Ch 1 Quiz Flashcards

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1
Q
Fish have scales that enable them to live in a water environment.  This is an example of
Development
Homeostatis
Adaptation
Metabolism
Cellular organization
A

Adaptation

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2
Q
The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky.  This is an example of
Metabolism
Homeostatis
Response to stimuli
Development
Reproduction
A

Response to stimuli

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3
Q

Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis?
• All living organisms are alike.
• Living organisms do not change much over time.
• Human beings

A

Cells and organisms must be able to maintain a fairly constant internal environment

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4
Q

IN a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an

A

Population

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5
Q

After studying biology, it is hoped that you

A

Will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own well being and the Earth’s

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6
Q

Traditions, beliefs, and values are considered what aspect of human life?

A

Cultural

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7
Q
Which of he following is not a basic theory of biology?
• Theory of ecosystems
• Cell theory
• Gene theory
• Theory of evolution
• Theory of gravity
A

Theory of gravity

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8
Q

An important part of scientific research is repeatability.

A

True

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9
Q

The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called

A

Evolution

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10
Q

The tentative explanation to be tested is called

A

A hypothesis

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11
Q

The region in which populations interact with each other and with the physical environment is called

A

An ecosystem

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12
Q
Which organisms are most closely related to humans?
• Meerkats
• Earthworms
• Spiders
• Snakes
• Parakeets
A

Meerkats

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13
Q

______ observations are supported by factual information while ______ observations involve personal judgment.

A

Objective; Subjective

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14
Q

Which of the following statements would be considered anecdotal data?

A

“I lost 21 lbs on the Atkins diet.”

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15
Q

If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group, the treatment was successful.

A

False

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16
Q

A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a/an

A

Organism

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17
Q

Four million years ago, horses were rather small compared to today’s horses and had relatively stocky bodies with a straight shoulder and thick neck. This statement is an example of which biological concept?

A

Evolution

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18
Q

In a graph, the experimental variable is plotted on the

A

x axis

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19
Q

The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of

A

Evolution

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is a hypothesis?

A

If a student buys a meal plan he/she will eat more vegetables

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21
Q

The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be

A

The bacterium Helicobacter pylori

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22
Q

Only humans have a language that allows us to communicate information and experiences symbolically?

A

True

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23
Q
Which of the following statements is an objective observation?
• I like this picture
• This mattress feels hard to me
• I think I am going to be sick
• This milk tastes funny
• This package is larger than that one
A

This package is larger than that one

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24
Q

Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are alike in that

A

They are all made of glucose

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25
Q

Isotopes of an element differ due the number of

A

Neutrons

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26
Q

A hydrolysis reaction involves the loss of water

A

True

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27
Q

The monomer unit of protein is

A

Amino acids

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28
Q
Which of the following is not one of the four classes of organic molecules found in cells?
• Vitamins
• Nucleic acids
• Lipids
• Carbohydrates
• Proteins
A

Vitamins

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29
Q

In an atom, the number of protons always equals the number of

A

Electrons

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30
Q

Water makes up 60-70% of total body weight

A

True

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31
Q

What are the properties of water?

A
  • High heat capacity
  • High heat of evaporation
  • Is a solvent
  • Water molecules are cohesive and adhesive
  • Frozen water is less dense than liquid water
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32
Q

An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure?

A

Secondary

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33
Q

A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H+ as a pH of 6.

A

False

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34
Q

A combination of two or more atoms of the same type is called

A

A molecule

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35
Q

Fats are usually of animal origin while oils are usually of plant origin.

A

True

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36
Q

Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the Titanic?

A

Frozen water is less dense than liquid water

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37
Q

Fermentation produces more ATP than does aerobic respiration.

A

False

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38
Q

Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water. What happened in the red blood cells?

A

The cells burst

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39
Q

What type of junctions must there be between cells to form a barrier?

A

Tight junctions

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40
Q
Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
• Mitochondria
• Endoplasmic reticulum
• Plasma membrane
• Nucleus
• Gogli body
A

Plasma membrane

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41
Q
Which of the following protein fibers is used for cellular movement and are extremely thin in size?
• Intermediate filaments
• Actin filaments
• Microtubules
• Cilia
• Centrosome
A

Actin filaments

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42
Q

The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its

A

Surface area to volume ratio

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43
Q

The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle

A

True

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44
Q

The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. During practice, the players complained of cramps and sore muscles. The reason for their complaints was that there was a ______ build up in their muscles.

A

Lactate

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45
Q

What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?

A

Support

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46
Q

Which structure in the human body will use flagella to move?

A

Sperm

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47
Q

Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the Gogli apparatus? If the Gogli apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion, then

A

Vesicles must travel from the Gogli to the cell structure

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48
Q

The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the

A

Matrix

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49
Q

Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with its false feet or pseudopods. This process is known as

A

Phagocytosis

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50
Q

If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to

A

Synthesize proteins

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51
Q

Which type of tissues make up the epidermis?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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52
Q

What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues?

A

Collagen

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53
Q

With a negative feedback system, the value in question will vary around the set point.

A

True.

