Ch. 23 The First Trimester Flashcards

1
Q

Graafian follicle

A

the name for the dominant follicle before ovulation

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2
Q

fimbria

A

the fingerlike extension of the fallopian tube located on the infundibulum

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3
Q

infundibulum

A

the distal segment of the fallopian tube

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4
Q

the combination of a female ovum with a male sperm to produce a zygote; also referred to as fertilization

A

Conception

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5
Q

the longest and most tortuous segment of the fallopian tube; area of the tube in which fertilization takes place and a common location for ectopic pregnancies to implant

A

ampulla

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6
Q

the cell formed by the union of two gametes; the first stage of a fertilized ovum

A

zygote

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7
Q

the developmental stage of the conceptus following the zygote

A

morula

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8
Q

the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium

A

blastocyst

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9
Q

the cells that surround the gestation that produce human chorionic gonadotropin

A

trophoblastic cells

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10
Q

hormone produced by the trophoblastic cells of the early placenta; may also be used as a tumor marker in nongravid patients and males

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

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11
Q

term given to the developing fetus before 10 weeks’ gestation

A

embryo

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12
Q

the wall of the inner sac (amniotic cavity) that contains the embryo and amniotic fluid; echogenic curvilinear structure that may be seen during the first trimester within the gestational sac

A

amnion

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13
Q

the outer membrane of a gestation that surrounds the amnion and the developing embryo

A

chorion

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14
Q

Sound Off:
The _____ are the cells that produce the pregnancy hormone hCG.

A

trophoblastic cells

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15
Q

fingerlike projections of gestational tissue that attach to the decidualized endometrium and allow the transfer of nutrients from the mother to the fetus

A

chorionic villi

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16
Q

a bleed that occurs at the time in which the conceptus implants into the decidualized endometrium

A

implantation bleeding

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17
Q

the gestational sac; also see key term chorion

A

chorionic sac

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18
Q

the structure responsible for early nutrient transfer to the embryo; the yolk sac seen during a sonographic examination of the early gestation

A

secondary yolk sac

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19
Q

the space between the chorionic sac and the amniotic sac that contains the secondary yolk sac; also referred to as the extraembryonic coelom

A

chorionic cavity

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20
Q

Sound Off:
The ____ is also referred to as the chorionic sac.

A

gestational sac

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21
Q

the way in which a pregnancy can be dated based on the first day of the last menstrual cycle; also referred to as menstrual age

A

menstrual age or gestational age

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22
Q

Sound Off:
In the first trimester, ____maintains the corpus luteum of the ovary so that the corpus luteum can continue to produce progesterone.

A

hCG, *the sustained production of progesterone maintains the thickness of the endometrium, thus allowing implantation to occur

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23
Q

physiologic ovarian cyst that develops after ovulation has occurred

A

corpus luteum cyst

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24
Q

the level of human chorionic gonadotropin beyond which an intrauterine pregnancy is consistently visible

A

discriminatory zone

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25
Q

Sound Off:
A gestational sac, the earliest definitive sign of an IUP, should generally be visualized between ____ with transvaginal sonography.

A

1,000 and 2,000 mIU per mL with

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26
Q

Sound Off:
Normal hCG levels ____ every 48 hours in the first trimester.

A

double

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27
Q

the physiologic effect on the endometrium in the presence of a pregnancy

A

decidual reaction

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28
Q

a pregnancy located outside the endometrial cavity of the uterus

A

ectopic pregnancy

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29
Q

Sound Off:
The first definitive sonographic sign of an IUP is identification of the ____ within the decidualized endometrium.

A

gestational sac

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30
Q

the appearance of a small gestational sac in the uterine cavity surrounded by the thickened, echogenic endometrium

A

intradecidual sign

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31
Q

the appearance of an abnormally shaped false gestational sac within the uterine cavity as a result of an ectopic pregnancy; this often corresponds with the accumulation of blood and secretions within the uterine cavity

A

pseudogestational sac

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32
Q

the normal sonographic appearance of the decidua capsularis (inner layer) and decidua parietalis (outer layer), separated by the anechoic fluid-filled uterine cavity

A

double sac sign or double decidual sign

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33
Q

the measurement of the gestational sac to obtain a gestational age; achieved by adding the measurements of the length, width, and height of the gestational sac and dividing by 3

A

mean sac diameter

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34
Q

Sound Off:
By adding ____to the MSD (measurement in millimeter), sonographers can obtain an estimate for the gestational age in days.

