Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A388 CBT EK Pre-Join > CBT- AFS > Flashcards

CBT- AFS Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Autoflight System include?

AFS

A
  • Flight Guidance (FG)
  • Flight Management System (FMS)
  • Flight Envelope (FE)
  • Flight Control Data Concentrator (FCDC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

FG provides:

A

Lateral and vertical guidance which can be either selected on the AFS CP or managed by the FMS via MFD interface.

Autoflight System Control Panel
Multi Function Display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The FMS provides:

A
  • Long term guidance
  • Flight Planning
  • Navigation
  • Performace Computation
  • Info display (MFD, ND and PFD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The FE:

Flight Envelope

A

Used by FG and the **flight controls **to prevent the aircraft from exiting the envelope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The Flight Control Data Concentrator (FCDC):

in the realm of AFS

A
  • Determines auto land capability
  • Commnicates AFS alerts to FWS
  • Generates Maintenance messages for FE/FG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What additional functions to that of FMS does the MFD posses?

A
  • Backup FCU*
  • SURV
  • ATC

*via MFD FCU BKUP / AUTO FLT page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do AFS thrust orders get communicated?

A

Thrust detent tells what is the A/THR demand and gets communicated to FADEC by the PRIM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is the Autoland PB active?

A

below 200 RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can lead to AFS CP fault and what is the behaviour of the AFS?

A
  • Both FCU channels fail
  • Faulty AFS bus

The AFS will use the FCU backup seamlessely on the MFD without any disconnections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What FMC is master DUAL Mode

Normal Ops

A

The one with onside AP active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many FMCs are there and what is their normal operation?

Flight Management Computers

A

FMC A,B and C
* FMS 1 (A)
* FMS 2 (B)
* Standby (C)

Standy automatically synchronizes with healthy FMC incase of single FMC fail (NORM mode)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How will crew deal with a complete all FMC failure ?

A
  • Manually tune navaids in RMP
  • Use ISIS for basic flight plan

Radio Management Panel
Integrated Standby Instrument System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the databases incorporated in the FMC’s

A
  • Nav database
  • PERF
  • Mag Variation
  • Pilot stored elements
  • Customized database
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can a pilot navigate through the MFD applications?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When TCAS mode activates what deactivated FG components does it prompt?

A
  • FD and A/THR will engage if previously off

Speed at A/THR activation is selected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When is the the LVR CLB message inhibited when TCAS activates?

A

at THR RED ALT and RA V/S demand is > 500fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Will there be any change in the lateral mode of the FMA incase AP/FD TCAS activates?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What vertical guidances does AP/FD TCAS mode use when active?

A
  • V/S (200 fpm margin in the green band)
  • ALT hold
  • Alt capture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

does the load factor authority of AP/FD TCAS get affected when the mode activates? What are the speed ranges also?

A

margin increased by 0.3g

VLS-5 to Vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mode reversion when clear of conflict for AP/FD TCAS?

A

V/S -/+ 1000
ALT/ALT CRZ armed
TCAS reverts to armed or disarms depending on TA

V/S reversion will be +500 fpm when climbing > FL300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens if a W/S warning occurs when TCAS is blue?

A

TA Only is automatically selected and TCAS blue mode disarms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens if the W/S warning occurs when AP/FD TCAS is responding to an RA?

A
  • Reversion to V/S
  • TCAS RA Inhibited message on the FMA

V/S reversion will be the TCAS RA target if climbing or V/S 0 if DES

Lateral modes not affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When can crew engage both AP?

A

When APPR mode is armed or in GA mode

AP1 is master regardless of activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Min equipment needed for FD’s and are FD’s available in other flight laws than normal?

A

1 PRIM
2 ADR
2 IR
AFS CP or Backup

Can be available also in some fails associated with ALTN Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When does the Lateral FD change to the yaw bar?

A

Below 30 RA in TO/LDG

27
Q

What happens when FDs are disengaged when AP is i) Engaged ii) Disengaged ?

A

i) Lateral and Vertical Modes remain engaged
ii) Lateral and Vertica modes disengage (A/THR reverts to SPEED mode)

28
Q

Define FLS?

FMS Landing System

A

FMS function that allows to fly NPA similar to Precision approaches.

e.g. RNAV, GPS, VOR, VOR-D, NDB, LOC Only etc

Only if coded in the FMS databse

29
Q

What limitations and min equipment needed for FLS?

A

1 FMS and MMR
Must be coded in FMS database
Approach capability of “F-APP or F-APP+RAW”

Offset between final RWY and Approach course must not exceed 50º

30
Q

does the FLS cater for terrain if the beam is outside the published appraoch?

A

No. he FLS beam does not take into account terrain obstacle clearance outside of the published approach.

31
Q

In comparison to the conventional ILS appraoch. What will the pilot observe when the Landing System pb is engaged while on FLS approach?

A

Pressing the LS pb on the EFIS CP will display:

* FLS course pointer

* F-G/S and F-LOC deviations

* Anchor point, and

* FLS capability.
32
Q

Can the FLS be flown also in LOC only mode as managed/selected?

33
Q

What part of the approach procedure dictates the anchor point?

A

If MAP is located before, after or at RWY threshold. or if the approach uses LOC

34
Q

If MAP is at the RWY threshold what is the anchor point?

A

The anchor point is defined as the runway threshold coded in the data base.

will be identified as e.g. RWY32L

The anchor point is defined in altitude as being either the Threshold Crossing Height (TCH) or Threshold+50ft if TCH is not defined.

35
Q

If MAP is after the RWY threshold what is the anchor point?

A

The anchor point is a published point called “Final End Point” (FEP). It is defined in position by Lat/Long and coded in the data base.