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54
Q
Which of the following is not considered a basic tissue type?
• Epithelial
• Connective
• Muscle
• Nervous
• Fat
A

Fat

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55
Q

The best description for the two components of blood are

A

Formed elements and plasma

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56
Q

In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue?

A

Basement membrane

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57
Q

Which of the following is not involved in body temperature homeostatis?
• Shivering
• Respiration rate
• Constriction or dilation of blood vessels
• Secretion of sweat glands
• The hypothalamus

A

Respiration rate

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58
Q
Which of the follwing is responsible for the waterproofing of skin?
• Sweat
• Keratin
• Mucus
• Wax
• Hyaline cartilage
A

Keratin

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59
Q

Carla is having problems with infections. Which body system is failing?

A

Immune system

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60
Q

If temperature were controlled by a positive feedback mechanism, the body’s temperature would continue to rise.

A

True

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61
Q

The cardiovascular system is limited to just the heart and blood.

A

False

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62
Q

What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue?

A

Loose fibrous and dense fibrous

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63
Q

The “lub” sound of the “lub-dup” heart beat is due to what?

A

The closing of the AV valves

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64
Q

What structure within a capillary bed shunts blood form the arteriole to the venule?

A

Precapillary sphincter

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65
Q

What is a stent?

A

A cylinder of expandable metal mesh

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66
Q

Elizabeth takes a prescription drug that dilates her arterioles. What does this do to her blood pressure? Why?

A

It falls because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels.

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67
Q

Generally, there are no symptoms of hypertension.

A

True

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68
Q

What is the function of valves in the veins?

A

To prevent the backward flow of blood

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69
Q

The innermost layer of an artery is known as what?

A

Endothelium

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70
Q

What are the upper chambers of the heart called?

A

Atria

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71
Q

Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?

A

Right ventricle

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72
Q

If a person is dehydrated, how will this affect nutrient exchange at the capillaries?

A

Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the tissues

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73
Q

During open heart surgery, the first heart structure that would be cut into is the ______.

A

Pericardium

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74
Q

What happen to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries at the venous end?

A

The excess fluid is collected in the lymphatic capillaries

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75
Q

A blood pressure of 90/40 is considered normal.

A

False

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76
Q

Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center?

A

Medulla oblongata

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77
Q

If your pulse is 70 beats per minute, how fast is your heart beating?

A

70 beats per minute

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78
Q

When comparing the cardiovascular system to a city, what is it similar to?

A

Roads

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79
Q

Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream.

A

True

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80
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
• The virus remains within a person
• It is caused by an Epstein-Barr virus
• Active EBV can be passed in saliva
• There is uncontrolled white blood cell production
• Symptoms include fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands

A

There is uncontrolled white blood cell production

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81
Q

What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common?

A

A antigens

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82
Q

How many globin chains are found in hemoglobin?

A

4

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83
Q

White blood cells are like red blood cells in that they only live for a matter of days.

A

False

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84
Q

How does the muscular system benefit the blood?

A

It keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels

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85
Q

Jeremy has type O negative blood. What type blood could he receive in a transfusion?

A

O negative only

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86
Q

Coagulation contributes to homeostatis by

A

Keeping the blood within the vessels

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87
Q

The two major components of blood are

A

Formed elements and plasma

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88
Q

Robby has type B positive blood. His blood will contain

A

B and Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies

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89
Q

Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma?

A

Red blood cells

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90
Q

If mom has already developed any-Rh antibodies during her first pregnancy, a RhoGAM shot will not help her second pregnancy.

A

True

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91
Q

Hormones produced by the endocrine system regulate blood volume and blood cell formation.

A

True

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92
Q

If a person does not have enough iron in their diet, they may suffer from

A

Anemia

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93
Q

The most abundant component of plasma is water.

A

True

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94
Q

An individual who is blood type O will have antibodies against type A and B antigens, regardless of whether the have had a blood transfusion or not.

A

True

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95
Q
Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas?
• Trypsin
• Lipase
• Amylase
• Sodium bicardonate
• Bile
A

Bile

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96
Q

Why is it necessary to include some carbohydrates in the diet?

A

Brain cells require glucose

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97
Q

The dentist explained that dental cavities are caused by

A

Bacteria within the mouth metabolizing sugar

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98
Q

Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called

A

Sphincters

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99
Q

The fleshly extension of the soft palate is known as the

A

Uvula

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100
Q

What is one benefit of normal flora in the large intestine?

A

Produce vitamin B

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101
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
• To ingest food
• To digest food into small nutrients so hat the molecules can pass through membranes
• to absorb nutrient molecules
• To eliminate indigestible remains
• To protect against pathogens

A

To protect against pathogens

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102
Q

The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as

A

Lacteals

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103
Q
Which of the following is not associated with the stomach?
• Alcohol absorption
• Gastric glands
• Rugae
• Duodenum
• Pepsin
A

Duodenum

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104
Q

According to the BMI chart, a healthy BMI is in the range of

A

18.5 to 24.9

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105
Q

Which accessory organ of the digestive system will process and store nutrients as well as producing bile for emulsification?

A

Liver

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106
Q

The secretions of digestive juices are controlled by the nervous system as well as by digestive hormones.

A

True

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107
Q

About 90% of people suffering from anorexia nervosa are

A

Young women

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108
Q

Today, physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to ______.

