Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A388 CBT EK Pre-Join > CBT- F/CTRL > Flashcards

CBT- F/CTRL Flashcards

1
Q

How many and what are the flight control computers on the 380?

A
  • 3 Primary Computers (PRIM)
  • 3 Secondary Computers (SEC)

6 Total and one can do the job of all either PRIM or SEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the PRIM/SEC primary inputs?

A
  • ADIRU (Spd,Alt,ATT,Pos)
  • SFCC (Slat/Flap position)
  • LGERS (wheel speed, gear position, flight phase)
  • Hydraulic sensors

Landing Gear Extention and Retraction System (LGERS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the PRIM/SEC secondary inputs?

A
  • Accelerometers and gyros (Load factor)
  • ISIS (monitor ADR)
  • RA
  • FQMS and WBBC (weight and CG)

Fuel Quantity and Management System (FQMS)
Weight and Balance Backup Computer (WBBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How are flight control data and indications relayed to crew?

A

FCDC aquire flight control data for display, warning, maintenance, and recording

Flight Control Data Concentrators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PRIMs provide:

A
  • Compute Flight Control Laws and Characteristic Speeds
  • Host Flight Enveope Protection
  • Compute LAF
  • Control surfaces
  • Host AP/FD/ATHR

Load Alleviation Function (LAF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

SECs provide:

A
  • Control surfaces
  • Compute Direct Law
  • Control RUD TRIM*

*SEC 1 and 3 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the heirarchy in flight controls between the flight computers

A

One PRIM acts as the master processing flight control orders to all other computers which in turn activates their respective actuators.
If the master PRIM fails then any PRIM takes its place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Under the A380 FBW concept what are sidestick inputs translated into?

A

Roll: rate of roll demand
Pitch: load factor demand
Rudder: Sideslip demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is flight surface movement done?

A

Sidestick or AP demands a certain maneuver from the master PRIM which in turn orders all other computers to activate their respective actuators using pre-set laws and limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the funtion of LAF and how does it achieve said function? When is it inhibited

Load Factor Alleviation Funtion

A

LAF reduces fatigue and static loads on the wings by reducing their bending moment. It complements Normal Law.
It utilizes PTA and ATA to achieve that

Inhibited in CONFIG FULL and active above 190kts

Passive/Active Turbulence Alleviation (PTA/ATA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Passive Turbulence Alleviation (PTA)?

A

It reduces static loads in turbulence by symmetrically deflecting the ailerons and or outward spoilers upwards (which can be added to a roll order)

outward spoilers are the last three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Active Turbulence Alleviation (ATA)?

A

Reduces fatigue and static loads by damping wing bending which is done by symmetrically deflecting the ailerons upwards. (Can be added to roll/PTA order)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the phases of Normal Law?

A
  • Ground Law
  • Rotation Law
  • Flight Law
  • Flare Law
  • Derotation Law
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normal Law

What are the control input relationships in Ground Law?

A

Lateral control is a direct relationship in both roll and yaw with full authority (Think flight control check)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normal Law

What is the control input relationships in Rotation Law?

A

Is a direct relationship between the sidestick position and elevator position, without auto trim. It also minimizes the risk of tail strike by added dampening. No rotation law for roll it goes directly to flight law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal Law

What is the control input relationships in Flight Law?

A

Pitch is a load factor (G load) demand with auto trim, Roll is a roll rate demand with full flight envelope protection.It is active from lift off for the roll and 5 s later for the pitch (progressively during 5 s).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normal Law

What is the control input relationships in Flare Law?

A

Provides a direct relationship between control inputs and surfaces, giving full elevator authority, without auto trim.It is active below 100 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Normal Law

What is the control input relationships in Derotation Law?

A

Operates at touch down to provide a smooth derotation and avoid a hard nose wheel touch down. The the A/C transitions back to ground and rotation law at touchdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the protections the A380 has in Normal Law?

A
  • Load Factor Protection
  • High Speed Protection
  • Pitch Attitude Protection
  • Bank Angle Protection
  • High AOA Protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the pitch limitations in Normal Law? Can they be overridden?

A
  • Pitch up: 25-30 degrees
  • Pitch down: 15 degrees

nose up limit depends on configuration and speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The Flight Director (FD) on the PFD will disappear when pitch attitude exceeds:

A
  • 25º Up
  • 13º Down
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which normal law protection takes priority over all other?

A

High AOA Protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When is the low energy warning active?

