Ch 1,2,3 Flashcards

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1
Q

makes guidelines for the EMT basic training needs

A

Department of Transportation (DOT)

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2
Q

continuous quality improvement identifies areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed

A

quality control and improvement (CQI)

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3
Q

written standing orders or protocols

A

medical director

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4
Q

scene size up
initial assessment
focused history and physical exam
ongoing assessment

A

patient assessment

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5
Q

provide a coordinated continuum of care to maximize survival and limit patient suffering
patient advocacy/confidentiality

A

EMT basic role/responsibility

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6
Q

every patient is entitled to0 compassion, respect, and the best care

A

EMT professional attributes

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7
Q

our responsibility to renew EMT certification

A

continuing education

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8
Q

kubler-ross 5 predictable stages of the grieving process

A
denial
anger
bargaining
depression
acceptance
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9
Q

refusing to accept

A

denial

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10
Q

blaming others

A

anger

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11
Q

promising to change

A

bargaining

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12
Q

openly expressing grief

A

depression

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13
Q

the simple “yes”

A

acceptance

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14
Q

alarm response to stress
reaction and resistance
recovery (or exhaustion)

A

general adaption syndrome

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15
Q

sympathetic response

A

fight or flight response

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16
Q

what kind of response is the sympathetic response?

A

neuro-endocrine response

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17
Q

types of stress reactions

A

acute stress reactions
delayed stress reactions
cumulative stress reactions

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18
Q

occur during a stressful situation

A

acute stress reactions

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19
Q

manifest after a stressful event

A

delayed stress reactions

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20
Q

prolonged or excessive stress

A

cumulative stress reactions

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21
Q

a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium

A

critical incident stress management (CISM)

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22
Q

CISM includes

A

on scene peer support
demobilization
defusing
critical incident stress debriefing

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23
Q

on scene transition point between large scale situation and going off duty

A

demobilization

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24
Q

2 to 4 hours, but not more than 24 hours post event (informal meeting)

A

defusing

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25
Q

24 to 72 hours post event (formal meeting w/ CISM team and trained men til health staff)

A

critical incident stress debriefing

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26
Q

infection control techniques

A

body substance isolation (BSI)

27
Q

ethical responsibilities of an EMS responder?

A

make the physical/emotional needs of the patient
practice/maintain skills to the point of mastery
critically review performances
continuing education

28
Q

physiological manifestations of the sympathetic response

A

rise in respirations, rise in pulse, increases blood pressure, cool pale clammy skin, dilated pupils, tensed muscles, perspiration, increase blood glucose levels

29
Q

infection that causes AIDS
transmitted by blood to blood contact
can be transmitted to a rescuer from a contaminated needle

A

HIV Infection

30
Q

inflammation to the lining of the brain
can be caused by viruses or bacteria
usually not contagious
signs of nuchal rigidity, photophobia, fever, chills, nausea, vomiting
transmitted by direct contact w/ respiratory secretions

A

meningitis

31
Q
productive cough, blood sputum
bacterial disease affecting the lungs 
detected by screening
must be tested every year for TB
recovery 100% if identified and treated early
A

tuberculosis

32
Q

inflammation of the liver
signs include weakness, fatigue, fever, wight loss, and jaundice
transmitted by blood to blood contact
hepatitis B and C are transmitted by blood

A

hepatitis

33
Q

violent situations are created by

A

civil disturbance, large gatherings
domestic disputes
crime scenes

34
Q

what to do if you suspect hazardous material?

A

maintain a safe distance and try to read placards w/ binoculars

35
Q

outlines the care you are able to provide

A

scope of practice

36
Q

standard of patient care imposed by local or state custom; based on how reasonable prudent person w/ similar training and experience would act under similar circumstances

A

standard of care

37
Q

what is your standard of care compared to?

A

compared to another EMT-Basic

38
Q

legal dirty to act begins once an ambulance responds to a call or treatment is initiated
have the responsibility to provide care on duty

A

duty to act

39
Q

failure to provide the same care that a person w/ similar training would provide

A

negligence

40
Q

four factors of negligence

A

duty
breach of duty
damages
proximal cause

41
Q

EMT has an obligation to provide care and to do so in a similar manner that is consistent with the standard of care established by training and local protocols

A

duty

42
Q

EMT does not act within an expected and reasonable standard of care

A

breach of duty

43
Q

there are damages when a patient is physically or psychologically harmed in some noticeable way

A

damages

44
Q

must be a reasonable cause and affect relationship between the breach of duty and the damages suffered by the patient

A

proximal cause

45
Q

conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for duty or standard of care

A

gross negligence

46
Q

unilateral termination of care by EMT without the patients consent and without making provisions for continuing care transferred to someone who is equal or higher medical authority

A

abandonment

47
Q

unlawfully placing a person in fear of immediate bodily harm

A

assault

48
Q

unlawfully touching a person

A

battery

49
Q

seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away by force

A

kidnapping

50
Q

unauthorized confinement of a person

A

false imprisonment

51
Q

a patient gives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision of care or transport (actual consent)

A

expressed consent

52
Q

a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she want treatment

A

implied consent

53
Q

applied to patients who are mentally ill, in behavioral crisis, or developmentally delayed
obtain consent from guardian

A

involuntary consent

54
Q

a minor may be considered and treated as adult if they air married, pregnant or living independently from their parents

A

emancipated minor

55
Q

who has the right to refuse treatment?

A

conscious, alert adults with decision making capacity

56
Q

what to do when a patient refuses treatment?

A

inform patient of risks, benefits, alternatives, and treatments

57
Q

complete documentation is a safeguard against legal complications

A

reports and records

58
Q

absence of circulatory and respiratory function

A

death

59
Q

physical signs of death

A

decapitation
rigor mortis
dependent lividity
putrefaction

60
Q

blood settling to the lowest point of the body

A

dependent lividity

61
Q

stiffening of body muscles

A

rigor mortis

62
Q

decomposition of body tissues

A

putrefaction

63
Q

when can a patients info be disclosed?

A

the patient signs a release
a legal subpoena is presented
it is needed by billing personnel
other medical professionals for continued care

64
Q

good Samaritan actions include

A

acted in good faith
no expectation of compensation
within scope of practice
did not act in grossly negligent