A

Cardiovascular disease

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109
Q
Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is incorrect?
• Lipase-fat
• Pepsin-protein
• Trypsin-carbohydrates
• Nuclease-DNA
• Amylase-starch
A

Trypsin-carbohydrates

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110
Q

What is the correct order of components of the digestive tract?

A
Mouth
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Rectum
Anus
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111
Q

The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the

A

Tidal volume

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112
Q

Which structure is not part of the inspiration process?

A
All are part of the process:
Bronchioles
Trachea
Larynx
Lungs
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113
Q

Which structure is the initial entry way for air to enter the respiratory system?

A

The nose

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114
Q

Where is the respiratory control center located?

A

In the brain

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115
Q

Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the plasma as

A

Bicarbonate ion

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116
Q

The epiglottis is the slit between the vocal chords

A

False

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117
Q

What separates the lungs from the thoracic cavity?

A

Pleura

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118
Q

“Strep throat” is caused by what type of infecting organism?

A

Bacteria

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119
Q

During respiration, which structure connects the larynx to the bronchiole tree?

A

Trachea

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120
Q

Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs.

A

False

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121
Q

Which part of the lower respiratory tract is intimately in contact with the cardiovascular system?

A

Lungs

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122
Q

The respiratory system is responsible for

A

Oxygen entering the body and carbon dioxide leaving the body

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123
Q

Which of the following is not a part of inspiration?
• Air rushes into the lungs
• The rib cage moves up and out
• The intercostal muscles pull the robs outward
• The diaphragm contracts and moves down
• The pressure in the lungs increases

A

The pressure in the lungs increases

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124
Q

During respiration, what is the additional amount of air that can be exhaled from the lungs during an extra deep exhalation? This volume is usually around 1,400 mL.

A

Expiratory reserve volume

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125
Q
Which of these lower respiratory diseases should be treated with antibiotics?
• Pulmonary fibrosis
• Pulmonary tuberculosis
• Lung cancer
• Asthma
• Emphysema
A

Pulmonary tuberculosis

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126
Q

Kidneys are organs of homeostasis because they

A
  • Help maintain the correct concentration of salts in the blood
  • Regulate the blood volume
  • Regulate the pH of the blood
  • Excrete nitrogenous wastes
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127
Q

Why do water and small molecules move from the glomerulus into the filtrate?

A

Glomerular blood pressure

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128
Q

What part of the kidney is the central space that leads to the ureter?

A

Renal pelvis

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129
Q
Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product?
• Creatinine
• Uric acid
• Urea
• Erythropoietin
A

Erythropoietin

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130
Q
Which of these contains urine?
• Intestine
• Gallbladder
• Uterus
• Urethra
A

Urethra

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131
Q

What is the normal pH of the blood?

A

Slightly basic

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132
Q
Which of the following is not part of a nephron?
• Loop of Henle
• Ureter
• Glomerular capsule
• Proximal convoluted tubule
• Collecting duct
A

Ureter

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133
Q

How many openings (inputs and outputs) are there in the urinary bladder?

A

three

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134
Q

Which substance is removed from the blood during tubular secretion?

A

H+

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135
Q

Place the parts of the nephron in order of how filtration would occur:

A
  1. Glomerulus
  2. Proximal convoluted tubule
  3. Descending limb of loop
  4. Ascending limb of loop
  5. Distal convoluted tubule
  6. Collecting duct
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136
Q

The kidneys excrete metabolic wastes, including urea, a by-product of glucose metabolism.

A

False

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137
Q

What are the two ways substances are removed from the blood and added to the forming urine?

A

Glomerular filtration and tubular secretion

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138
Q

What hormone is secreted by the kidneys when blood oxygen drops, targets bone marrow, and triggers production of red blood cells?

A

Erythropoietin

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139
Q
Which of the following is not a region of the kidney?
• Hypothalamus
• Cortex
• Pelvis
• Medulla
• Collectig ducts
A

Hypothalamus

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140
Q

Antidiuretic hormone acts directly on the colelcting duct to ______ water and make the urine ______ concentrated.

A

Reabsorb, more

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141
Q
Choose which components are found in glomerular filtration.
• Water
• Large proteins
• Blood cells
• Ions
• Small molecules
A

Water
Ions
Small molecules

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142
Q

Which of these is a function of the skeleton?
• Houses tissue involved in the production of red blood cells
• Support
• Protection
• All of the above

A

All of the above

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143
Q

The shoulder joint is an example of a ______ joint.

A

Ball and socket
Synovial
Freely movable

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144
Q

What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones?

A

Hyaline cartilage

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145
Q

How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last?

A

3-4 months

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146
Q
Which of the following is not associated with a synovial joint?
• Ligaments
• Menisci
• Fibrous capsule
• Bursae
• Fibrocartilage
A

Fibrocartilage

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147
Q

Which joint action allows for the body part to move towards the midline?

A

Adduction

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148
Q

Bone-building cells are ______; mature bone cells are ______.

A

Osteoblasts; Osteocytes

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149
Q

Fluid-filled sacs within synovial joints are called

A

Bursae

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150
Q
Which of the following is not a type of joint?
• Synovial
• Trochanter
• Fibrous
• Suture
• Cartilaginous
A

Trochanter

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151
Q

Endochondral ossification involves

A

A cartilaginous model
Long bones
An epiphyseal plate

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152
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone?

