Cell Physiology Flashcards

0
Q

Powerhouse of the cell

A

Mitochondria

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1
Q

Contains DNA, Histones & Chromosomes; has nucleolus

A

Nucleus

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2
Q

Involve in detoxification, lipid synthesis, lipid soluble substances; water-soluble substances

A

Agranular or smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)

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3
Q

For synthesis of proteins bound for the cell membrane, lysosomes, outside of the cell

A

Ribosomes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)

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4
Q

For synthesis of proteins bound for the cytoplasm and mitochondria

A

Free-floating Ribosomes

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5
Q

For packaging, molecular tagging, and synthesis of hyaluronic acid & chondroitin sulfate

A

Golgi Apparatus

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6
Q

Replenishes the cell membrane; may contain proenzymes, NT’s

A

Secretory Vesicles

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7
Q

For regression of tissues and Autolysis; Suicide bags of the cells

A

Lysosomes

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8
Q

Degrade membrane-associated proteins; not membrane-bound

A

Proteosome

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9
Q

Contains oxidases, catalases; for detoxification

A

Peroxisome

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10
Q

Site of transcription and processing of rRNA

A

Nucleolus

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11
Q

Location of Electron Transport Chain

A

Inner Mitochondrial Membrane (Oxidative Phosphorylation)

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12
Q

Unique about the mitochondria

A

Contains mitochondrial DNA that is maternally-derived and does not follow genetic code

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13
Q

RER & SER are abundant in which organ?

A

Liver

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14
Q

Subunits of Ribosomes

A

Prokaryotes: 30s, 50s
Eukaryotes: 40s, 60s

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15
Q

Specialized SER in skeletal muscle

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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16
Q

Specialized SER in Neurons

A

Nissl Substance

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17
Q

Only substance modified in the RER and not in Golgi Apparatus

A

Collagen

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18
Q

Added to lysosome-bound proteins by the golgi apparatus

A

Mannose-6-phosphate

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19
Q

Lysosomes come from what organelle?

A

Golgi apparatus

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20
Q

Peroxisomes come from what organelle?

A

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

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21
Q

Wear-and-tear pigment that accumulates in lysosomes?

A

Lipofuscin

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22
Q

Motor protein causing transport from center of the cell to the periphery

A

Kinesin

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23
Q

Motor protein causing transport from periphery of the cell to the center

A

Dynein

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24
Q

Which anti-tumor drugs target the microtubules during mitosis?

A

Vincristine, Taxol

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25
Q

Disease with Dynein missing in cilia and flagella

A

Kartagener’s Syndrome (Situs Inversus, Bronchiectasis, Infertility)

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26
Q

What is the explanation for Situs Inversus in Kartagener’s Syndrome?

A

Defective primary cilia

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27
Q

Disk-shaped; for firm intercellular adhesions

A

Macula densa (Desmosomes)

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28
Q

Ring-shaped; increases surface area for contact

A

Zonula adherens (Fascia adherens)

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29
Q

Reticular pattern; divides cell into apical and basolateral side

A

Zonula occludens (Tight junctions)

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30
Q

For intercellular communication

A

Gap junctions

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31
Q

Functional unit of Gap junctions

A

Connexon

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32
Q

Movement of substances in both the apical and basolateral side

A

Transcellular Transport

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33
Q

Movement of substances between cells through tight junctions

A

Paracellular Transport

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34
Q

Guardian of the cell that divides the body into ECF and ICF compartments

A

Cell membrane

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35
Q

Mainly determines membrane fluidity and permeability to water soluble structure

A

Cholesterol

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36
Q

Anchors protein to outer leaflet

A

Glycolipid: Glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)

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37
Q

Which disease involves a mutation in a gene of Chromosome 7 that encodes for an ABC transporter called CFTR?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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38
Q

Endocytosis: For proteins; requires ATP and extracellular calcium

A

Pinocytosis

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39
Q

Endocytosis: usually receptor-mediated; usually by WBC’s and macrophages; for larger substances like bacteria, cell debris, dead cell

A

Phagocytosis

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40
Q

Secretion of Hormones, Neurotransmitters from intracellular vesicles (mediated by SNARE proteins); results in excretion of Residual Body

A

Exocytosis

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41
Q

Predominant Cation in ECF

A

Na+ (Sodium)

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42
Q

Predominant Anion in ECF

A

Cl- (Chloride)

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43
Q

Predominant Cation in ICF

A

K+ (Potassium)

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44
Q

Predominant Anion in ICF

A

PO4- (Phosphate)

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45
Q

In each compartment, total number of Cations should EQUAL total number of Anions

A

Principle of Macroscopic Electroneutrality

46
Q

“Where Sodium goes, Water follows…”

