CH. 3 - Introducing Instrument Approaches Flashcards

1
Q

What does the localizer provide guidance for in an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
____________ ____________ ____________ displaying deviation from the runway centerline.

A

Lateral course guidance displaying deviation from the runway centerline.

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2
Q

In an ILS approach, what does it mean if the localizer needle is right of center?
The aircraft is ____________ of the runway centerline.

A

The aircraft is left of the runway centerline.

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3
Q

What does the glideslope indicate in an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
____________ course displaying deviation from the appropriate descent angle to the touchdown zone.

A

Vertical course displaying deviation from the appropriate descent angle to the touchdown zone.

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4
Q

In an ILS approach, what does it mean if the glideslope needle is above center?

A

The aircraft is below the proper glideslope.

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5
Q

What factors affect the proper descent rate on an ILS glideslope?

A

Airspeed and wind, with tailwind requiring a faster descent.

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6
Q

What should a pilot do at the decision height if visual runway cues are not gained?

A

Execute a missed approach.

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7
Q

What symbol on an approach plate indicates the precision final approach fix?

A

The lightning bolt symbol.

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8
Q

What is a Precision Runway Monitor approach?
An approach where ____________ runways are in use simultaneously, with aircraft on different tower frequencies.

A

An approach where parallel runways are in use simultaneously, with aircraft on different tower frequencies.

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9
Q

What is the minimum radar separation for aircraft on adjacent localizer courses during parallel ILS approaches?

A

1 ½ miles.

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10
Q

How is the glideslope intercept altitude illustrated on precision approach charts?

A

By a zigzag line and an altitude.

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11
Q

What does the glideslope (GS) intercept altitude represent in a precision approach?
The minimum ____________ for GS interception after completing the ____________ turn.

A

The minimum altitude for GS interception after completing the procedure turn.

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12
Q

What additional information is depicted on precision approach profiles besides the GS intercept altitude?

The glideslope ____________ of descent, ____________ crossing height (TCH), and GS ____________ at the outer marker (OM) or designated fix.

A

The glideslope angle of descent, threshold crossing height (TCH), and GS altitude at the outer marker (OM) or designated fix.

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13
Q

On non-precision approaches, where does the final segment begin?

A

At the Final Approach Fix (FAF), identified by the Maltese cross symbol.

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14
Q

When no Final Approach Fix (FAF) is depicted on a non-precision approach, where does the final approach segment begin?
At the point where the aircraft is established ____________ on the ____________ ____________ ____________.

A

At the point where the aircraft is established inbound on the final approach course.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of stepdown fixes on non-precision approaches?
To authorize a lower ____________ ____________ ____________ .

A

To authorize a lower minimum descent altitude (MDA).

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16
Q

How are stepdown fixes depicted on non-precision approach charts?
With the ____________ or ____________ name and a ____________ line.

A

With the fix or facility name and a dashed line.

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17
Q

Are altitude restrictions at stepdown fixes applicable to precision approaches?

A

No, they are not applicable to precision (ILS, LPV, or LNAV/VNAV) approaches.

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18
Q

On non-precision approaches, how does the approach track proceed after descending to the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)?
It proceeds ____________ to the missed approach point (MAP).

A

It proceeds horizontally to the missed approach point (MAP).

19
Q

What is the approach speed range for Category A aircraft?

A

Less than 91 KIAS.

20
Q

What is the approach speed range for Category B aircraft?

A

91-120 KIAS.

21
Q

What is the approach speed range for Category C aircraft?

A

121-140 KIAS.

22
Q

What is the approach speed range for Category D aircraft?

A

141-165 KIAS.

23
Q

What is the approach speed for Category E aircraft?

A

Greater than 165 KIAS.

24
Q

How is an aircraft’s approach category determined?
By ____________ speed, or ____________ times the stall speed in a landing configuration at gross weight.

A

By approach speed, or 1.3 times the stall speed in a landing configuration at gross weight.

25
Q

What should a pilot do if the aircraft’s approach speed puts it in a higher category than its normal category?

A

Adhere to the higher category’s minimums.

26
Q

What action should a pilot take if a component of an instrument approach, like the glideslope, is inoperative?
Use the highest ____________ required by any single usable component, such as the ____________ only.

A

Use the highest minimum required by any single usable component, such as the localizer only.

27
Q

What does Runway Visual Range (RVR) indicate?
The ____________ distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.

A

The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.

28
Q

What visibility can be substituted if RVR is inoperative and RVR24 (2,400 feet) is required for the approach?

A

One half mile visibility.

29
Q

What does Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) allow at airports with intersecting runways?

A

It allows ATC to use both runways simultaneously.

30
Q

Where are hold short positions for LAHSO depicted?

A

On taxiway diagrams.

31
Q

Are pilots required to accept a LAHSO clearance?

A

No, pilots are not required to accept LAHSO and can reject the request.

32
Q

Are student pilots on solo flights allowed to participate in LAHSO?

A

No, student pilots on solo flights are not permitted to participate in LAHSO.

33
Q

What are Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL) and where are they positioned?
Two ____________ strobe lights positioned at the ____________, ____________ on either side of the runway.

A

Two white strobe lights positioned at the threshold, one on either side of the runway.

34
Q

What is the purpose of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?

A

To allow for the rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility or at night.

35
Q

What should pilots do to avoid wake turbulence when landing behind another aircraft?

A

Plan to stay above and land beyond the preceding aircraft.

36
Q

What should pilots do to avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind another aircraft?

A

Plan to rotate prior to the preceding aircraft’s rotation point.

37
Q

How do crosswinds affect wake turbulence?

A

Crosswinds decrease the lateral movement of the upwind vortex and increase the lateral movement of the downwind vortex.

38
Q

During an ILS approach in IFR conditions, what should a pilot do if the glideslope warning flag appears after passing the final approach fix?

A

The pilot is permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.

39
Q

If RVR minimums are prescribed but the RVR is inoperative, what should be done?
Convert the RVR minimums to ____________ visibility and apply them.

A

Convert the RVR minimums to ground visibility and apply them.

40
Q

What are the landing minimums for the ILS RWY 32 approach at Dothan Regional after executing a missed approach?

A

200 AGL - 1/2 SM.

41
Q

If RVR equipment is inoperative, how should the visibility requirement be reported for an IAP requiring 2,400 RVR?

As a _____________ visibility of _____ SM.

A

As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

42
Q

What should be done if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?

A

Use the highest minimum required by any single usable component.

43
Q

What is the basis for determining an aircraft’s Stall speed?
________ times the stall speed in _____________ configuration at ____________ gross landing weight.

A

1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.