A

30

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35
Q

the development of blood cells

A

hematopoiesis

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36
Q

the structure that connects the developing embryo to the secondary yolk sac

A

vitelline duct

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37
Q

Sound Off:
The yolk sac is connected to the embryo by the ____, also referred to as the omphalomesenteric duct, which contains one artery and one vein.

A

vitelline duct

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38
Q

the cavity that contains simple-appearing amniotic fluid and the developing embryo

A

amniotic cavity

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39
Q

Sound Off:
The ____ is located within the chorionic cavity.

A

yolk sac

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40
Q

a low heart rate

A

Bradycardia

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41
Q

the measurement of the embryo/fetus from the top of the head to the rump

A

crown rump length (CRL)

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42
Q

early embryonic structures that will eventually give rise to the extremities

A

limb buds

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43
Q

Sound Off:
The most accurate sonographic measurement of pregnancy is the ____.

A

CRL

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44
Q

the primary brain vesicle also referred to as the hindbrain; becomes the cerebellum, pons, medulla oblongata, and fourth ventricle

A

rhombencephalon

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45
Q

Sound Off:
Within the fetal head, a cystic structure may be noted. This most often represents the _____, which will develop into the _______ and other essential brain structures.

A

rhombencephalon; fourth ventricle

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46
Q

the normal developmental stage when the midgut migrates into the base of the umbilical cord

A

Physiologic bowel herniation

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47
Q

Sound Off:
If physiologic bowel herniation does not resolve by ____ weeks, a follow-up examination is often warranted.

A

12

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48
Q

specialized cells within the ventricular system responsible for cerebrospinal fluid production

A

choroid plexus

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49
Q

a double fold of dura mater located within midline of the brain

A

falx cerebri

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50
Q

the endometrial tissue at the implantation site, and the maternal contribution of the placenta

A

decidua basalis

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51
Q

the part of the chorion, covered by chorionic villi, that is the fetal contribution of the placenta

A

chorion frondosum

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52
Q

the anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck

A

nuchal translucency (NT)

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53
Q

chromosomal aberration in which there is a third chromosome 21; also referred to as Down syndrome

A

trisomy 21

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54
Q

chromosomal aberration in which there is a third chromosome 18; also referred to as Edwards syndrome

A

trisomy 18

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55
Q

a chromosomal aberration where one sex chromosome is absent; may also be referred to as monosomy X

A

Turner syndrome

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56
Q

Sound Off:
The NT is optimally measured between ____ and ____ weeks ____ days’ gestation, when the CRL measures between 45 and 84 mm.

A

11 and 13 weeks and 6 days

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57
Q

Sound Off:
Sonographers can obtain ____ in NT, nasal bone, ductus venosus flow, tricuspid flow, and other fetal and maternal assessments through the Fetal Medicine Foundation.

A

certification

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58
Q

Conception usually occurs within ______hours after ovulation.

The combination of the sperm and ovum produces a structure referred to as the ______. The zygote undergoes rapid cellular division and eventually forms into a cluster of cells called the ______. The morula continues to differentiate and form a structure referred to as the ______. The outer tissue layer of the blastocyst is composed of syncytiotrophoblastic tissue, also referred to as _______.The inner part of the blastocyst will develop into the embryo, amnion, umbilical cord, and the primary and secondary yolk sacs. The outer part, the trophoblastic tissue, will develop into the _____and______.

A

24; zygote; morula; blastocyst; trophoblastic cells; placenta and chorion

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59
Q

On day 20 or 21 of the menstrual cycle, the blastocyst begins to implant into the decidualized endometrium at the level of the uterine fundus. By ____ days, complete implantation has occurred, and all early connections have been established between the gestation and the mother. The blastocyst makes these link with the maternal endometrium via small projections of tissue called _______.

A

28; chorionic villi

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60
Q

The _______ week of gestation is an extremely dynamic stage in the pregnancy. The primary yolk sac regresses during week 4, and two separate membranes are formed. The outer membrane is the chorionic sac or ________. Within the gestational sac is the amnion or amniotic sac. By the end of week 4, the secondary yolk sac becomes wedged between these two membranes in an area called the _________or extraembryonic coelom.

A

fourth; gestational sac; chorionic cavity

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61
Q

The developing embryo is located between the yolk sac and the amnion at ____weeks. At this time, the alimentary canal is formed. It will become the _____, _______, and _____. The neural tube also begins to develop at this time.

A

4; foregut, midgut, and hindgut

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62
Q

By ______ weeks, suspicion of pregnancy abounds, because the woman misses the scheduled onset of menses for the month. By ___ weeks, all internal and external structures are in the process of forming.