A

The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone.

153
Q

Which function of the skeletal system requires the leg bones to be extremely strong?

A

They support the entire body

154
Q

Choose the proper sequence describing repair of bone fractures

A

Hematoma - fibrocartilage callus - bony callus - remodeling

155
Q

What type of cartilage is particularly felxible and is found in ear flaps and the epiglottis?

A

Elastic cartilage

156
Q

The hardest portion(s) of a long bone is/are the

A

Compact bone

157
Q

Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what?

A

The amount of calcium in the blood

158
Q

The outer portion of a long bone, aside from the articular cartilage, is covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue called

A

Periosteum

159
Q
Which of these is NOT a function of the skeleton:
• Conducts nerve impulses
• Supports the body
• Protects soft body parts
• Stores minerals
A

Conducts nervous impulses

160
Q

What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii?

A

The triceps brachii

161
Q

According to the sliding filament theory

A

Actin moves past myosin as myosin cross-bridges pull on the actin

162
Q

A muscle pulling just opposite to another can be best describes as a(n)

A

Antagonist

163
Q

What is true of fast-twitch fibers?

A

Fewer blood vessels than slow-twitch fibers
Light in color, little myoglobin
Provide explosions of energy

164
Q

Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle, which pathway(s) do slow-twitch fibers prefer?

A

Aerobic respiration

165
Q

What does troponin bind to and what happens when it binds?

A

Ca+, tropomyosin shifts

166
Q

Spasm

A

Sudden, involuntary muscular contraction

167
Q

Myalgia

A

Achy muscles

168
Q

Tendinitis

A

Inflamed tendon, painful joint movement

169
Q

Strain

A

Overstretching of a muscle near a joint

170
Q

If you lock your knees while standing you may pass out because of the lack of venous return to the heart.

A

True

171
Q

ATP

A

Produced during cellular respiration

172
Q

Myoglobin

A

Stores oxygen in muscle fibers

173
Q

Creatine phosphate

A

Used to regenerate ATP from ADP

174
Q

Fermentation

A

Results in the buildup of lactate and results in an oxygen deficit

175
Q

Fermentation, creatine phosphate

A

Anaerobic source of energy

176
Q

Which disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by weakness that especially affects the muscles of the eyelids, face, neck, and extremities?

A

Myasthenia gravis

177
Q

A whole muscle is divided into bundles of muscle fibers called ______, each of which is surrounded by a layer of connective tissue.

A

Fascicles

178
Q

Which of the following does not occur when a muscle fatigues?
• Tetanus is chieved
• Stimulation continues
• The muscle relaxes
• Acetylcholine is crossing the synaptic cleft
• Its energy reserves are depleted

A

Tetanus is achieved

179
Q
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal muscles?
• Protection of internal organs
• Movement of bones
• Support
• Maintenance of body temperature
• Pumping of blood throughout the body
A

Pumping of blood throughout the body

180
Q
Which of the following is not a source of ATP for muscle contraction?
• Fermentation
• ATP in the blood
• ATP stored in the cell
• The creatine phosphate pathway
• Aerobic respiration
A

ATP in the blood

181
Q

Of the three types of muscle tissue, which has multinucleated fibers?

A

Skeletal muscle

182
Q

What is the resevoir for Ca2+ in the body?

A

Bones

183
Q

Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles, usually due to overuse.

A

False

184
Q

One motor unit obeys a principle calle dthe all-or-none law.

A

True

185
Q

Why are slow-twitch muscles dark?

A

They contain myoglobin

186
Q

When a muscle contracts, the H zone almost disappears.

A

True

187
Q

The contractile unit of a myofibril is the

A

Sacromere

188
Q

______ refers to a group of inherited disorders characterized by a progressive degeneration and weakening of muscles.

A

Muscular dystrophy

189
Q

Which conducts an action potential faster and why?

A

Myelinated fibers; the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another

190
Q

The central nervous system is protected by

A

Bone

191
Q
Which of the following is not a type of neuron?
• Afferent
• Neuroglia
• Sensory
• Motor
• Interneuron
A

Neuroglia

192
Q
Which of the following drugs is classified as a hallucinogen?
• Caffeine
• Alcohol
• Marijuana
• Nicotine
A

Marijuana

193
Q
Which of the following components of a neuron transmits signals away from the cell body?
• Synaptic cleft
• Axon
• Dendrite
• Synovial joint
A

Axon

194
Q

Depolarization of the neuron occurs when

A

Sodium gates open and sodium moves inside the cell

195
Q
Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS?
• Myelin sheath
• Node of Ranvier
• Axon
• Dendrite
• Schwann cells
A

Schwann cells

196
Q
Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter?
• Serotonin
• ATP
• GABA
• Glutamate
• Acetylcholine
A

ATP

197
Q

Heavy use of which drug can lead to hallucinations, anxiety, depression, paranoia, and psychotic symptoms?

A

Marijuana

198
Q

Which drug is in the same category as nicotine?

