Central Nervous System Part II Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

3 paired gray matter structures of the diencephalon. What is enclosed by these structures?

A

Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Epithalamus
- These structures enclose the 3rd ventricle

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2
Q

How are the 2 halves of the thalamus connected

A

Interthalamic adhesion

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3
Q

main function of the thalamus

A
  • To act as a relay station for information coming into the cortex
  • Overall, the thalamus acts to mediate sensation, motor activities, cortical arousal, learning, and memory
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4
Q

types of impulses being relayed to the thalamus

A

Afferent impulses from all senses and all parts of the body converge on the thalamus and synapse with at least one of its nuclei
- Impulses from the hypothalamus for regulating emotion and visceral function
- Impulses from the cerebellum and basal nuclei to help direct motor cortices
- Impulses for memory and sensory integration that are projected to specific association cortices

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5
Q

mamillary bodies

A

important nuclei contained in the hypothalamus that are paired, pea like anterior nuclei that act as olfactory relay stations

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5
Q

Infundibulum

A

the stalk of hypothalamic tissue that connects to the pituitary gland

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6
Q

main function of the hypothalamus

A

the body’s main visceral control and regulation center – it is vital for maintaining homeostasis

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7
Q

symptoms of hypothalamic disorder

A
  • Severe body wasting
  • Obesity
  • Sleep disturbances
  • Dehydration
  • Emotional imbalances
  • (hypothalamus can be damaged by tumors, radiation, surgery, or trauma)
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7
Q

pineal gland

A

In the epithalamus — Extends from the posterior border and secretes melatonin, which helps to regulate the sleep-wake cycle

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8
Q

3 regions of the midbrain

A

Cerebral peduncles
Cerebral aqueduct
Periaqueductal gray matter

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9
Q

cerebral peduncles

A

Two ventral bulges that contain pyramidal motor tracts and form the little pillars that hold up the cerebellum

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10
Q

What 2 things are connected by the cerebral aqueduct? What is contained within the cerebral aqueduct?

A
  • The 3rd and 4th ventricles
  • CSF
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10
Q

cranial nerves that originate from the midbrain

A

III (oculomotor) and IV (trochlear)

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11
Q

corpora quadrigemina and it’s 2 component parts

A

Midbrain nuclei in the white matter: paired dorsal protrusions
- Superior colliculi: visual reflex centers that coordinate head + eye movements for visual tracking
- Inferior colliculi: auditory reflex centers that coordinate things like the startle reflex

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12
Q

substantia nigra

A

In midbrain, band-like contains a high amount of melanin – a precursor to dopamine; functionally linked to the basal nuclei
- Degeneration of substantia nigra is the cause of Parkinson’s disease

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13
Q

function of the red nucleus

A

Part of the reticular formation; lies deep to the substantia nigra; acts as a relay nuclei for some descending motor pathways causing limb flexion

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14
Q

cranial nerves that originate in the pons

A

V (trigeminal), VI (abducens), and VII (facial)

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15
Q

The 4th ventricle separates the _____ and ___________. It is continuous with the ______________.

A
  • pons
  • cerebellum
  • cerebral aqueduct
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16
Q

choroid plexus

A

A capillary rich membrane that forms (CSF) found in the medulla

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17
Q

cerebellum

A

Processes inputs from the cerebral cortex, brain stem, and sensory receptors to provide the precise timing and coordinated patterns needed for the many movements of daily living , also plays a major role in balance

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18
Q

Cerebellar hemispheres are connected by the _________.

A

vermis

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19
Q

3 lobes of the cerebellum

A

Anterior
Posterior
Flocculonodular

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20
Q

arbor vitae

A

thin cortex of gray matter with a deeper, distinctive treelike pattern of white matter

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21
Q

cerebellar homunculi

A

show sensory maps of the entire human body and influence motor output to specific body regions

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21
Q

which portions of the body are controlled by the medial and lateral portions (cerebellar homunculi)?