A

5; 6

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63
Q

The laboratory test used to detect pregnancy is ______. This hormone is produced throughout pregnancy by the ______.

A

hCG; placenta

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64
Q

Both blood, or serum, and urine tests can be _______, answering the question, “Is the patient pregnant?” But only blood can be _______, answering the question, “How pregnant is the patient?” hCG is detected in the maternal blood as early as 23 days’ menstrual age. hCG can be detected in the urine at 20 mIU/mL or greater, whereas serum can detect levels greater than ___ mIU/mL.

A

qualitative; quantitative;

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65
Q

The period given to describe the earliest sonographic detection of an IUP is termed the _________or level.

A

discriminatory zone

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66
Q

Typically, a 5-mm gestational sac will be seen at approximately 5 menstrual weeks. Normal hCG levels _______ every 48 hours in the first trimester. High and low levels of hCG compared with LMP and sonographic findings can be indicative of an abnormal pregnancy.The hCG level will continue to rise until the end of the first trimester, at which time it plateaus and slowly _________with advancing gestation.

A

double; decreases

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67
Q

the use of ______ exposure in the first trimester should be limited, and the _______principle (as-low-as-reasonably achievable) be practiced. The thermal index, which is the amount of energy required to raise tissue temperature 1°C, should be kept below ____. The mechanical index should also be kept below _____.

A

color Doppler; ALARA; 1; 1

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68
Q

A decidual reaction is considered to be a nonspecific sonographic finding of pregnancy because the endometrium can also appear thick and echogenic during the_______ phase of the endometrial cycle and in the presence of an ________.

A

secretory; ectopic pregnancy

(*decidual reaction seen in weeks 3 and 4)

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69
Q

The blastocyst gives rise to the ________, or chorionic sac. The early gestational sac, which is first seen at _____ weeks, appears as a small, anechoic sphere within the decidualized endometrium. It will grow at a rate of _____ per day in early pregnancy.

A

gestational sac; 5; 1mm

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70
Q

The measurement of the ___________is the earliest sonographic measurement that can be obtained to date the pregnancy.

A

gestational sac

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71
Q

The gestational sac measurement is a relatively accurate form of dating that can be used until a _________ is sonographically recognized.

A

fetal pole

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72
Q

An irregularly shaped gestational sac and an MSD of greater than _______that does not contain a _______are both signs of potential pregnancy failure.

A

25 mm; fetal pole

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73
Q

The first structure seen with sonography within the gestational sac is the ________. It appears within the gestational sac as a round, anechoic structure surrounded by a thin, echogenic rim. It is located within the chorionic cavity, between the amnion and the chorion. This cavity (chorionic) may also be referred to as the ___________ or extracelomic space.

A

secondary yolk sac; extraembryonic coelom

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74
Q

The yolk sac produces ________and plays an important role in ________ and _________during early embryologic development.

A

alpha-fetoprotein (AFP); angiogenesis and hematopoiesis

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75
Q

The yolk sac is connected to the embryo by the _______, also referred to as the omphalomesenteric duct, which contains one artery and one vein.

A

vitelline duct

76
Q

The yolk sac can be measured during the first trimester. It should be measured from the __________ aspects of the yolk sac wall. The yolk sac should not exceed _____, and it should also be evaluated for irregular shape and echogenicity.

A

inner-to-inner; 7mm

77
Q

The gestational sac consists of what 2 cavities?

A

chorionic and amniotic cavity

78
Q

The _______ cavity lies between the amnion and the chorion. It contains the yolk sac and fluid.

79
Q

The amniotic cavity contains simple-appearing amniotic fluid and the developing ________. The amniotic membrane, or _______, can be seen within the gestational sac as a thin, echogenic line loosely surrounding the embryo

A

embryo, amnion

80
Q

The amnion and chorion typically fuse around the middle of the first trimester, but may not be totally fused until __________ gestation.

81
Q

By _____ weeks, the embryo can be seen located within the amniotic cavity adjacent to the yolk sac, with transvaginal sonography. The documentation of fetal heart activity is performed using _______

A

6; motion mode(M-mode)

82
Q

Occasionally, a tiny heartbeat is often seen before an embryo can be measured, with sonographic documentation of heart activity being present between ___ and ____ weeks. Heart motion can be detected in a ___-mm embryo, with motion certainly evident within the ____-mm embryo. The embryo will grow at a rate of ______ per day in the first trimester.

