q

What is the fluid part of the cytoplasm called?

A

The cytosol.

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53
Q

What parts of the cell carry out specific activities for the cell as a whole?

A

The organelles

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54
Q

Define nucleus

A

Control centre of the cell. Is the site for genetic material - DNA.

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55
Q

When the cell is not dividing what is the genetic material in a threadlike form called?

A

Chromatin

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56
Q

When the cell is dividing the chromatin coils and condenses to form what?

A

Chromosomes

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57
Q

What function does the nucleoli play?

A

Nucleoli is the assembly sites for ribosomes.

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58
Q

What is the double layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus called?

A

Nuclear envelope

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59
Q

Define smooth ER

A

Site of lipid synthesis

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60
Q

Define Mitochondrion

A

Powerhouse of the cell, produces ATP energy

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61
Q

Define Lysosome

A

Digest worn out cell organelles and foreign substances that enter the cell

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62
Q

Define Centrioles

A

Direct the formation of the mitotic spindle during cell division

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63
Q

Define Microvilli

A

Fingerlike projections that greatly increase the surface area of the cell

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64
Q

Define microfilaments

A

Anchor the organelles and moving them within the cell

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65
Q

Define microtubule

A

Give cell shap and form. Move materials within the cytoplasm of cell.

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66
Q

Define intermediate filaments

A

Resist mechanical forces acting on cells

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67
Q

Peroxisome

A

Detoxify alcohol, hydrogen peroxide and other harmful chemicals.

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68
Q

Golgi Apparatus

A

Packages proteins or other substances that will be exported by the cell.

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69
Q

Ribosomes

A

Made of RNA and protein. Sites of protein synthesis…they are free floating or attached to a the rough ER.

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70
Q

Rough ER

A

Studded with ribosomes associated with protein synthesis. Ribosomes making these proteins will be secreted.

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71
Q

Name the 6 steps in mitosis.

A
  1. Interphase
  2. Early prophase
  3. Late prophase
  4. Metaphase
  5. Anaphase
  6. Telephase (cytokinesis)
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72
Q

What is the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?

A

Mitosis - nuclear division

Cytokinesis - division of the cytoplasm

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73
Q

What happens during interphase?

A

Period from cell formation to cell division. Nuclear material called chromatin.

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74
Q

Name for 4 phases of interphase

A
  1. G1 - (gap 1) vigorous growth and metabolism
  2. G0 - gap phase in cells that permanently cease dividing
  3. S(synthetic) - DNA replication
  4. G2 - gap 2 - preparation for division
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75
Q

What is the importance of cell division?

A

Necessary for growth and cell repair.

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76
Q

What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

A
  1. Mitosis - daughter cells are diploid (have 46 chromosomes)
  2. Meoisis - occurs only in germ cells and results are haploid cells (23 chromosomes)
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77
Q

What are the largest molecules in the body?

A

Nucleic acids

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78
Q

What two major molecules are included in nucleic acids?

A
  1. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

2. Ribonucleic acid (RNA)

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79
Q

What are the structural units of nucleic acids called?

A

Nucleotides

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80
Q

What are the 3 components nucleotides consist of?

A
  1. nitrogen-containing base
  2. pentose sugar
  3. phosphate group
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81
Q

What are the major cell sites for DNA and RNA?

A
  1. DNA - the nucleus

2. RNA - cytoplasm

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82
Q

What is the major function of DNA vs RNA?

A
  1. DNA - genetic material, directs protein synthesis, replicates itself before cell division
  2. RNA - carries out the genetic instructions for protein synthesis
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83
Q

What are the sugars in DNA vs RNA?

A
  1. DNA - deoxyribose

2. RNA - ribose

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84
Q

What are the bases in DNA vs RNA?

A
  1. DNA - adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine

2. RNA - adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil

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85
Q

What are the base pairings in DNA?

A

A always bonds to T

G always bonds to C

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86
Q

What is the difference in structure between DNA and RNA?

