CH. 5 - Departing IFR Extra Notecards Flashcards

1
Q

What are the alternate minimums for an airport with a precision approach procedure?

A

600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

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2
Q

What are the standard alternate minimums for a VOR approach?

A

800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

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3
Q

What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions when an alternate is required?

A

Fuel to fly to the destination, the alternate, and 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruising speed.

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4
Q

Under what condition is an airport not qualified for alternate use?

A

If the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored.

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5
Q

What are the minimum weather conditions to list an airport as an alternate if no approved IAP exists?

A

The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.

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6
Q

Is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL if the proposed ETA is 1930Z with the given TAF?

TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040
BCMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012
00000KT
P6SM CLR=

A

No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

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7
Q

What items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance in a radar environment?

A

Destination airport, altitude, Departure Procedure (DP) Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

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8
Q

When should you contact departure during a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings?

A

When the tower instructs the change.

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9
Q

What does an ATC clearance reading “…CRUISE SIX THOUSAND…” authorize a pilot to do?

A

Conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000 feet.

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10
Q

What does a “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance authorize a pilot to do?

A

Vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

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11
Q

In an abbreviated departure clearance, which information is always included?

A

Destination airport and route.

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12
Q

What will an abbreviated departure clearance “…CLEARED AS FILED…” always contain?

A

The name of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.

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13
Q

How is a Remote Outlet different from a Ground Communication Outlet (GCO)?

A

A Remote Outlet connects directly to Clearance Delivery, while a GCO connects via a phone line.

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14
Q

What does the issuance of a clearance with a void time indicate when departing from a non-towered airport?

A

The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, if not off by the void time.

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15
Q

What is a Ground Communications Outlet (GCO)?

A

A frequency that can be used to contact Clearance Delivery by phone.

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16
Q

Where can the frequency for a GCO be found?

A

Both the Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Chart and the Chart Supplement.

17
Q

What frequency should be used to contact ATC for an IFR clearance at KDMW?

A

121.725 MHz.

18
Q

What is the minimum acceptable rate of climb required to 8,700 feet for the RENO9.FMG departure at a ground speed of 150 knots from RWY 34L?

A

1,200 feet per minute.

19
Q

What action should a pilot take if they do not wish to use an instrument departure procedure (DP)?

A

Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

20
Q

What is the standard IFR climb gradient unless otherwise stated?

A

200 feet per nautical mile.

21
Q

What is the required rate of climb in feet per minute for a ground speed of 140 knots if the procedure requires 210 feet per nautical mile?

A

490 feet per minute.

22
Q

What must a pilot possess to use an instrument departure procedure (DP)?

A

At least the textual description of the approved procedure.

23
Q

What must a pilot possess if an instrument departure procedure is accepted?

A

A textual or graphic depiction of the procedure.