A

5 and 6; 4; 5; 1mm

83
Q

Embryonic heart rate is considered normal at _____ to ____ bpm between 5 and 6 weeks. The heart rate increases to ____ bpm by 9 weeks. From the second trimester to term, the fetal heart rate is typically around 150 bpm, although it will vary with gestation age.

A

100 to 110, 150

84
Q

The most accurate sonographic measurement of pregnancy is the _________. The CRL can be taken when a fetal pole is identified and should not include the ____ or _______within the measurement

A

crown rump length (CRL); yolk sac or fetal limb buds

85
Q

Fetal limb buds are readily identified by 7 weeks. The fetal head at this time is proportionally ______ than the body.

86
Q

Physiologic bowel herniation begins at _____weeks, which marks the developmental stage when the midgut migrates into the base of the umbilical cord. This phenomenon is developmentally normal

87
Q

The developing placenta may be noted at the end of first trimester as a well-defined, crescent-shaped ________ mass of tissue, along the margins of the gestational sac. The placenta is formed by the ________, the maternal contribution of the placenta, and the _________, the fetal contribution.

A

homogenous; decidua basalis; chorion frondosum

88
Q

The ________is visible during the latter half of the first trimester as a tortuous structure connecting the fetus to the developing placenta.

A

umbilical cord

89
Q

The most common abnormalities associated with increased NT are trisomy ____, trisomy ____, ______syndrome, and ________.

A

21; 18; Turner syndrome; congestive heart failure

90
Q

The normal range of thickness of the NT is based on the gestational age, although, most often, a measurement greater than _______between 11 and 13 weeks 6 days is considered abnormal and warrants a follow-up examination, referral for fetal echocardiography, and fetal karyotyping.

91
Q

For NT measurement of this area is performed in the ________ plane to the fetus, with the fetus in a ________position.

A

sagittal; neutral

92
Q

In a normal fetus(nasal bone assessment), this will provide an “_______” in the area of the nasal bone and overlying nasal skin.

A

equal sign

93
Q

Ductus venosus flow is analyzed with color and pulsed Doppler to evaluate for signs of ________impedance in the fetal ductus venosus at 11 to 13 weeks’ gestation. This ________impedance has been shown to be associated with fetal aneuploidies and cardiac defects. It is the ___-wave that is analyzed, and studies have revealed that the a-wave is normal when it is positive during atrial contraction and abnormal when the a-wave is absent or reversed.

A

increased; increased; a
*this is not routinely assessed

94
Q

Tricuspid flow, which is again not a routine sonographic assessment in the low-risk population, is analyzed for signs of tricuspid ________ between 11 and 13 weeks, a common malady in fetuses with trisomies 21, 18, and 13 and those with cardiac defects.

A

regurgitation
*this is not routinely assessed

95
Q

The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is the ovarian _________.

A

corpus luteum cyst

96
Q

Typically, the corpus luteum measures between 2 and 3 cm and regresses near the _____ of the first trimester, although it may continue to grow as large as ____cm.

97
Q

Clinical Findings of the _________of Pregnancy

1.Asymptomatic
2.Pain associated with hemorrhage and enlargement of cyst

A

Corpus Luteum

98
Q

Sonographic Findings of the Corpus Luteum of Pregnancy

1.Simple cyst appearance
2.A cysts with a thick, echogenic rim around it (may be difficult to differentiate from other solid and cystic adnexal masses)(increased color flow with color Doppler; this rim of vascularity often produces a low-resistance spectral doppler waveform)
2.Hemorrhagic cyst appearance, including complex components or entirely echogenic depending on the amount of blood and stage of lysis

99
Q

The________ is a functional cyst that is maintained during the first trimester by hCG, which is produced by the developing placenta.

A

corpus luteum of pregnancy

100
Q

An ectopic pregnancy, also referred to as an extrauterine pregnancy (EUP), is the most common cause of _________ with a positive pregnancy test. It can lead to pregnancy loss and, in some cases, maternal death.