A
  1. DNA is a double strand coiled into a double helix

2. RNA - single strand, straight or folded

87
Q

Describe what happens in prophase

A

Chromatin coil together in pairs to make chromosomes (double stranded structures).

Chromosomes are connected by button like structures called centromeres.

The centrioles separate and the microtubules make a system called the mitotic spindle.

Nuclear envelope and nucleolus disaappear.

88
Q

Describe what happens in metaphase

A

Chromosomes line up with the equator of the spindle

89
Q

Describe what happens anaphase

A

The centromeres split and the chromosomes (chromotids) seperate from one another and move slowly to opposite ends of the cell with their “arms” dangling behind them.

90
Q

Describe what happens in telophase

A

Chromosomes uncoil and resume the chromatin form, spindles breaks down and disappears, nuclear envelope forms around each chromatin mass and nucleoli appear.

91
Q

Describe what happens in cytokinesis

A

Cell divides. Daughter cells grow and carry out the normal spectrum processes until its their turn to divide.

92
Q

What are undifferentiated cells that can develop into any needed kind of cell?

A

Stem cells

93
Q

What is the normal way for cells to die called?

A

Apoptosis

94
Q

What happens during apoptosis?

A

hydrolytic enzymes are activated inside cell

digest contents of cell

cell shrinks, releases chemical signal which triggers phagocytosis

95
Q

What is increased rate of cell division called?

A

Hyperplasia

96
Q

What is shrinkage or loss of tissue called?

A

Atrophy

97
Q

What is the tail on a chromosome (protects DNA) called?

A

Telomere

98
Q

What does the telomere do?

A

determines the number of times a cell can divide

tail gets shorter with each division

at minimum length cell can no longer divide

plays a big role in aging with the body

99
Q

Name 4 major types of tissues

A
  1. Nervous - internal communication
  2. Muscle - movement
  3. Epithelial - covering and lining
  4. Connective - supporting
100
Q

What is the study of tissue called?

A

Histology

101
Q

What is a photograph taken through a microscope called?

A

Photomicrograph

102
Q

What colours are normally used for staining and for which parts?

A
  1. Nuclei - stained blue or purple

2. Cytoplasm - stained pink

103
Q

Name two types of epithelial tissues

A
  1. Covering and lining epithelia - eg. goblet cells, serous membranes
  2. Glandular epithelia - eg. goblet cells, gastric glands
104
Q

Name 5 characteristics of epithelium

A
  1. Polarity
  2. Closely packed cells
  3. Supported by reticular lamina (connective tissue)
  4. Avascular but innervated
  5. High rate of regeneration
105
Q

Name the two types of covering and lining epithelia

A
  1. Simple - one layer of cells

2. Stratified - two or more layers of cells

106
Q

Name the three shapes of the simple & stratified cells and describe their shape

A
  1. Squamous - flat cells
  2. Cuboidal - cube shaped
  3. Columnar - taller than they are wide
107
Q

Describe simple sqaumous and its location and function

A
  1. one layer of flat cells
  2. located in airsac of lungs, cavities and vessels
  3. function: diffusion, filtration and lubrication
108
Q

Describe the two types of surfaces in epithelial tissue

A
  1. Apical - top surface

2. Basal - bottom surface (basal lamina attached to the reticular lamina create the basement of the membrane)

109
Q

Describe simple cuboidal and its location and function

A
  1. single layer cubed cells
  2. location: kidney tubules and ducts of glands
  3. function: secretion and absorption
110
Q

Describe simple columnar and its location and function

A
  1. single layer of tall skinny cells with microvilli
  2. location: digestive tract, large bronchi, unterine tubes, stomach and colon
  3. function: propels mucous and moves material through, secretion and absorption
111
Q

Describe pseudostratified columnar and its location and function

A
  1. single layer but varied cell heights look stratified with cilia
  2. location: large ducts of glands, trachea and upper respiratory tract
  3. function: capture debris and move debris up and out
112
Q