A
  • Medial portions influence motor activities in the trunk and girdles
  • Lateral portions influence motor activities in the extremities
  • Flocculonodular lobe receives inputs from the inner ear and adjusts posture to maintain balance
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22
Q

cerebellar impairment

A

loss of muscle tone and clumsy, uncertain movements

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23
Q

limbic system and its function

A
  • Networks of neurons that work together but span wide areas of the brain
  • Large part of the emotional or affective brain
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24
Q

location of limbic structures

A

Structures located on the medial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres and the diencephalon - the structures encircle the brainstem

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25
Q

Fornix

A

fiber tract that links limbic system regions

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26
Q

Amygdaloid body

A

recognizes angry or fearful facial expressions, assesses danger, and elicits fear responses

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27
Q

Cingulate gyrus

A

plays a role in expressing emotions via gestures and resolving mental conflict

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28
Q

explain the strong connection between memories and smells

A

Because much of the limbic system originates in the rhinencephalon - it creates emotional responses to odor (ex. repulsion)

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29
Q

explain the connection between high blood pressure and stress/strong emotions.

A

Like the ANS, most of the limbic system’s output is relayed through the hypothalamus – the hypothalamus plays a role in psychosomatic illness and the medical conditions associated with chronic stress

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30
Q

reticular formation

A

Extends through the central core of the brain stem, consists loosely clustered neurons in otherwise white matter

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31
Q

what does the reticular formation govern

A

Extensive connections allow the reticular formation to govern brain arousal

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31
Q

Where are some places that have the reticular formation’s extensive connections?

A

Has far-flung axonal connections with the hypothalamus, thalamus, cerebral cortex, cerebellum, and spinal cord

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32
Q

3 columns of the reticular formation that run through the brain stem

A

Raphe nuclei
Medial (large cell) group of nuclei
Lateral (small cell) group of nuclei

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33
Q

RAS

A

reticular activation system – sends continuous impulses to the cerebral cortex to keep it conscious and alert

34
Q

RAS function

A

Filters out repetitive, familiar, or weak stimuli – 99% of stimuli is not relayed to consciousness
inhibited by sleep centers, alcohol, and drugs (causes drowsiness)
- Motor function of the reticular formation is to control course limb movements
- Reticular autonomic centers regulate visceral motor functions
- Vasomotor centers
- Cardiac centers
- Respiratory centers

34
Q

injury to RAS

A

permanent unconsciousness (coma)

35
Q

which cerebral hemisphere houses the language centers

A

left hemisphere (association cortex)

35
Q

What happens in the analogous centers to the left’s language centers in the right hemisphere?

A

The corresponding areas in the right hemisphere are involved with the nonverbal components of language – tone of voice, gestures

36
Q

Aphasia

A

loss of language abilities

37
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

involved with speech production
- Lesion to broca’s area can result in understanding of language, but inability to speak

37
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

involved with understanding spoken language and written words
- Lesions to wernicke’s area can result in ability to speak, but the spoken words are often nonsense

38
Q

Memory

A

the storage and retrieval of information
- Essential for leaning, incorporating our experiences into behavior, and an integral part of our consciousness

39
Q

Declarative memory

A

memory of facts (names, faces, words, dates)

40
Q

Procedural memory

A

memory of skills (playing the piano)

41
Q

motor memory

A

memory of motor skills (riding a bike)

42
Q

Emotional memory

A

memory of experiences linked to an emotion (heart pounding before a performance)

43
Q

Memory consolidation

A

involves fitting new facts into categories already stored in the cerebral cortex

44
Q

portions of the brain involved in the memory consolidation process

A

involves the hippocampus, temporal cortical areas, thalamus, and prefrontal cortex

45
Q

Damage to what structure of the brain causes amnesia

A

Damage to the hippocampus or the surrounding lobe structures (amnesia – memory loss)
* Bilateral destruction cases widespread amnesia

46
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

consolidated memories are not lost, but no new inputs are associated with the old ones
- Person only lives in the here and now
- Cannot recall a conversation held five minutes ago

47
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

loss of memories formed in the distant past

48
Q

EEG

A

electroencephalogram – records the electrical activity that accompanies brain function

49
Q

What are EEGs used to diagnose

A

Used for diagnosing epilepsy and sleep disorders
- Also helps localize lesions, tumors, infarcts, infections, and abscesses, used in research, determine brain death

50
Q

What does “consciousness” involve

A
  • Perception of sensation
  • Voluntary initiation and control of movement
  • Capabilities associated with higher mental processing – memory, logic, judgment
51
Q

things to assess for consciousness

A

Eye opening response
Verbal response
Motor response

52
Q

Fainting (syncope)

A

brief loss of consciousness
- Most often due to the inadequate cerebral blood flow caused by low blood pressure or acute ischemia

53
Q

Coma

A

significant unresponsiveness to sensory stimuli for an extended time period

54
Q

Brain death

A

irreversible coma
- There are often ethical and legal issues surrounding whether a person is dead or alive

55
Q

Sleep

A

a state of partial unconsciousness from which a person can be aroused by stimulation
- coma is not the same as deep sleep – oxygen consumption is lowered during a coma

56
Q

2 major types of sleep

A
  1. Non-rapid eye movement (nrem) sleep – broken into 4 stages
  2. Rapid-eye movement (rem) sleep
57
Q

Stages 3 and 4 of NREM sleep are _________ sleep. These 2 stages are presumed to be ____________ sleep.