A

Cocaine

199
Q

The drug ______ in tobacco products causes neurons to release dopamine, which reinforces dependence on this drug. Occasional ______ users experience euphoria, alterations in vision and judgment, and distortions of space and time. Heavy use of ______ often leads to liver damage.

A

Nicotine, marijuana, alcohol

200
Q

When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft, the response of the receiving neuron will be toward excitation.

A

False

201
Q

Long term use of heroin results in which set of symptoms?

A

Addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various bacterial infections

202
Q

The white matter of the spinal cord surrounds the grey matter.

A

True

203
Q

Rapid conduction of a nerve impulse in vertebrates is because of

A

Openings in the myelin sheath

204
Q

Which of the following is not a type of proprioceptor?
• Muscle spindles
• Nociceptors
• Golgi tendon organs

A

Nociceptors

205
Q

Which disorder of the eye is due to the cornea or lens being uneven resulting in a fuzzy image?

A

Astigmatism

206
Q

Nociceptors are a type of chemoreceptor

A

True

207
Q

Sensory adaption is a form of integration and involves the summing of input signals.

A

True

208
Q

What do nociceptors detect?

A

Stimuli of pain

209
Q

The senses of taste and smell work because specific ______ in the organs of taste and smell combine with ______ in the air or food. Both senses thus employ ______ to detect changes in the environment.

A

Protein receptors; chemicals (molecules); chemoreceptors

210
Q

Sensation is the conscious perception of stimuli.

A

True

211
Q

The type of taste called umami allows us to enjoy what type of flavor?

A

Savory

212
Q

Which of the following are mechanoreceptors involved in reflex actions and serve to maintain muscle tone?

A
  • Nociceptors
  • Proprioceptors
  • Meissner corpuscles
  • Ruffini endings
213
Q

If the nerves between the eyes and the ears were switched, stimulation of the mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in

A

Seeing lights

214
Q

The lens is involved in focusing visual information on the retina.

A

True

215
Q

All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals.

A

True

216
Q

Which structure in the eye refracts and focuses light rays?

A

Lens

217
Q

Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply?

A

Choroid

218
Q

The blind spot is

A

On the retina, where there are no rods or cones

219
Q

Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females?

A

Red green color blindness

220
Q

Nociceptors respond to the sense of pain.

A

True

221
Q

Steroid hormones

A

Activate genes leading to protein synthesis

222
Q

Describe the characteristics of individuals with type 2 diabetes

A
  • Overweight/obese
  • Genetic; occurs in families
  • More common in African Americans
  • Adipose tissue secretes a substance that prohibits insulin receptors from working correctly, thus sugar is not removed from the blood stream
223
Q

Overproduction of growth hormone may result in a condition termed acromegaly

A

True

224
Q

Which of the following is a feature of an endocrine gland?

A

Secretes a hormone directly into the bloodstream

225
Q

Endocrine glands secrete their products directly into the bloodstream while exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts.

A

True

226
Q

Through the action of neurotransmitters, the nervous system responds rapidly to external stimuli. In contrast, the dependence upon hormones within the endocrine system results in a slower response to stimuli.

A

True

227
Q

Which of the following secretes erythropoietin?

A

Kidney

228
Q

______ is secreted when blood glucose is high and ______ is/are secreted when blood glucose is low.

A

Insulin; glucagon

229
Q

Peptide hormones

A

Bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane

230
Q

In which case is insulin not produced?

A

Type 1 diabetes

231
Q

The secretion of which hormones qualifies the pancreas as an endocrine gland?

A

Insulin and glucagon

232
Q

The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine.

A

False

233
Q

Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

A

Dudodenum

234
Q

The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system.

A

True

235
Q

How are type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus similar?

A

The blood glucose levels are very high in both

236
Q
Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?
• Testes
• Bladder
• Prostrate gland
• Urethra
• Epididymides
A

Bladder

237
Q

If fertilization occurs, the progesterone levels fall to almost zero.

A

False

238
Q

During IVF, where does conception occur?

A

In the laboratory

239
Q

All of the body systems in humans are the same in males and females.

A

False

240
Q

How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus?

A

6 times normal

241
Q

The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries.

A

True

242
Q

What is the function of inhibin?

A

It inhibits the secretion of GnRH

243
Q

Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling, yellow-green frothy discharge and itching of the V?

A

Trichomoniasis

244
Q

The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard edges) is indication of what type of STD?

A

Syphilis

245
Q
All of the following are viral infections except
• Chlamydia
• Hepatitis
• Warts
• HIV/AIDS
• Herpes
A

Clamydia

246
Q

How many chromosomes does a S have?

A

23

247
Q

What causes G warts?

A

Virus

248
Q

During which stage of the ovarian cycle will LH spike?

A

Ovulation

249
Q

What structure is present within a follicle?

A

An oocyte

250
Q
Which of the following are not found in the testes?
• Spermatoza
• Steroli cells
• Seminiferous tubules
• Interstitial cells
• Follicle
A

Follicle

251
Q
Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
• HIV/AIDS
• Gonorrhea
• Chlamydia
• Syphilis
• Vginitis
A

HIV/AIDS

252
Q

What is the most frequent cause of infertility in males

A

Low S count

253
Q
Which of these pairs is mismatched?
• Morphogenesis = organ systems present
• Differentiation = specialization of cells
• Growth = increase in size
• Cleavage = cell division
A

Morphogenesis = organ systems present

254
Q

Depolarization of the egg membrane after fertilization prevents polyspermy.