A

pelvic pain

101
Q

An ______ is defined as a pregnancy located anywhere other than the endometrial or uterine cavity. Women with a history of assisted reproductive therapy (technology), fallopian tube scarring, and/or pelvic inflammatory disease are among the list of patients who are at high risk for an _______

A

EUP (extrauterine pregnancy)

102
Q
A

pelvic inflammatory disease

103
Q

complication of pregnancy in which both extrauterine and intrauterine pregnancy occur simultaneously

A

heterotopic pregnancy

104
Q

The most common location of an EUP is within the fallopian tube, specifically the _______ portion of the tube. Other locations for ectopic implantation include the isthmus of the tube, the fimbria, abdomen, interstitial portion of the fallopian tube (cornu of the uterus), ovary, and cervix, with the least common locations being the latter two

105
Q

Contributing factors for __________

Previous ectopic pregnancy

Previous tubal surgery (including tubal sterilization)

History of pelvic inflammatory disease (salpingitis)

Undergoing infertility treatment

Previous or present use of an intrauterine contraceptive device

Multiparity

Advanced maternal age

A

ectopic pregnancy

106
Q

What is the classic clinical triad of EUP?

A

pain, vaginal bleeding, and a palpable abdominal/pelvic mass

107
Q

Clinical Findings of _________

1.Classic clinical triad—pain, vaginal bleeding, palpable abdominal/pelvic mass
2.Amenorrhea
3.Positive pregnancy test
4.Low beta-hCG compared with normal intrauterine gestation
5.Shoulder pain (secondary to intraperitoneal hemorrhage with diaphragmatic irritation)
6.Low hematocrit (with rupture)
7.Cervical motion tenderness

A

Ectopic Pregnancy

108
Q

Sonographic Findings of ________

1.Extrauterine gestational sac containing a yolk sac or an embryo
2.Adnexal ring sign (may be surrounded by rim of vascularity—“ring of fire”)
3.Complex adnexal mass
4.Large amount of free fluid within the pelvis or in Morison pouch
5.Complex free fluid could represent hemoperitoneum
6.Pseudogestational sac
7.Poor decidual reaction
8.Endometrial cavity containing blood

A

Ectopic Pregnancy

109
Q

the sonographic sign that describes the appearance of an ectopic pregnancy within the fallopian tube; may be referred to as the tubal ring sign, bagel sign, or blob sign

A

adnexal ring sign

110
Q

the space between the liver and right kidney; also referred to as the right subhepatic space or hepatorenal space

A

Morison pouch

111
Q

An EUP that implants within the intramural portion of the fallopian tube may be referred to as an___________, and in the past, it was referred to as a cornual pregnancy. This portion of the uterus is ______ vascular and is prone to excessive hemorrhage. Interstitial pregnancies are considered potentially life-threatening because the pregnancy may progress normally until spontaneous rupture occurs. In the presence of an interstitial pregnancy, sonography will yield a gestational sac that is located in the _______portion of the uterus.

A

interstitial pregnancy; highly; superolateral

112
Q

_______ is a drug used to medically treat an EUP. It can be either injected into the ectopic pregnancy with sonographic guidance or taken intramuscularly.

A

Methotrexate

113
Q

a disease associated with an abnormal proliferation of the trophoblastic cells during pregnancy; may also be referred to as a molar pregnancy

A

gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)

114
Q

Benign ________, often referred to as a _________or a hydatidiform mole, is a group of disorders that result from an abnormal combination of male and female gametes

A

gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD); molar pregnancy

115
Q

The common forms of GTD can be described as either a complete molar pregnancy or partial (incomplete) molar pregnancy, with __________being the most common.

116
Q

The term trophoblast relates to the cells that surround the developing gestation. As stated earlier, trophoblastic cells are those cells that produce ______. GTD results in the _______ growth of the trophoblastic cells. Therefore, there are excessive amounts of _______ in the maternal circulation. Although the cause of molar pregnancy is unknown, it has been speculated that perhaps in these situations, a normal sperm fertilizes an empty ovum.

A

hCG; excessive; hCG

117
Q

The _______ molar pregnancy has a higher malignant potential compared to the partial molar pregnancy. The most common forms of malignant GTD are the _______ and __________.The most common sites of metastatic involvement are the lungs, liver, and vagina. However, other organs may be affected.Treatment for GTD includes dilation and curettage, hCG monitoring, hysterectomy, and, possibly, chemotherapy.

A

complete; invasive mole and choriocarcinoma

118
Q

a type of gestational trophoblastic disease in which a molar pregnancy invades into the myometrium and may also invade through the uterine wall and into the peritoneum

A

invasive mole

119
Q

the most malignant form of gestational trophoblastic disease with possible metastasis to the liver, lungs, and vagina

A

choriocarcinoma

120
Q

excessive vomiting during pregnancy

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

121
Q

pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks’ gestation

A

preeclampsia

122
Q

a sequela of preeclampsia in which uncontrollable maternal hypertension and proteinuria lead to maternal convulsions and, possibly, fetal and maternal death

123
Q

Clinical Findings of _____ Pregnancy

1.Hyperemesis gravidarum
2.Markedly elevated hCG level (potentially >100,000 mIU per mL)
3.Heavy vaginal bleeding (with the possible passage of grape-like molar clusters)
4.Enlarged uterus
Possible 5.preeclampsia or eclampsia
6.Hypertension
7.Hyperthyroidism

124
Q

Sonographic Findings of __________

1.Complex mass within the uterus
2.Color Doppler may reveal hypervascularity around the mass, but not within it
3.“Vesicular snowstorm appearance” secondary to placental enlargement
4.Multiple, variable-sized cysts replacing the placental tissue (hydropic chorionic villi)
5.Bilateral ovarian theca lutein cysts (large, bilateral, multiloculated ovarian masses)

A

Complete Molar Pregnancy

125
Q

Clinical Findings of ______ Molar Pregnancy

1.Normal physical examination
2.Normal or slightly elevated hCG level
3.Smaller-than-normal uterus or, possibly, normal-sized uterus based on gestational age
4.Possible vaginal bleeding

126
Q

Sonographic Findings of _______Molar Pregnancy

1.Complex mass within the uterus partially filling the uterine cavity adjacent to the gestational sac
2.“Vesicular snowstorm appearance” secondary to placental enlargement
3.Multiple, variable-sized cysts replacing the placental tissue (hydropic chorionic villi)
4.Triploid fetus

127
Q

The ovarian mass associated with a molar pregnancy and elevated hCG is the _________.

A

theca lutein cyst

128
Q

an abnormal pregnancy in which there is no evidence of a fetal pole or yolk sac within the gestational sac at the appropriate time of development; also referred to as a blighted ovum

A

anembryonic gestation

129
Q

the death of an embryo before 10 weeks’ gestation

A

embryonic demise

130
Q

from an unknown origin

A

idiopathic

131
Q

Clinical Findings of _________

1.Vaginal bleeding
2.Reduction of pregnancy symptoms
3.Low hCG

A

Blighted Ovum/anembryonic gestation

132
Q

Sonographic Findings of _________

1.Large, irregular gestational sac without an embryo or a yolk sac
2.Absent or minimal gestational sac growth
3.Poor decidual reaction

A

Blighted Ovum/anembryonic gestation

133
Q

Embryonic demise, sometimes referred to as ______, is defined as the death of the embryo or fetus. With transvaginal imaging, cardiac activity should be detected in the pole that measures ___ to ____mm. The causes are often idiopathic but may be linked with chromosomal abnormalities.

A

fetal demise; 4 to 5 mm

134
Q

Clinical Findings of ________

1.Vaginal bleeding
2.Small for dates
3.Closed cervix
4.Low (based on LMP) hCG

A

Embryonic or Fetal Demise

135
Q

The normal embryonic heart rate at 6 weeks is typically between _____ and _____ beats per minute (bpm). By 7 weeks, the rate should be at least 120 bpm. Between 8 and 9 weeks, the rate can increase slightly and then plateau at approximately _____ bpm.

A

100 and 100; 150

136
Q

An impending embryonic demise is associated with embryonic ________. A heart rate that is less than _____ bpm at around 6 weeks is considered abnormal. In addition, the majority of pregnancies with less than 80 bpm will eventually go on to miscarry.

A

bradycardia; 90

137
Q

Sonographic Findings of __________

1.No detectable fetal heart activity in a pole that measures 4 to 5 mm
2.Irregularly shaped fetus
3.Irregularly sized or shaped gestational sac (Ex: an abnormally small gestational sac, in relation to the CRL, is also an indicator of a poor prognosis)
4.Irregular-appearing yolk sac (misshapen, calcified, large, or echogenic) *specifically a yolk sac that measures over 7mm in diameter has been linked with a high rate of pregnancy failure)

A

Embryonic or Fetal Demise

138
Q

a gestational sac that has an MSD of between ____ and ____ mm with no evidence of an embryo can be a suspicious sign of early pregnancy failure. A follow-up sonogram in 7 to 10 days is often recommended to confirm viability.

139
Q

the complete expulsion or partial expulsion of the conceptus

140
Q

the spontaneous end of a pregnancy before viability

A

miscarriage

141
Q

The termination of a pregnancy before viability is termed a _______ or an _______. There are several categories of abortions, including threatened, complete, incomplete, missed, inevitable, septic, and elective

A

miscarriage; abortion

142
Q

Clinical findings consistent with a _______ include vaginal bleeding, pelvic cramping, and the passage of the products of conception. Many miscarriages are ________. However, first-trimester miscarriages have been linked with ovarian abnormalities, aneuploid fetuses, maternal infections, physical abuse, trauma, drug abuse, maternal endocrine abnormalities, and anatomic factors.

A

miscarriage; idiopathic

143
Q

a bleed between the endometrium and the gestational sac at the edge of the placenta

A

subchorionic hemorrhages; may also be referred to as a perigestational hemorrhage

144
Q

Clinical Findings of ____________

1.Vaginal bleeding or spotting
2.Uterine cramping
3.Closed cervix

A

Subchorionic Hemorrhage

145
Q

Sonographic Findings of __________

1.Crescent-shaped anechoic, echogenic, or hypoechoic area adjacent to the gestational sac at the margin of the placenta (depends on the age of the hemorrhage)(recent bleeds are often hyperechoic or isoechoic to the placenta; older bleeds may appear anechoic or even hypoechoic depending on the age of the hemorrhage)
2.May resemble a second gestational sac

A

Subchorionic Hemorrhage

146
Q

With subchorionic hemorrhage large bleeds may be associated with ______ and _____, fetal activity is often a reassuring sign that the pregnancy will progress normally.

A

miscarriage and stillbirth

147
Q

A uterine _______, also referred to as a fibroid, is a common benign pelvic mass that can often be identified during a first-trimester sonographic examination. These tumors, although benign, have been associated with an increased risk for early pregnancy failure, especially in women who are pregnant with multiple gestations.

148
Q

Fibroids are stimulated by ________ and can consequently experience rapid growth during pregnancy.

149
Q

localized, painless contractions of the myometrium in the gravid uterus that should resolve within 20 to 30 minutes

A

focal myometrial contractions

150
Q

Fibroids must be differentiated from ________, which are smooth muscle contractions that can be noted during a sonographic examination. Fibroids will consistently alter the shape of the myometrium, whereas true myometrial contractions typically disappear within 20 to 30 minutes.

A

focal myometrial contractions

151
Q

Clinical Findings of a ________ (With Pregnancy)

1.Positive pregnancy test
2.Pelvic pressure
3.Menorrhagia
4.Palpable pelvic mass
5.Enlarged, bulky uterus (if multiple)
6.Urinary frequency
7.Dysuria
8.Constipation

A

Uterine Leiomyoma

152
Q

Sonographic Findings of ______

1.Hypoechoic mass within the uterus
2.Posterior shadowing
3.Degenerating fibroids may have calcifications or cystic components
4.Multiple fibroids appear as an enlarged, irregularly shaped, diffusely heterogeneous uterus

A

Uterine Leiomyoma

153
Q

Occasionally, an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD) may not be effective and thus allow pregnancy to occur and implant within the uterus. If this occurs, the IUCD will be seen as an ________ structure within the uterine cavity adjacent to the gestational sac. The IUCD will often produce acoustic ________. Its location to the ________should be reported.

A

echogenic; shadowing; gestational sac

154
Q

Types of Abortion:
__________

Description:
Vaginal bleeding before 20 weeks’ gestation; closed cervical os

Sonographic Findings:
Low fetal heart rate

A

Threatened abortion

155
Q

Types of Abortion:
__________

Description:
All products of conception expelled

Sonographic Findings:
-No intrauterine products of conception identified
-Prominent endometrium, which may contain hemorrhage

A

Complete (spontaneous) abortion

156
Q

Types of Abortion:
__________

Description:
Part of the products of conception expelled

Sonographic Findings:
-Thickened and irregular endometrium
-Enlarged uterus

A

Incomplete abortion

157
Q

Types of Abortion:
__________

Description:
Fetal demise with retained fetus

Sonographic Findings:
-No detectable fetal heart motion detected
-Abnormal fetal shape

A

Missed abortion

158
Q

Types of Abortion:
__________

Description:
Vaginal bleeding with dilated cervix

Sonographic Findings:
-Low-lying gestational sac
-Open internal os of cervix

A

Inevitable abortion

159
Q

Nature of Pregnancy:
Ectopic pregnancy

Will hCG level be increased or decreased?

160
Q

Nature of Pregnancy:
Anembryonic pregnancy

Will hCG level be increased or decreased?

161
Q

Nature of Pregnancy:
Abortion(miscarriage)

Will hCG level be increased or decreased?

162
Q

Nature of Pregnancy:
Twin pregnancy

Will hCG level be increased or decreased?