A

slow wave
restorative

58
Q

How do EEG waves change in stage 3/4 of NREM sleep

A

frequency of waves declines, but amplitude increases

59
Q

What physiological changes are expected during REM sleep? What kinds of these does the brain accomplish during REM sleep?

A
  • Temporary paralysis, except for rapid eye movements
  • Oxygen consumption, heart rate, and breathing increase – can be greater than during waking hours
  • Most dreaming occurs
  • Allow the brain to analyze the day’s events and work through emotional events and/or problems
  • Consolidate new memories
  • Eliminate unneeded synapses
60
Q

orexins

A

Peptides released by the hypothalamus that help the cortex to wake up

61
Q

Destruction of _______ may cause narcolepsy

A

orexins

62
Q

Narcolepsy

A

neurological disorder characterized bu extreme daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep

63
Q

Cataplexy

A

sudden, abrupt loss of muscle tone while a person is awake – often follows strong emotion or laughter

64
Q

Insomnia

A

chronic inability to obtain the amount or quality of sleep needed to adequately function – most adults need 7-8 hours of sleep/night

65
Q

3 meninges from superficial to deep

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

66
Q

function of the meninges

A
  • Cover and protect the CNS
  • Protect blood vessels, enclose venous sinuses
  • Contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  • Form partitions in the skull
67
Q

What are the two layers of the dura mater? Which of these layers extends into the spinal cord?

A
  • Periosteal layer
  • Meningeal layer
    Meningeal layer extends into the spinal cord
68
Q

_________________ exist in separations between the 2 layers of the dura mater.

A

Dural venous sinuses

69
Q

Dural venous sinuses function

A

Sinuses collect venous blood from the brain and empty into the jugular veins of the neck

70
Q

1 structure formed by extension of the dura mater into the cranial cavity.

A

falx cerebri

71
Q

which space is wider: subdural or subarachnoid space?

A

subarachnoid space

72
Q

What is the function of arachnoid granulations?

A

Protrude through the dura mater into the superior sagittal sinus – they permit reabsorption of CSF back into venous blood

73
Q

Meningitis

A

inflammation of the meninges
- Diagnosed by observing microbes in a sample of CSF – the sample is obtained via lumbar puncture
- Csf is typically collected in between L4 and L5 or L3 and L4 in the subarachnoid space

74
Q

Encephalitis

A

inflammation of the brain

75
Q

where is CSF formed

A

in and around the brain and spinal cord

76
Q

CSF function

A
  • Gives buoyancy to the CNs structures – reduces the weight of the brain bu 97%
  • Protects the CNS from blows and other traumas
  • Nourishes the brain and carries chemical signals
77
Q

What type of glial cell helps to circulate CSF?

A

Ependymal cells

78
Q

How much CSF does the typical adult have? How often is it replaced?

A

~150mL, it is replaced every 8 hours

79
Q

hydrocephaly

A

A clinical condition caused by CSF being produced faster than it is drained – it builds up in the ventricles

80
Q

Why is a stable environment crucially important to the brain?

A

Chemical variations could lead to uncontrollable neuron firings

81
Q

How is this stable environment in the brain achieved?

A
  • Exceptionally impermeable tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells
  • Tight junctions ensure that substances pass through – not around endothelial cells
82
Q

What types of substances can pass through the blood brain barrier? What types cannot?

A

Simple diffusion
- Lipid soluble substances
- Blood gasses
Specific transport mechanism
- Substances important to the brain – glucose, amino acids, specific ions
- DENIES entry to metabolic waste, proteins, toxins, and drugs

83
Q

What type of glial cell reinforces capillaries to form the blood brain barrier?

A

astrocytes

84
Q

What portions of the brain are not covered by the blood brain barrier

A

Vomiting center and hypothalamus

85
Q

physiological importance of having some part of the brain not covered by the bbb

A

This is because full access to neural tissue is necessary in these areas to monitor chemical composition and temperature of blood