A

True

255
Q

As aging occurs, the skin becomes ______ and ______ elastic.

A

Thinner; less

256
Q

Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor.

A

False

257
Q

The placenta is the course of estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy.

A

True

258
Q

Which of the following skin changes is not associated with growing older?
• The number of elastic fibers decreases
• There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer
• There is an increase in the number of oil glands
• There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur
• Pigmented blotches appear on the skin

A

There is an increase in the number of oil glands

259
Q

What structure produces progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy?

A

Placenta

260
Q

At what point during development does the embryo form three germ layer?

A

When it forms the gastrula

261
Q

______ is a progressive decline in bone density and occurs in both males and females.

A

Osteoporosis

262
Q
Which hypothesis of aging involves mitochondria?
• Genetic in origin
• External factors
• Extrinsic factors
• Whole-body process
• Damage accumulation
A

Genetic in origin

263
Q

During the process of fertilization,
• Many S release acrosome enzymes so that one S can enter the egg
• The acrosome on the egg attracts the S cell
• Several S enter the egg but only one fuses with its nucleus
• Two S enter the egg and both fuse with its nucleus

A

Many S release acrosome enzymes so that one S can enter the egg

264
Q

The zygote begins to undergo cleavage in the

A

Oviduct

265
Q

If a fetus contains an X and a T chromosome but a defective SRY gene, they will develop

A

Into a female because testosterone is not present

266
Q

The first system in the body to become visibly differentiated during development is the

A

Nervous system

267
Q

The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo. What structure serves the same role in humans?

A

Chorion

268
Q

As a group, females live longer then males

A

True

269
Q

The presence of the ______ chromosome determines whether the embryo will become male or female. At six weeks, a small bud appears between the legs of the embryo. It will develop into a ______ if it is a female and into a ______ if it is a male.

A

Y; C; P

270
Q

Fertilization begins when S make contact with the ______, they release enzymes from the ______, and then one S can enter the egg. When the S nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus, ______ is complete.

A

Zona pellucida; acrosome; fertilization

271
Q

The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the

A

Corona radiata

272
Q

The sex of an individual is determined at the moment of fertilization.

A

True

273
Q
The placenta
• Develops after birth
• Takes blood to the developing fetus
• Allows exchanges of substances between the maternal and fetal blood
• Forms the umbilical cord
A

Allows exchanges of substances between maternal and fetal blood

274
Q

When does the heart begin to develop?

A

3 weeks

275
Q

Development ceases after birth.

A

False

276
Q

IN a karyotype, chromosomes are paired up by examining the stained dark and light cross-bands of varying widths, chromosomal size, and chromosomal shape.

A

True

277
Q
Which of the following is located where sister chromatids join?
• Spindle fibers
• Centromere
• Homologous chromosomes
• Centriole
A

Centromere

278
Q
By the end of meiosis I,
• 4 daughter cells have been produced
• Each daughter nucleus is genetically identical to the original cell
• Crossing over has occurred
• Sister chromatids have separated
A

Crossing over has occurred

279
Q

The appearance of siblings can vary greatly because of crossing over during

A

Prophase I

280
Q
Which of the following is not a symptom of Down Syndrome?
• Short stature
• Stubby fingers
• Indeterminate genitalia
• Flat face
• Eyelid fold
A

Indeterminate genetalia

281
Q

Sister chromatids carry the same genes

A

True

282
Q

In animal cells, cytokinesis takes place by

A

A furrowing process

283
Q

During anaphase of meiosis II, ______ separate.

A

Sister chromatids

284
Q

The gender of a fetus can be determined by analysis of a karyotype.

A

True

285
Q

If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, then the cell has undergone

A

Mitosis

286
Q
Monosomy and trisomy are caused by which of the following?
• Nondisjunction
• Separation of sister chromatids
• Crossing over
• Fertilization
A

Nondisjunction

287
Q

What is the term for the DNA and proteins found within the cell?

A

Chromatin

288
Q

The nuclear division that reduces the chromosome number from the ______ number to the ______ number is called meiosis.

A

Diploid (2n); haploid (n)

289
Q

What are the two parts of the cell cycle?

A

Interphase and cell division

290
Q

During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes first become visible?

A

Prophase

291
Q

In a transaction, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece.

A

True

292
Q

All the products of oogenesis are equal in size and content.

A

False

293
Q
Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?
• Jacob's syndrome
• Down syndrome
• Williams syndrome
• Turner syndrome
• Klinfelter syndrome
A

Turner syndrome

294
Q

In a karyotype, the chromosomes are arranged in order from

A

Largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end

295
Q

If a cell is to divide, DNA replication must occur during

A

Interphase

296
Q

During which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids separate at their centromere?

A

Anaphase

297
Q

Which stages comes directly after interphase?

A

Mitosis

298
Q

In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?

A

Anaphase I

299
Q

The mitotic cell cycle produces four, generally-identical cells vs. the meiotic cell cycle produces two, genetically different cells.