A
  • Below 2500 RA
  • Above 200 ft RA for take off and 100 ft for landing
  • In CONF 2/3/FULL
  • In ALL F/CTL Laws

(At least one PRIM, ADIRS, RA Available)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the minimum speed that can be reached with A/THR and without?

A

With: VLS
Without: Valphamax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When will A/P disconnect in the realm of high AOA protection?

A

When speed reaches Valphaprot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What speed is manitained when High AOA protection is active when sidestick is released?

A

Flight computers will maintain V alpha prot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the two levels of high AOA protection?

A

1st Level V alpha prot
2nd Level V alpha max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is alpha floor protection active?

A

Liftoff until 100 RA in Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What additional consideration is given when alpha floor activates with one or two engines faulty?

A

When TOGA is commanded it is only done so on symmetrical engines that arent faulty. When two engines are faulty AFLOOR protection is only available when the faulty engines arent on the same wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How can a pilot reach V alpha max? What is special when flying in V alpha max in regards to the flight control demand?

A

When he overrides the alpha prot with the sidestick. Even if the stick is fully aft the A/C will maintain V alpha max and the sidestick demand becomes an AOA rather than a load factor demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What happens when a pilot releases the sidestick at V alpha max?

A

The speed will return to V alpha prot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What will happend to the A/THR logic when AFLOOR activates followed by being out of the alpha floor triggering condition (AOA reduced below threshold)?

A

It reverts to TOGA LK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When does the overspeed warning/protection activate?

A

Warning: VMO/MMO+4

Protection: reaching the green dashes above the barber pole VMO/MMO+10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What happens to the A/C when high speed protection activates?

A
  • Pitch Trim freezes
  • AP disconnects
  • Maximum bank angle limited to 45º
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

can the pilot override the high speed protection in Normal Law?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the speed targets of the high speed protection?

A

Sidestick full forward: 365kt/M0.94
Sidestick released: 350kt/M0.91

AP disconnects at 355/0.93

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the VD / MD of the A380?

Design Speed

A

VD 375kts
MD 0.96M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does extending the speed brakes or selecting speed in an overspeed scenario affect the autoflight logic in cruise?

A

The A/THR Soft Mode will deactivate to make the A/THR more responsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do the speed brakes react when nearing the VMO/MMO?

A

They extend at VMO/MMO-5kts and retract to the speed brake lever position when below that speed

40
Q

To what bank angle limit does the bank angle protection allow a pilot to fly? (Also include when FD’s appear and reappear at high AOB)

A

Clean: 67 º
High Lift config: 60 º

FD’s will dissapear when AOB exceeds 45º and come back below 40º AOB

41
Q

What happens when the pilot releases the sidestick at AOB higher than 33º?

A

The AOB protection returns the A/C back to 33 degrees

auto trim is inhibited above 33º AOB

42
Q

What AOB the aircraft will go to when side stick is released in high AOA/Speed protections? And what about with roll input

A

Wings level

otherwise AOB limited to 45 degrees when inputs are made

43
Q

What aural caution is related to AOB protection?

A

“BANK BANK” callout active during Flare Law below 100RA

44
Q

How many reconfiguration Laws are there?

A
  • Alternate Law (ALTN 1 & 2)
  • Direct Law
  • Electrical Backup
  • Abnormal Attitude Law
45
Q

Reconfig laws differ from Normal law in which areas?

A
  • Pitch
  • Turn Coord/Yaw damping
  • Roll
  • Protections
  • AP/ATHR availability
46
Q

What is lost in Alternate Law ?

what are some replaced with?

A

Protections: AOA, High Speed, AOBº and Pitchº

ºAOB Prot remains in ALTN 1
º Pitch attitude prot may be lost

High AOA protection replaced with “Low Speed Stability”
High Speed Protection replaced with “High Speed Stabiliy”

47
Q

What protections and warnings remain with Alternate Law ?

A
  • Load Factor protection
  • Low energy/high speed warning
  • Bank angle protection in ALT 1

High AOA protection replaced with “Low Speed Stability”
High Speed Protection replaced with “High Speed Stabiliy”

48
Q

What are the control laws around pitch, roll and yaw in ALTN 1 and 2?

A

ALTN 1: similar to Normal Law
ALTN 2: Pitch Normal, Roll Direct, Yaw Alternate

49
Q

What is are low/high speed stability?

A

Similar to Normal Law protection but differs only in that they can be overriden by the pilot.
A nose down demand is given 5-10 kts above stall speed
A nose up demand is given above VMO/MMO

50
Q

What is Direct Law?

A

Occurs after multiple failures and is when flight control input is a direct relationship between the sidestick and controls.

Speed Limited to 310kts

51
Q

What is lost in Direct law and what remains?

A

Lost: AP, Autotrim and all protections
Remain: Overspeed, Low energy and Stall warnings .Turn Coordiantion and Yaw Damping

52
Q

1) When does Abnormal Law engage? What control laws does it activate and 3) what happens when it is recovered?

A

Pitch: Above +50º or below -30º
AOB > 120º
IAS > 420 kts or < 70kts
Mach > 0.96 or < 0.1

2) Laws: Pitch and Roll are Direct, Yaw is Alternate

3) When recovered the A/C will be in ALTN 1 law for the remainder of the flight

53
Q

Wha happens to flight controls when all PRIMs and SECs are lost?

A

The backup control system provides control and stability of the aircraft through the Backup Control Module (BCM)

54
Q

What does Backup Control Module (BCM) control?

A

The BCM controls the inner ailerons, outer elevators, THS and rudders.

55
Q

What powers the BCM?

Back up control module?

A

The BCM is powered by two Backup Power Supply (BPS). The BPSs are electrical generators driven by the Yellow and Green hydraulic system respectively

56
Q

What other secondary flight control functions remain under backup control?

A

As hydraulic power is still available, the conventional servo controls are operative.

Pitch trim and dutch roll damping are available.

57
Q

What flight law exists to protect aircraft which are already outside the protected envelope once in due exceptional circumstances?

A

In this case, specific control laws are activated to ensure aircraft recovery and to allow a safe continuation of the flight.
The aircraft is in direct law and reverts to alternate law after recovery and for the remainder of the flight.

Abnormal Attitude Law

58
Q

How many slats are on each wing on the A380?

A

6 Slats and 2 droop nose panels on the wing root leading edge

Total 8 on each wing

59
Q

How many flaps are on each A380 wing?

A

3 Flaps on each wing

60
Q

What actuates the Slats and Flaps?

A
  • Slats: One Electrical one Hydraulic Motor (Green)
  • Flaps: 2 Hydraulic Motors (G+Y)

Electrical Slats motor is connected to the AC ESS Bus bar

61
Q

What system controls and monitors the Slats/Flaps?

A

The slats are monitored and controlled by two slats systems.
The flaps are monitored and controlled by two flaps systems.

62
Q

How do the Flap/Slat control systems work?

A

Each of the four systems has a SLAT (FLAP) control and a motor.
Each SLAT CTL monitors the SLATS and controls the motor.
In case of one SLAT CTL failure, the remaining SLAT CTL controls both motors. FLAPS operate in the same way

63
Q

What is the architecture of the SFCC?

Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC)

A

Slat control 1 and flap control 1 are part of SFCC 1.
Likewise slat control 2 and flap control 2 are part of SFCC 2.

64
Q

In additional flight controls are incorporated with slats/flaps in high lift configurations?

A

When the slats and flaps are extended, the ailerons droop 5 degrees in order to increase lift.
This new neutral position is indicated by white rings on the aileron scales.

65
Q

What safety systems are incorporated into the flaps?

A
  • Auto Retraction System (ARS)
  • Auto Extension System (AES), and
  • Flap Load Relief System (FLRS).
66
Q

What safety systems are incorporated into the slats?

A

The slats have an α/speed lock function that inhibits slats retraction to zero at high AOA or at low speed.

67
Q

What does the Auto Retraction System (ARS) and Auto Extention System (AES) do?

A

In CONF 1+F when the speed reaches** 212 kt,** the Auto Retraction System (ARS) retracts the flaps to CONF 1.

In CONF 1, the Auto Extension System (AES) automatically extend the flaps to CONF 1+F when the speed goes below 205 kt.

In case of high-weight take off, the S speed will be greater than 212 kt, so the ARS will activate.

68
Q

What does the Flap Load Relief System (FLRS) do?

A

The Flap Load Relief System (FLRS) retracts the flaps to the next retracted flap position when speed exceeds VFE+2.5 kt.
The FLRS is available in CONF 2, 3, FULL.
At VFE-2.5 kt, the flaps automatically return to their selected position.

69
Q

What added feature to the Flaps lever add a layer of redundancy in case of the lever is jammed?

A

The FLAPS lever includes an override mechanism that is used in case the FLAPS lever is jammed. The override mechanism allows to extend the slats/flaps by one step

To use the override mechanism, the flight crew moves the lever one step with a strong force, without pulling the lever out of detent.

The override mechanism is reversible.