Describe stratified squamous and its location and function

A
  1. several layers of cells, surface cells are flat and basal cells are cubed or long
  2. location: esophagus, mouth, vagina, skin
  3. function: protection, resists wear and tear
113
Q

Describe stratified cuboidal and its location and function

A
  1. rare - two layers
  2. location: ducts of sweat glands and mammary glands
  3. function: secretion
114
Q

Described stratified columnar and its location and function

A
  1. rare

2. location: transition area between two other types of epithelia

115
Q

Described transitional and its location and function

A
  1. 3-6 layers, apical cells vary, basal cells are cubed or columnar - change shape depending on distension
  2. location: ureters, urinary bladder
  3. function: stretch or shrink to adjust to volume of urine
116
Q

Name two types of glandular epithelia and describe

A
  1. Endocrine glands - secrete directly into the blood via exocytosis and travel directly to the target organ which has the appropriate membrane receptors
  2. Exocrine glands - secret into a tube and onto the body surface - eg. mucous, sweat, oil and salivary glands
117
Q

Name the two types of exocrine glands and describe

A
  1. Unicellular - only important cell is the goblet cell

2. Multicellular - composed of duct and secretory units

118
Q

Name the two duct types found in exocrine glands

A
  1. Simple - duct does not branch

2. Compound - many branches

119
Q

Name the three secretory units found in exocrine glands

A
  1. Tubular - tube shaped
  2. Alveolar - sac shaped
  3. tubuloalveolar - both types
120
Q

Name 6 exocrine glands and location

A
  1. simple tubular - intestine glands
  2. simple branched tubular - stomach glands
  3. compound tubular - duodenal glands (small intestine)
  4. simple branched alveolar - sebaceious (oil) glands
  5. compound branched alveolar - mammary glands
  6. compound tubuloalveolar - salivary glands
121
Q

Name the 2 modes of secretion and describe

A
  1. Merocrine - secreted by exocytosis, long lived (eg. pancreas, sweat and salivary glands)
  2. Holocrine - product accumulates and releases by the rupture of apical cells. Cells die and are placed by mitosis of basal cells. (eg. oil glands)
122
Q

Name 4 classes of connective tissue

A
  1. connective tissue proper (loose and dense)
  2. cartiliage
  3. bone
  4. blood
123
Q

Name 5 major functions of tissue

A

(BSPIT)

Binding
Support
Protect
Insulation
Transport
124
Q

Name 3 characteristics of connective tissue

A
  1. messenchyme common tissue of origin
  2. varying degrees of vascularity / blood supply
  3. cells are scattered in a nonliving matrix
125
Q

Describe two elements of the matrix

A
  1. fills space between cells

2. acts as a filter materials can diffuse through

126
Q

Name the 3 substances the matrix is composed of and their function

A
  1. interstitial fluid, function: reservoir
  2. CAMs - function: “glue”
  3. proteoglycans - function: store water
127
Q

Name and describe 3 fibers embedded in the matrix

A
  1. collagen - thick white fibers (function: resist stretching)
  2. elastic - thin yellow fibers (function: recoil like elastic)
  3. reticular - thin collagen fibers (function: form internal skeleton of some organs)
128
Q

Name and describe the two types cells that are associated with connective tissue

A
  1. blasts - immature, mitotically active (eg. osteoblasts in bone)
  2. blast cells that develop into mature cells that maintain the matrix but can revert to blasts to repair tissue (ie. osteocytes in bone or chondrocytes in cartiliage)
129
Q

Name the two types of cells involved in defense

A

White Blood Cells

Macrophages

130
Q

Name the cells involved in fat storage

A

Adipose Cells

131
Q

Name the embryonic tissue

A

Mesenchyme

132
Q

Name the 3 loose connective tissues

A
  1. Aerolar
  2. Adipose
  3. Reticular
133
Q

Name the 3 dense connective tissues

A
  1. dense regular
  2. dense irregular
  3. dense elastic
134
Q

Name the 3 cartilage tissues

A
  1. hyaline
  2. elastic
  3. fibrocartilage
135
Q

Describe areolar and its location and function

A
  1. location: packages organs, around capillaries

2. binds tissues together, protects organs and defense

136
Q

Describe adipose and its location and function

A
  1. location: under skin, around kidneys and eyeballs, abdomen and breasts
  2. function: energy storage, insulation, shock absorber
137
Q