A

90% of the solutes in the ECF is Na+ (Sodium) making it a reasonable indicator for osmolarity

47
Q

Indicator molecule for TBW

A

Deuterium Oxide, Antipyrine

48
Q

Indicator molecule for ECF

A

Inulin, Mannitol

49
Q

Indicator molecule for Plasma

A

124I-Labeled Albumin

50
Q

Osmoles per kilogram of water; Independent of Temperature

A

Osmolality

51
Q

Osmoles per liter of water; varies with Temperature

A

Osmolarity

52
Q

Clinical estimate of plasma osmolality can be obtained using:

A

Sodium concentration
Glucose concentration
Urea concentration

53
Q

Poisoning that increases Osmolar Gap

A

Alcohol intoxication and Ethylene Glycol poisoning

54
Q

Diffusion of water from a solution of low solute concentration to a solution of high solute concentration

A

Osmosis

55
Q

Driving force of Osmosis that is dependent on number of molecules

A

Osmotic Pressure

56
Q

Uses impermeate solutes; can change cell volume

A

Isotonic, Hypertonic, Hypotonic

57
Q

Uses permeate solutes; can change cell volume only transiently

A

Isoosmotic, Hyperosmotic, Hypoosmotic

58
Q

Will attract water to itself

A

Hypertonic solution

59
Q

Will donate water to opposite compartment

A

Hypotonic solution

60
Q

Example of impermeate solute

A

Glucose (effective osmole)

61
Q

Example of permeate solute

A

Urea (ineffective osmole)

62
Q

Effective osmole used in the treatment of brain edema

A

Mannitol

63
Q

Effect of permeate solutes on osmotic gradient

A

Decreases osmotic gradient

64
Q

Osmotic pressure from large molecules

A

Oncotic Pressure

65
Q

Weight of the volume of a solution divided by weight of equal volume of distilled (pure) water

A

Specific gravity

66
Q

Number between zero and one that describes the ease with which a solute permeates a membrane

A

Reflection Coefficient / Osmotic Coefficient

67
Q

Solute is impermeable

A

Reflection Coefficient = 1

68
Q

Solute is neither permeable nor impermeable

A

Reflection Coefficient = between 0 to 1

69
Q

Solute is permeable

A

Reflection Coefficient = 0

70
Q

Isotonic NaCl infusion; Gain of H2O and Na; Increase in ECF volume

A

Isoosmotic volume expansion

71
Q

Diarrhea; Loss of H2O and Na; Decrease in ECF volume

A

Isoosmotic volume contraction

72
Q

High NaCl intake, Conn’s syndrome; Gain of Na; Increase in ECF osmolarity and volume; Decrease ICF volume

A

Hyperosmotic volume expansion

73
Q

Sweating, Fever, Diabetes Insipidus; Loss of H2O; Increase in ECF osmolarity; Decrease in ECF and ICF volume

A

Hyperosmotic volume contraction

74
Q

SIADH; Gain of H2O; Decrease in ECF osmolarity; Increase in ECF and ICF volume

A

Hypoosmotic volume expansion

75
Q

Adrenal insufficiency, Diuretics overuse; Loss of Na; Decrease in ECF osmolarity and volume; Increase in ICF volume

A

Hypoosmotic volume contraction

76
Q

0.9% NaCl (PNSS) or Lactated Ringers (LR); Increases ECF volume exclusively

A

Isotonic Solution

77
Q

0.45% NaCl or 5% Dextrose in water (D5W); Increases both ECF and ICF volume

A

Hypotonic Solution

78
Q

3% NaCl or 5% NaCl; Increases ECF volume and Decreases ICF volume

A

Hypertonic Solution

79
Q

Passive, Downhill transport; Not carrier-mediated, No metabolic energy used, Not dependent on Na+ gradient

A

Simple Diffusion

80
Q

Passive, Downhill transport; Carrier-mediated, No metabolic energy used, Not dependent on Na+ gradient

A

Facilitated Diffusion

81
Q

Active, Uphill transport; Carrier-mediated, With metabolic energy used (direct), Not dependent on Na+ gradient

A

Primary Active Transport

82
Q

Secondary Active; Carrier-mediated, With metabolic energy used (indirect), Dependent on Na+ gradient (solutes move in same direction as Na+ across cell membrane)

A

Co-transport

83
Q

Secondary Active; Carrier-mediated, With metabolic energy used (indirect), Dependent on Na+ gradient (solutes move in opposite direction as Na+ across cell membrane)

A

Counter-transport

84
Q

Secondary Active Transport indirectly relies on:

A

Na-K-ATPase pump

85
Q

Saturation of Active Transport

A

Tm occurs once all transporters are used

86
Q

Stereospecificity of Active Transport

A

Recognizes “D” or “L” forms

87
Q

Competition of Active Transport

A

Chemically-related solutes may compete

88
Q

Which is faster at low solute concentration: Facilitated or Simple?