163
Q

Nature of Pregnancy:
Complete molar pregnancy

Will hCG level be increased or decreased?

A

hCG (markedly) ↑

164
Q

Classification of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease:_________

Important facts:
Most common form of gestational trophoblastic disease

Characterized by hydropic chorionic villi

Absence of the fetus and amnion

Benign with malignant potential

Markedly elevated hCG

A

Hydatidiform molar pregnancy: complete

165
Q

Classification of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease:_________

Important facts:
May be accompanied by a coexisting triploid fetus, parts of fetus, or amnion

Minimal malignant potential

Normal or minimally elevated hCG

A

Hydatidiform molar pregnancy: partial or incomplete

166
Q

Classification of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease:_________

Important facts:
Molar pregnancy that invades into the myometrium and may also invade through the uterine wall and into the peritoneum

Result of malignant progression of hydatidiform moles

A

Invasive molar pregnancy (chorioadenoma destruens)

167
Q

Classification of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease:_________

Important facts:
Most malignant form of trophoblastic disease with possible metastasis

Result of malignant progression of a hydatidiform molar pregnancy

Most common sites for metastasis are the liver, lungs, and vagina

A

Choriocarcinoma

168
Q

Embryologic Tissue:
_________

Description:
The space between the gestational sac and the amniotic sac. The location of the secondary yolk sac.

A

Chorionic cavity

169
Q

Embryologic Tissue:
_________

Description:
The decidualized tissue at the implantation site containing the chorionic villi. The fetal contribution of the placenta.

A

Chorion Frondosum

170
Q

Embryologic Tissue:
_________

Description:
The portion of the chorion that does not contain chorionic villi.

A

Chorion laeve

171
Q

Embryologic Tissue:
_________

Description:
Fingerlike extension of trophoblastic tissue that invades the decidualized endometrium.

A

Chorionic villi

172
Q

Embryologic Tissue:
_________

Description:
The endometrial tissue at the implantation site.

The maternal contribution of the placenta.

A

Decidua basalis

173
Q

Embryologic Tissue:
_________

Description:
The portion of the decidua opposite the uterine cavity, across from the decidua basalis.

A

Decidua capsularis

174
Q

Embryologic Tissue:
_________

Description:
The decidualized tissue along the uterine cavity adjacent to the decidua basalis.

A

Decidua parietalis (vera)

175
Q

What membrane in the early gestation is located across from the placenta?
a. Chorion frondosum
b. decidua vera
c. chorion laeve
d. decidua capsularis

A

d. decidua capsularis

176
Q

With a normal pregnancy, the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium is the:
a. yolk sac
b. chorionic sac
c. amniotic cavity
d. embryo

A

b. chorionic sac

177
Q

What is the stage of the conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium?
a. blastocyst
b. morula
c. zygote
d. ovum

A

a. blastocyst

178
Q

In the first trimester, normal hCG levels will:
a. double every 48 hours
b. triple every 24 hours
c. double every 24 hours
d. double every 12 hours

A

a. double every 48 hours

179
Q

Which of the following locations for an ectopic pregnancy would be least likely?
a. isthmus of the tube
b. ampulla of the tube
c. ovary
d. interstitial of the tube

180
Q

The first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. decidual reaction
d. chorionic cavity

A

c. decidual reaction

181
Q

In the early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located?
a. chorionic cavity
b. base of the umbilical cord
c. embryonic cranium
d. amniotic cavity

A

a. chorionic cavity

182
Q

The most common cause of pelvic pain with pregnancy is:
a. ectopic pregnancy
b. heterotopic pregnancy
c. missed abortion
d. molar pregnancy

A

a. ectopic pregnancy

183
Q

All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with ectopic pregnancy except:
a. decidual thickening
b. complex free fluid within the pelvis
c. bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cysts
d. complex adnexal mass separate from the ipsilateral ovary

A

a. decidual thickening

184
Q

All of the following are consistet with a complete hydatidiform mole except:
a. heterogeneous mass within the endometrium
b. bilateral theca lutein cysts
c. hyperemesis gravidarum
d. low hCG

A

d. low hCG

185
Q

Which of the following is the most likely metastatic location for GTD?
a. rectum
b. pancreas
c. spleen
d. lungs

186
Q

All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a complete molar pregnancy except:
a. vaginal bleeding
b. hypertension
c. uterine enlargement
d. small for dates

A

d. small for dates

187
Q

All of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except:
a. pseduogestational sac
b. corpus luteum cyst
c. adnexal ring
d. low beta-hCG

A

d. low beta-hCG