Describe reticular tissue and its location and function

A
  1. location: lymphoid organs (lymph nodes, bone marrow, spleen)
  2. function: supporting framework
138
Q

Describe dense regular tissue and its location and function

A
  1. location: tendons and ligaments

2. function: resist stretching - rope like structures

139
Q

Describe dense irregular tissue and its location and function

A
  1. location: joint capsules and dermis of the skin

2. function: able to with stand tension exerted in many directions and provides structural strength

140
Q

Describe dense elastic and its location and function

A
  1. location: walls of large arteries and lymph vessels

2. function: allows recoil of tissue following stretching

141
Q

Describe hyaline cartilage and its location and function

A
  1. location: joint cavities, nose, trachea

2. resists compression

142
Q

Describe elastic cartilage and its location and function

A
  1. location: external ear and epiglottis

2. function: maintains the shape but is flexible

143
Q

Describe fibrocartilage

A
  1. location: intervertebral discs, pubic symphsis

2. function: strengh with the ability to absorb compressive shock

144
Q

Name 3 types of epithelial membranes

A
  1. cutaneous
  2. mucous
  3. serous
145
Q

Describe where the cutaneous membrane is located and what its function is

A
  1. location: covers the outside of the body, stratified keratinized
  2. function: protects against abrasion, tearing & penetration
146
Q

Describe where the mucous membrane is located and what its function is

A
  1. location: line body cavities

2. function: secretion, absorption

147
Q

What is a goblet cells function?

A

To secrete mucous.

148
Q

Describe where the serous membrane is located and what is function is

A
  1. location: line ventral cavities (parietal serosae) and cover internal organs (visceral serosae)
  2. function: no friction
149
Q

Name the 5 steps in tissue repair

A

RHSPI

Redness
Heat
Swell
Pain
Immobilization
150
Q

Describe the 4 steps in the imflammatory response

A
  1. inflammatory chemicals are released by damaged cells and chemicals trigger pain
  2. capillaries become “leaky” - exudate leaks out of capillaries into injured area - causes swelling and pain that immobilizes area
  3. the exudate contains WBC’s that attack invaders
  4. clotting occurs and a scab forms
151
Q

Describe the 4 steps in organization and restore blood supply

A
  1. clot replaced by granulation tissue
  2. epithelium regenerates
  3. fibroblasts produce collagen fibers
  4. debris phagocytized
152
Q

Describe 3 steps in regenration and fibrosis

A
  1. scab detaches
  2. fibrous tissue matures
  3. results in fully regerated epithelium with underlying scar tissue.
153
Q

Name 3 skeletal cartliages and confirm if they contain blood vessels or nerves

A

No blood vessels or nerves

  1. Hyaline
  2. Elastic
  3. Fibrocartiliage
154
Q

Define appositional cartilage growth

A

chrondroblasts in the surrounding membrane secrete new matrix against external face of existing cartilage

155
Q

Define interstitial cartilage growth

A

chondrocytes inside the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix expanding cartilage from within

156
Q

Name the 2 main groups of bones and what they represent

A
  1. Axial - skull, backbone and ribcage

2. Appendicular - all the rest; girdles and appendages

157
Q

Name the 4 classification shapes

A
  1. long bones - longer than they are wide
  2. short bones - cube shaped - wrist, ankle bones
  3. flat bones - thin, flat, slightly curved - skull
  4. irregular bones - complicated shapes - vertebrae
158
Q

Name the 6 functions of the bones

A

SPMSBT

  1. Support - for body and soft organs
  2. Protection - for brain, spinal cord and vital organs
  3. Movement - form levers for muscle action
  4. Storage - minerals (calcium and phosphorus)
  5. Blood cell formation - (hematopoiesis) in red marrow
  6. Triglyceride - (fat) energy stored in yellow marrow
159
Q

What are bone markings?