Anchor point is : EPxxx (xxx for runway identification); e.g.: EP32L.

The anchor point is defined in altitude as being either the TCH or Threshold +50ft if TCH is not defined.

36
Q

If MAP is before the RWY threshold what is the anchor point?

A

When the MAP is located before the runway threshold, the FMS computes a fictitious point that represents the anchor point.

The FLS function is not available for some of these approaches

37
Q

What is an imperative input for the FLS to apply temperature correction?

A

The FLS beam is corrected for below ISA temperature provided that the temperature is entered on the APPR panel of the PERF page.

38
Q

Can FLS be used only in the vertical sense to aid a LOC/ LOC with G/S inop, and back course?

What caution exists?

A

Yes, by arming only LOC instead of APPR pb on the AFS CP.

if G/S inop, G/S must be deselected in the POSITION/NAVAIDs page

39
Q

What are the FLS’s capabilites and what determines them?

A
  • F-APP (GPS Primary) All NPA
  • F-APP+RAW (High ACCU) All NPA exc. GPS/RNAV
  • RAW ONLY (FLS cannot be used) Appr. based on RAW data

F-APP+RAW/RAW ONLY requires crew to cross check with raw data

1 FMS

40
Q

What are the speed limits the A/THR applies in managed/selected modes?

A

Min: VLS
Max: Vmax-5

Vmax being VMO MMO VLE VFE

41
Q

What happens if the crew erroneously selects a higher alt in descent/lower alt in climb?

A

Mode reversion to SPEED and HGD/TRK VS/FPA

42
Q

What caution exists if the pilot does not follow the FD’s in A/THR Thrust modes?

A

Speed will decay till VLS or Vmax and thrust mode will revert to SPEED and FD’s dissappear.

43
Q

How to conduct SOFT GA without AP?

How does it differ from conventional GA?

A
  • TOGA the MCT
  • Initial pitch of 12.5
  • Follow FD’s

PRIMs limit the V/S of the GA by adjusting the thrust to get 2000 fpm

All engine Soft GA has a better climb gradient than TOGA with OEI.

44
Q

Is soft GA available incase of OEI?

And what if one engine degraded?

A

No*

Only For RR engines Soft GA is available in alternate mode when an engine is degraded.

45
Q

What happens if an engine fails while conducting a soft GA?

A

Thrust is frozen at detent setting and LVR TOGA memo flashes on FMA

46
Q

Card showing managed speed targets in normal and abnormal phases

47
Q

When is the only time selected speed reverts to managed automatically?

A

at GA

otherwise only an FMA memo will be shown if FMS suggests a different speed e.g. SET HOLD SPD

48
Q

How is a short term managed speed indicated on the PFD?

A

The short term managed speed target may appear when the Speed/Mach is either managed or selected.

49
Q

What is short term managed speed?

A

When a managed speed is displayed, the magenta triangle (or digital value) represents the long term managed speed target but does not take into account the A/C configuration.

Therefore, the current speed target used to command the A/C is the short term managed speed that is represented by a magenta dot.

50
Q

How does the ground lateral FMA armed modes differ from the A320 to A380

A

In addition to CLB NAV blue. The RWY mode arms the moment the A/C is within the LOC beam coverage if available.

51
Q

How does SRS command the aircraft?

Normal and EFATO

A

It commands the pitch required to attain V2+10

Though the managed speed is V2 it will maintain minimum of V2+10

In EFATO SRS indicated the memorized speed of A/C fail and should be between V2 and V2+15

52
Q

When does RWY TRK mode engage?

How about NAV mode?

A

When NAV was neither armed or engaged and above 50 RA

Nav mode engages if armed at 30 feet

53
Q

What are the conditions for G/S to engage?

A

LOC* at least

54
Q

What is LAND mode?

A

Combined LOC and G/S mode below 400 RA. It inhibits AFS CP inputs and can only be disengaged by a GA

55
Q

When does the FLARE mode engage on the A380?

When does the AP command IDLE thrust?

A

60 ft

Idle is commanded at 30 RA if AP engaged with a retard callout at 10

56
Q

When does GA mode engage?

A
  • TOGA thrust set
  • Flaps > 0

It combines SRS and GA TRK modes

57
Q

What arms in the vertical column in GA mode?

A

OP CLB

since FMS predictions are lost and will go back to CLB only after EO ACCL ALT and ALT CST or ALT CRZ arms

58
Q

FMS computes an FLS beam:

A

defined by an anchor point, a course and a slope.
Lateral (F-LOC): course corresponds to the final approach leg of database,

Vertical (F-G/S): Slope corresponds to the final approach slope of database.

59
Q

In AP/FD TCAS, what are the conditions for the TCAS Blue to disarm? (assuming it is armed)

A
  • Intruder becomes white
  • TCAS mode set to STBY or TA Only
  • TCAS Mode and SURV TCAS 1+2 Faults
  • Crew selects another AP/FD mode (e.g. GA)
60
Q

What is accessible on the FMS Application of the MFD

61
Q

What do the PRIMS incorporate?

A
  • FG (AP,FD,A/THR)
  • FE
  • Flight Control functions

Each PRIM can control the entire system (Both AP,FD, and A/THR)

62
Q

What is the architecture of the AFS?

A
  • 3 PRIMs
  • 2 FMS using 3 FMC

Primary flight control and guidance computers (PRIMs)

63
Q

How do FMCs communicate with other peripherals?

A
  • Via the AFDX (Cockpit, ADIRS, RMP, OANS etc…)
  • Directly (LGERS)

Avionics Full DupleX

A388 CBT EK Pre-Join (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions