CH. 5 - Departing IFR Flashcards

1
Q

What is required for IFR operations in controlled airspace (A through E)?

A

An IFR flight plan on file.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What wake turbulence category is specified in Item 9 for an aircraft with an MTOW of 15,500 lb. or less?

A

L (light)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What wake turbulence category applies to aircraft with a weight between 15,500 and 300,000 lb.?

A

M (medium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What wake turbulence category is used for aircraft with an MTOW of 300,000 lb. or greater?

A

H (heavy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What equipment code in the ICAO flight plan represents standard VHF radio, VOR receiver, and ILS receiver?

A

S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What equipment code is used for IFR-approved GPS on the ICAO flight plan?

A

G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What information should be included in Item 19, “Endurance” on an ICAO flight plan?

A

The aircraft’s usable fuel on board, in time remaining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Under what conditions can IFR flight plans be canceled?

A

In VFR conditions outside of Class A airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who closes IFR flight plans at non-towered fields?

A

The pilot, by contacting Flight Service on the ground or ATC while airborne.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight under Part 91?

A

When the weather is forecast to be below 2000’ AGL ceiling or 3 SM visibility within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the time of intended landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the weather minimums for an alternate airport with a precision approach under Part 91 IFR planning?

A

At least 600’ AGL ceiling and 2 SM visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the weather minimums for an alternate airport with only non-precision approaches available under Part 91 IFR planning?

A

At least 800’ AGL ceiling and 2 SM visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Are GPS approaches considered precision approaches for alternate airport minimums under Part 91 IFR planning?

A

No, GPS approaches, including LPV (localizer performance with vertical guidance), are not considered precision approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What landing minimums apply when landing at the alternate airport?

A

The published landing minimums for the selected procedure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an abbreviated IFR clearance?
A clearance given when the route filed has not been ____________ or _____________ very little, stating the clearance limit, departure procedure, transition, and transponder code, with the remainder “as filed.”

A

A clearance given when the route filed has not been amended or changed very little, stating the clearance limit, departure procedure, transition, and transponder code, with the remainder “as filed.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is the departure frequency omitted in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
When there is only ____________ frequency for the airport or departure procedure flown.

A

When there is only one frequency for the airport or departure procedure flown.

17
Q

Who instructs an IFR aircraft when to switch to the departure frequency at a towered airport?

A

The control tower.

18
Q

What does a cruise clearance allow a pilot to do?

A

It assigns a block of altitude where level offs and descents can be made at pilot discretion.

19
Q

What happens if a pilot descends within a cruise clearance and informs ATC?

A

The pilot cannot climb back above that altitude without a new clearance from ATC.

20
Q

What is a clearance void time when departing IFR from a non-towered airport?

A

The time by which takeoff must begin, or the clearance is no longer valid.

21
Q

What must a pilot do if they have not departed by the clearance void time?

A

Inform ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes after the void time.

22
Q

What is a Ground Communications Outlet (GCO)?

A

An indirect means of contacting ATC via a telephone line attached to the outlet at a non-towered airport.

23
Q

How can a pilot find the frequency for a GCO at a non-towered airport?

A

In the airport chart supplement, airport diagram, or IFR charts.

24
Q

What is a remote outlet at a non-towered airport?
A direct _____________ link with _____________ from the _____________.

A

A direct radio link with ATC from the ground.

25
Q

Can a GCO or remote outlet connect a pilot to Flight Service?

A

No, these outlets do not connect to Flight Service.

26
Q

What is a climb gradient on an instrument departure?
The required _____________ gain for a ____ nautical mile distance traveled over the ground.

A

The required altitude gain for a 1 nautical mile distance traveled over the ground.

27
Q

How do you convert climb gradient (ft/NM) to climb rate (ft/min)?

Divide the ______________ speed by ____, then multiply by the _____________ gradient.

A

Divide the ground speed by 60, then multiply by the climb gradient.

28
Q

What must a pilot possess if accepting a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?

A

At least a textual depiction of the procedure.

29
Q

What is the standard climb gradient if no specific gradient is specified in a SID?

A

200 feet per nautical mile.

30
Q

What is the standard visibility minimum for a SID if no weather minimums are specified?

A

1 mile for aircraft with one or two engines, and 1/2 mile for aircraft with more than two engines.