A

Bulges, depressions and holes in the bone - any irregularity in surface

160
Q

What function do the bone markings serve?

A

Sites of attachment for muscles, ligaments and tendons. Conduits for blood vessels and nerves

161
Q

Name the two bone textures

A
  1. compact - dense outer layer made up of osteons

2. spongy - inner core; honeycomb of trabeculae

162
Q

What is the shaft of a long bone called?

A

Diaphysis

163
Q

What cavity contains yellow marrow in adults?

A

Medullary cavity

164
Q

What are either ends of a long bone called?

A

Proximal and distal epiphyses

165
Q

What is the remnant of growth plate called?

A

Epiphyseal line

166
Q

What type of hyaline cartilage protects bone ends - on joint surfaces?

A

Articular cartilage

167
Q

Name the two membranes of bones and where they are located

A
  1. periosteum - connective tissue that encloses outside of bone
  2. endosteum - connective tissue membrane on inside of bone
168
Q

What 3 cells are located in the periosteum?

A
  1. osteoblasts - bone forming cells
  2. osteoclasts - bone destroying cells
  3. osteogenic cells - stem cells
169
Q

What 2 cells are located in the endosteum?

A
  1. osteoblasts

2. osteoclasts

170
Q

What is the nutrient foramen?

A

openings in the periosteum where blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves can enter bone

171
Q

What type of fiber attach periosteum to bone?

A

Sharpey’s fibers

172
Q

Describe the structure of short, irregular and flat bones

A

like a sandwich:

  1. compact bone covered with periosteum on both surfaces
  2. spongy bone covered with endosteum in the centre
  3. red bone marrow between trabeculae
173
Q

What is another name for spongy bone?

A

Diploe

174
Q

Where is the location of red marrow (hematopoietic tissue) in adults?

A
  1. trabecular cavities of heads of femur and humerus

2. trabecular cavities of flat bones

175
Q

Where is the location of red marrow in infants?

A
  1. medullary cavities of long bones

2. in all spaces of spongy bones

176
Q

Name the 4 cells associates with bones and their function

A
  1. osteogenic - location: periosteum and endosteum
    function: stem cells that give rise to osteoblasts
  2. osteoblasts: function: bone forming cells, produce matrix
  3. osteocytes: location - mature bone cells trapped inside cavities in the bone called lacunae
    function: maintain health of bone
  4. osteoclasts: macrophages (WBCs) that breakdown bone by secreting enzymes
177
Q

What is the osteon structural unit called?

A

Haversian system

178
Q

What are weight bearing, column like matrix tubes called?

A

Lamellae

179
Q

Which canal contains blood vessels and nerves

A

Central (Haversian) canal

180
Q

What are the small cavities that contain osteocytes?

A

Lacunae

181
Q

What are the hair like canals that connect lacunae to each other and central canal?

A

Canaliculi

182
Q

What connects blood vessels and nerves of the periosteum and central canal?

A

Perforating (Volkmann’s) canals

183
Q

What encloses the whole bone and resists twisting forces?

A

Circumferential lamellae

184
Q

Describe 2 characteristics of spongy bone

A
  1. contain irregularly arranged lamellae, osteocytes, and canaliculi
  2. capillaries in endosteum supply nutrients
185
Q

What is the organic bone matrix secreted by osteoblasts?

A

Osteoid

186
Q

What percentage of bone mass is the osteoid and what does it contain?

A
  1. 35% of bone mass

2. contains: proteoglycans, glycoproteins and collagen fibers

187
Q

What is the function of osteoid?

A
  1. provide tensile strength and flexibility

2. resists stretching and twisting

188
Q

What is the inorganic material in the bone?