A

False

300
Q

Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal S. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?

A

2, 1

301
Q

Both parents appear to be normal but their child has cystic fibrosis. Using the letter A, what are the genotypes of the parents?

A

Aa

302
Q

How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited?

A

Incompletely dominant

303
Q
Which of the following would not be a way to list someone's genotype for a particular trait?
• Bb
• AA
• bb
• BB
• AB
A

AB

304
Q

If 25% of the offspring of one set of parents show the recessive phenotype, the parents were probably

A

Both heterozygous

305
Q
Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross?
• Abb x Aab
• AaBb x AaBb
• Gg x gg
• ff x ff
• Ss x ss
A

AaBb x AaBb

306
Q

If a mother is a carrier for color-blindness and her husband is not, which of the following children are most likely?

A

1 normal daughter, 1 carrier daughter, 1 normal son, and 1 color-blind son

307
Q
Which of the following is a dominant allele?
• a
• AA
• A
• ab
• Ab
A

A

308
Q

While a locus refers to a unit of heredity, a gene refers to a specific position on a chromosome.

A

False

309
Q

When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes, you are describing their genotype.

A

False

310
Q

Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons?

A

No

311
Q

In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype?

A

0

312
Q

Is it possible for a man with type O blood to be the father of a child with type A blood?

A

Yes

313
Q

A male inherits his X-linked allele from his mother.

A

True

314
Q

Two individuals with medium-brown skin color could have children who are both darker and lighter than they are.

A

True

315
Q
Alleles
• Are alternate forms of a gene
• Have the same position on a pair of chromosomes
• Affect the same trait
• Are identical between siblings
A
  • Are alternate forms of a gene
  • Have the same position on a pair of chromosomes
  • Affect the same trait
316
Q

In a pedigree, an affected male would be designated by

A

A shaded square

317
Q

A woman has genotype AABB for skin color. She reproduces with a man whose genotype is aabb. What are the genotypes of their offspring?

A

AaBb

318
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree?
• Affected children will usually have unaffected parents
• Both males and females are affected with equal frequency
• Heterozygotes are affected
• Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child
• Two unaffected parents will not have affected children

A

Affected children will usually have unaffected parents

319
Q

A woman who is not color-blind but has an allele for color blindness reproduces with a man who has normal color vision. What is the change that they will have a color-blind daughter?

A

No chance

320
Q

If an individual has the A blood type, how many different genotypes can they possess?

A

Two

321
Q

Inheritance by multiple alleles is illustrated by the inheritance of

A

Blood type

322
Q

What happens next after transcription of the DNA gene in the nucleus?

A

mRNA moved to the cytoplasm and becomes associated with a ribosome

323
Q
Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA?
• Fatty acids, sugars
• Phosphate, amino acids
• Amino acids, nitrogen base
• Phosphate, nitrogen base
• Nitrogen base, fatty acid
A

Phosphate, nitrogen base

324
Q

Which of these is happening when translation takes place?
• All of these answer choices are correct
• mRNA is still in the nucleus
• DNA is being replicated
• tRNAs are bringing amino acids to the ribosomes
• tRNAs expose their anticodons

A

tRNAs are bringing amino acids to the ribosomes

325
Q
Transcription
• Occurs at the ribosome
• Involves tRNA
• All of the answers are correct
• Involves DNA
A

Involves DNA

326
Q

What form of RNA is responsible for making a copy of the DNA gene and carrying that from the nucleus to a ribosome located in the cytoplasm of the cell?

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

327
Q
Which is NOT true of DNA?
• Polymer of nucleotides
• Occurs in nucleus
• Has a varied sequence of just three bases
• Contains deoxyribose
A

Has a varied sequence of just three bases

328
Q

Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?
• The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time
• The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits
• One of the three stop codons is reached
• The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA

A

The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits

329
Q

Protein synthesis takes place in the

A

Cytoplasm, where mRNA codons pair with tRNA anticodons

330
Q

Which of these pairs is NOT a correct statement of the differences between DNA and RNA?
• DNA is double-stranded; RNA is single-stranded
• DNA bases are A, T, C, and G; RNA bases are A, U, C, G
• DNA is found only in the nucleus; RNA is found only in the cytoplasm
• DNA is the genetc material; RNA is a helper of DNA

A

DNA is found only in the nucleus; RNA is found only in the cytoplasm

331
Q

Check all of the correct statements that apply to RNA
• tRNA brings amino acids to ribosomes
• mRNA leaves the nucleus with a copy of the genetic information and carries it to the ribosome
• mRNA can be transcribed in the opposite direction and used to repair damaged DNA
• RNA is single-stranded and contains ribose

A
  • tRNA brings amino acids to ribosomes
  • mRNA leaves the nucleus with a copy of the genetic information and carries it to the ribosome
  • RNA is single-stranded and contains ribose
332
Q

To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA

A

False

333
Q
Both DNA and RNA are
• Transcribed
• Translated
• Found in the cytoplasm
• Found in the nucleus
• Considered the genetic material of the cell
A

Found in the nucleus

334
Q

How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class?

A

99.9%

335
Q

More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins.

A

False

336
Q

The denaturation of which enzyme would lead to incorrect base pairing of nucleotides during DNA replication?