A

Facilitated

89
Q

Which is faster at high solute concentration: Facilitated or Simple?

A

Simple

90
Q

In Na-K-ATPase pump, how many Na+ goes out?

A

3

91
Q

In Na-K-ATPase pump, how many K+ goes in?

A

2

92
Q

Transport Mechanism of Oxygen, Nitrogen, CO2, Alcohol, Lipid Hormones, Anesthetic drugs

A

Simple Diffusion

93
Q

Transport Mechanism of D-glucose transport to the muscles and adipose, Amino Acid transport

A

Facilitated Diffusion

94
Q

Transport Mechanism of Na-K-ATPase pump, Ca-ATPase pump in cell membrane and SR, H-K ATPase pump in stomach, H- ATPase pump in intercalated cell of kidney, Multi-drug resistance transporters

A

Primary Active Transport

95
Q

Transport Mechanism of SGLT-1 in small intestine, SGLT-2 in the PCT, Na-K-2Cl in ascending tubule, Na-Ca exchange in almost all cells, Na-H exchange in PCT

A

Secondary Active Transport

96
Q

Ca-ATPase pump in the cell membrane

A

Plasma membrane associated Ca ATPase (PMCA)

97
Q

Ca-ATPase pump in sarcoplasmic reticulum an endoplasmic reticulum

A

Sarcoplasmic and ER Ca-ATPase (SERCA)

98
Q

Functions of Na-K-ATPase pump

A

Prevents cellular swelling; contributes to RMP

99
Q

Functional subunit by Na-K-ATPase pump inhibited by Cardiac Glycosides

A

Alpha subunit

100
Q

In all epithelial cells, Na-K-ATPase pump is found in the basolateral side EXCEPT:

A

Choroid Plexus

101
Q

Why do RBC’s swell when chilled?

A

Decrease ATP synthesis (Decrease activity of Na-K-ATPase pump)

102
Q

Receptors for Fat-soluble substances; Binding to nuclear or cytoplasmic receptors that causes transcription of genes

A

Intracellular Receptors

103
Q

Membrane Receptor: Transduces chemical signal into electrical signal

A

Ion-channel linked Receptor

104
Q

Membrane Receptor: Activates cGMP phosphodiesterase; Decreases cGMP; Closes cGMP-dependent ion channels

A

G-Protein Coupled Receptor with Alpha-t subunit (Transducin)

105
Q

Membrane Receptor: Activated by Guanine Nucleotide Exchange Factors (GEFs); Inactivated by GTPase-accelerating proteins (GAPS), RGS proteins (regulation of G Protein signaling)

A

G-Protein Coupled Receptor (GTP-activated)

106
Q

Membrane Receptor: Activates Adenylyl cyclase (converts ATP to cAMP); Activates Protein Kinase A (PKA)

A

G-Protein Coupled Receptor with Alpha-s and Alpha-i subunit

107
Q

Membrane Receptor: Phospholipase C (PLC) ➡️ PIP2 ➡️ PIP2 splits into InsP3 or IP3 (releases Calcium from ER) and DAG (activates Protein Kinase C)

A

G-Protein Coupled Receptor with Alpha-q subunit

108
Q

Catalytic Receptor: Converts GTP to cGMP; Activates Protein Kinase G; Phosphorylates Proteins (eg: ANP, NO)

A

Receptor Guanylyl Cyclases

109
Q

Catalytic Receptor: Attaches to Type 1 subunit; Phosphorylates Serine/Threonine residues on Type 2 subunit; Activates Effectors (eg: THF-Beta)

A

Receptor Serine/Threonine Kinases

110
Q

Catalytic Receptor: eg: NGF, EGF, PDGF, IGF-1, Insulin

A

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase

111
Q

Catalytic Receptor: No intrinsic Tyrosine Kinase Activity; Associated with proteins that have Tyrosine Kinase Activity, including Tyrosine Kinases of Src Family and Janus Family (JAK) (eg: EPO)

A

Tyrosine-associated Kinase Receptors

112
Q

Cytosolic fragment released to the nucleus which causes transcription of genes (eg: Sterol Regulatory Element-Binding Protein (SREB) of the ER - promotes Cholesterol Synthesis)

A

Regulated Intramembrane Proteolysis

113
Q

Regulated Intramembrane Proteolysis (RIP) of amyloid B-protein precursor causes accumulation of amyloid B-protein in which disease?

A

Alzeimer’s Disease