A

hydroxyapatites (mineral salts)

189
Q

What is the percentage of hydroxyapatites in the bone?

A

65%

190
Q

What is the function of hydroxyapatite?

A

provides hardness and resistance to compression

191
Q

What is bone tissue formation called?

A

Osteogeneisis (ossification)

192
Q

Name the 3 basic steps of ossification and when they occur.

A
  1. bone formation - begins in the 2nd month of development
  2. postnatal bone growth - until early adulthood
  3. bone remodelling and repair - lifelong
193
Q

Name the two types of ossification

A
  1. intramembranous ossification

2. endochondral ossification

194
Q

What types of bones does intramembranous ossification form?

A

flat bones (eg cranial)

195
Q

What type of cartilage forms the flat bones?

A

fibrous cartilage

196
Q

Describe the process of intramembranous ossification (4 steps)

A
  1. ossification centre develops in fibrous connect tissue membrane
  2. osteoid is secreted and calcifies
  3. woven bone (spongy bone) and periosteum form
  4. lamellar bone replaces woven bone and red marrow develops
197
Q

What types of bones does endochondral ossification form?

A

Most of the rest of the skeleton

198
Q

What type of cartilage forms bones produced by endochondral cartiliage?

A

Hyaline cartiliage. Cartilage is broken down and replaced by bone.

199
Q

Describe the 5 steps in the endochondral ossification process

A
  1. ossification centre forms bone collar
  2. cartilage in centre if diaphysis calcifies and then develops cavities
  3. spongy bone begins to form in cavities
  4. diaphysis elongates, medullary cavity forms, secondary ossification developes at ephiphyses
  5. epiphyses ossify, hyaline cartilage remains only at epiphyseal plates & articular cartilage
200
Q

Name the 2 types of postnatal bone growth and describe

A
  1. interstitial growth - increase in length (occurs at articular cartilage and epiphyseal plates)
  2. appositional growth - increase in thickness and remodeling of all bones by osteoblasts and osteoclasts on bone surfaces
201
Q

Name the 4 functional zones of the epiphyseal plates

A
  1. proliferation - growth
  2. hypertrophic - increase size
  3. calcification - converted to bone
  4. ossification - osteogenic
202
Q

What stimulates epiphyseal plate activity?

A

growth hormone

203
Q

What modulates activity of growth hormone?

A

thyroid hormone

204
Q

What hormones promote adolescent growth spurts and end growth inducing epiphyseal closure?

A

testosteron and estrogens

205
Q

In an adult no further bone growth occurs except remodelling of bones due to ….. (name two)

A
  1. response to stress

2. variations to blood

206
Q

What are the instances bone remodelling occurs? (name 4 of them)

A
  1. mechanical stress
  2. damage
  3. hormonal changes
  4. variations in blood calcium levels
207
Q

What happens when a bone is injured or requires added strength?

A

Bone deposit

208
Q

What occurs when there is a reduction in mechanical stress?

A

Bone resorption

209
Q

If a bone deposit is required, what must a diet be rich in?

A

protein, calcium and phosphorus, vitamins C, D and A

210
Q

What do osteoclasts secrete?

A
  1. lysosomal enzymes that digest organic matrix

2. acids - convert calcium salts into soluble forms

211
Q

What happens to the matrix after its been digested by the osteoclast?

A

its transcytosed across osteoclast, enters instertitial fluid and then blood

212
Q

What controls continual remodelling?

A

hormonal mechanisms - negative feedback loops

213
Q

Name 5 things blood calcium is necessary for.

A
  1. transmission of nerve impulses
  2. muscle contraction
  3. blood coagulation
  4. secretion by glands and nerve cells
  5. cell division
214
Q

Describe the negative feedback scenario with PTH (parathyroid hormone)

A
  1. decreased blood calcium
  2. parathyroids release PTH
  3. PTH stimulates osteoclasts to degrade bone matrix
  4. calcium released into blood
  5. increase in blood calcium

A&P (11 decks)

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