A

DNA polymerase

337
Q

Replication is considered

A

Semiconservative

338
Q

The human genome
• Contains only about 30,000 genes
• Will probably be completely sequenced in 50 years
• Is known only to government employees because it is top secret
• Has no usefulness to humans

A

Contains only about 30,000 genes

339
Q

Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus.

A

False

340
Q
Which of the following functions of a herbivore provides energy that becomes available to the carnivore that eats the herbivore?
• Cellular respiration
• Defecation
• Death
• Growth and reproduction
• Excretion
A

Growth and reproduction

341
Q

In the nitrogen cycle, N2 from the atmosphere is converted to ______, the form plants can use; this process if called ______.

A

Ammonium (NH4+); nitrogen fixation

342
Q
What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food chain?
• Shrews
• Birds
• Earthworms
• Leaves
• Detritus
A

Earthworms

343
Q

Select the statement that best describes the relationship between energy flow and nutrient cycling:
• Chemicals and energy pass through an ecosystem in a one-way direction
• Energy flows through an ecosystem while chemicals cycle continuously
• Both energy and chemicals cycle through an ecosystem
• It depends on which chemical and what form of energy as to what path is taken

A

Energy flows through an ecosystem while chemicals cycle continuously

344
Q

How is the nitrogen cycle like the carbon cycle?

A

Both are gaseous cycles

345
Q

How does phosphate enter the soil?

A

Weathering of rocks

346
Q

Hail and snow are examples of

A

Precipitation

347
Q

From the North Pole south, what is the first type of ecosystem encountered?

A

Tundra

348
Q

To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem.

A

True

349
Q
Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining?
• Ocean
• Runoff
• Groundwater table
• Standing water (lakes and ponds)
• Aquifers
A

Aquifers

350
Q
Which of the following contribute(s) to the carbon cycle?
• Respiration
• All of the answer choices are correct
• Fossil fuel combustion
• Photosynthesis
A

All of the answers are correct

351
Q

The global climate has already warmed about 0.6 degrees Celsius since the Industrial Revolution.

A

True

352
Q

Cultural eutrophication can be caused by

A

Detergents, fertilizers, and sewage treatment plants

353
Q

The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle?

A

Exchange pool

354
Q

There are no reervoirs of carbon for the carbon cycle.

A

False

355
Q

There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen.

A

True

356
Q

If the first-level carnivores consume 500 kg of energy from herbivore tissue, how much is available to the second-level carnivores?

A

50 kg

357
Q

About ______ of the energy available at a particular trophic level is incorporated into the tissues at the next trophic level.

A

10%

358
Q

How is carbon dioxide used by living organisms?

A

By photosynthesis

359
Q

What kind of organism is an earthworm?

A

Detritus feeder

360
Q

Reducing your personal meat consumption would be beneficial to the environment.

A

True

361
Q

What are the characteristics of a sustainable society?

A
  • Provides the same amount of goods and services in the future as it does now
  • Adequate food and living space
  • Resources cannot be depleted
362
Q
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
• Water
• Land
• Minerals
• Fossil fuel
A

Water

363
Q

How much of Earth’s land mass is already desert?

A

40%

364
Q

What proportion of the world’s population lives within 100 kilometers of a coastline?

A

40%

365
Q
Which of these is NOT a direct value of biodiversity for humans?
• Consumptive use value
• Medicinal value
• Agricultural value
• Waste disposal
A

Waste disposal

366
Q

Select the practice that will NOT contribute to sustainability in urban areas:
• Recycling of business equipment
• Plant bluegrass lawns rather than native grasses
• Greenbelts and green roofs
• Efficient public transportation

A

Plant bluegrass rather than native grasses

367
Q

Which of the following is not an unsustainable practice of society?
• Deforestation and desertification
• Using more freshwater for agriculture than in homes
• Eating more meat than vegetables
• Reduction in population growth rate
• Using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides

A

Reduction in population growth rate

368
Q

Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource

A

False

369
Q

Why should pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish?

A

Mercury contamination

370
Q

What do indirect values of biodiversity all have in common?

A

They are all pervasive benefits provided by ecosystems

371
Q

What is the definition of biotic potential?

A

Maximum growth rate under ideal conditions

372
Q

The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like

A

A rectangle

373
Q

Define an ecological footprint

A

The total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs

374
Q
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sustainable society?
• Integrated pest management
• Draining of wetlands for housing
• Multi-use farming
• Mass transit
• Recycling and composting
A

Draining of wetlands for housing

375
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic of less-developed countries?
• Poor standard of living
• Located mainly in Asia, Africa, and Latin America
• Slow population growth
• Natural resource depletion

A

Slow population growth

376
Q

What does the population growth for the United States look like?

A

Increasing

377
Q

Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people).

A

False

378
Q

Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees is not true?
• They retain soil and prevent erosion
• They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and air conditioning
• In forests, they exert a natural “sponge effect” for provision of freshwater
• Globally, they stabilize the climate because they take up carbon dioxide
• They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes

A

They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes

379
Q

Development of rain forests for human habitation leads to:

A
  • Loss of habitation
  • Resource depletion
  • Deforestation