70
Q

What happens when the flap lever is accidentally moved in cruise?

cruise above the extension max altitude

A

If the speed is above VFE of CONF 1 or the altitude more than 22 000 ft, the cruise baulk function will maintain the slats and flaps fully retracted if the slats/flaps lever is inadvertently moved to 1.

71
Q

What commands the spoliers?

A

At least one PRIM or SEC

72
Q

How are armed spoilers indicated on the PFD?

A
73
Q

When are ground spoliers inhibited on the ground?

A

72kts or lower

74
Q

What are the arming conditons for ground spoilers to fully activate on landing?

A

At touchdown, with at least three main landing gears compressed and thrust levers at idle.

75
Q

Any special consideration of only one landing gear is compressed in regards to ground spoilers at touchdown?

A

When at least one landing gear is compressed, the ground spoilers will extend partially, thereby decreasing the lift and compressing all main landing gear legs.

76
Q

When will the ground spoilers retract after being activated at touchdown or RTO?

A
  • 2 Levers above CLB
  • All levers at IDLE and disarming the speed brake lever manually
77
Q

Which spoilers assist in roll control?

And which spolier function has priority roll or speedbrake?

A

3-8 with a lower deflection than of RTO

Roll control has priority over speed brake function

78
Q

In flight, what will determined the maximum deflection of the speed brakes?

A

Gross weight and altitude

79
Q

Speed brakes

Do all the spoilers deflect equally in flight?

A

No, spoliers 1 and 2 have a lower deflection

80
Q

When will speedbrakes automatically retract? And how to extend again when that happens

A
  • A. FLOOR
  • Low Speed stability
  • G/A initiated

To extend again, return to RET position for at least 5 s after above conditions disappear

81
Q

When will the caution about “SPD BRKs STILL EXTENDED” come?

A
  • Below 800 RA after 5s deployment
  • When deployed with and engine above idle for > 50s
82
Q

What will affect the other spoilers if one is faulty?

A

The symmetrical spoilers of faulty ones are inhibted

83
Q

Primary flight control surfaces include:

A
  • Three ailerons per wing
    • Eight spoilers per wing
    • One Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS)
    • Two elevators on each side of the horizontal tail plane, and
    • Two rudders.
84
Q

Any consideration when rudder is applied with differential braking?

A

When the differential braking is greater than 50 %, the rudder is deflected in addition to the rudder pedal orders.

85
Q

Which flight controls are used in electrical backup?

A
  • THS
  • Rudders
  • Inner Ailerons
  • Outer Elevators
86
Q

Who has the priority when both pilots press the sidestick takeover pb?

A

The last pilot to press it

87
Q

What flight control surfaces are used for the Load Factor Alleviation Function?

A

All the ailerons and the outer spoilers

88
Q

How long should a pilot press on their respective takeover pb to de-activate the other’s sidestick? how is it reversed?

A

Hold pb for 40s. Can be reveresed by pressing any of the takeover pb’s after that

89
Q

When are the pitch trim switches active?

A

On ground or in Direct Law

90
Q

True or False, Low energy warning is available in ALL flight control laws.

A

True

91
Q

What are the types of hydraulic servo controls available on the A380?

A
  • Conventional Servocontrol
  • Electro Hydro-static Actuator (EHA)
  • Electrical Backup Haydraulic Actuator (EBHA)
92
Q

How are the hydraulic servo conrols powered on the A380?

A
  • Green or Yellow HYD
  • Electrical AC
93
Q

How many servo controls are dedicated to the primary and secondary flight controls?

Ailerons, THS, Elevator, Rudders (Primary) and Spoilers (Secondary)

A
  • Primary Controls: Both active and backup servo control
  • Secondary (Spoilers): Single ACTIVE servo control
94
Q

Refer Q 88 for EHA/EBHA

Describe the role of the EHA

Electro-Hydrostatic Actutators.

A

They are basically backup servo controls to the convetional hydraulic servos for the Ailerons and Elevators. They use electrical power to pressurize their own hydraulic fluid from a dedicated reservoir.

95
Q

Refer Q 88 for EHA/EBHA

Describe the role of the EBHA

Electrical Backup hydraulic actuators

A

They are utilized by both Rudders and one spoiler. They operate normally as a conventional servo but have a backup electrical actuator to act like an EHA when hydraulic power is lost .

basically a combo of both conventional HYD and EHA

Spoiler 6

96
Q

What happens of all PRIMs are lost?

A

There is no master SEC. Each SEC activates its respective actuators independetly

97
Q

When extending the SPEED BRAKEs, what effect does it have on VLS speed?

A

A388 CBT EK Pre-Join (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions