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Military Topics > Carrier Air Procedures > Flashcards

Carrier Air Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

CSG

A

Carrier Strike Group

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2
Q

CVW

A

Carrier Air Wing

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3
Q

benefit of a CSG w/a CVW

A

projects US Mil power hundreds of miles away from the strike gruop

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4
Q

FRP

A

Fleet Respone Plan

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5
Q

6 core capabilities of the Carrier Strike Group

A 
forward presence
power projection
deterrence
maritime security
HA/DR
sea control
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6
Q

how can power projection be viewed

A

threat or actual use of military force against an adversary to either or induce or dissuade if rom pursuing a given policy or objective

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7
Q

typical CSG composition

A

carrier
at least o cruiser
destroyer squadron of at least 2 destroyers and/or frigates
CAW of 70 fixed/rotor wing
possibly: fast attack sub, attached logistics, supply ship

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8
Q

role of a CSG as a whole

A

CVN & air wing: provide offensive firepower

other ships: defense and support

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9
Q

carrier as the capital ship in the CSG

A

centerpiece of US power projection.

provides the nation the ability to project air power worldwide without the need for land bases

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10
Q

composition of a CVQ

A 
7-8 squadrons
~70 fixed & rotary
-2,500 personnel
4VFA (Hornet/Rhino ) squadrons
1 VAQ (Growler) squadron
1VAW Hawkeye squadron
1-2 HSC/HSM helicopter squadrons
1 VRC (Greyhound) Logistic support detahcment
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11
Q

title of the Air Wing Commander

A

CAG = Air Wing Commander

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12
Q

CAG

A

Air Wing Commander

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13
Q

role of CAG

A

Air Wing Commander: overall responsibility for all aircraft & Air Wing personnel on teh carrier

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14
Q

DCAG

A

Deputy Air Wing Commander

*XO of the CAG

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15
Q

LSO

A

Landing Signal Officer
aka “paddles”
*qualified pilots within the Air Wing responsible for the training of pilots/safe and expeditionasu recovery
*training & debrif

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16
Q

who is responsible for the training & debriefing of pilots on the Air Wing

A

Landing Signal Officers “paddles”

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17
Q

who debriefs pilots post carrier flights & critiques performance

A

Landing Signal Officers “paddles’

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18
Q

GATOR

A

navigator

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19
Q

aka Navigator on a carrier

A

GATOR

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20
Q

OPSO

A

Operations Officer

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21
Q

Air Boss

A

Air Officer

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22
Q

Shooter

A

Catapult Officers

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23
Q

role of OPSO

A

Operations Officer
*responsible for the control of airborne aircraft except when control is not incidential with actual launch/recovery of aircraft

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24
Q

carrier’s ship company

A

works directly for CO. 3,200 personnel

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25
Q

CATCC

A

Carrier Air Traffic COntrol Center

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26
Q

role of Air Ops

A

responsible to the OPSO for coordination of all matters pertaining to flight ops, proper functioning of CATCC, and the type of approach/required degree of control
*coordinates/tracks diverting aircraft, cargo, and passenger trnafers

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27
Q

responsible for current flight operations

A

CATCC: Carrier Air Traffic Control Center

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28
Q

airspace that falls under the Carrier Contorol aREA

A

CCA includes all airspace within 50 nm of the carrier

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29
Q

tracks status of all carrier flight ops

A

CATCC

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30
Q

ATO

A

Air Tasking Order

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31
Q

produces & distributes the Air Plan

A

Strike Operations

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32
Q

Strike Operations

A

department within Ops responsible for future operations

*coordinates/produces the ATO & Air Plan

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33
Q

responsible for ship self-defense

A

Combat Direction Center

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34
Q

CIWS

A

Close-in Weapons System

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35
Q

CCZ

A

carrier control zone

*airspace within 5nm of the carrier & up 2,500ft

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36
Q

Pri-Fly

A

Primary Fligth Control

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37
Q

directs aircraft activity on the flight deck & all aircraft operating in the CCZ

A

Air Boss

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38
Q

role of Air Boss

A

Pri-fly
all aircraft activity on the flight deck & CCZ
CCZ = 5nm from carrier & up 2,500 nm
launch/recovery

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39
Q

carrier’s equivalent to airport traffic control tower

A

Pri-Fly
primary flight control
*6 stories above the flight deck, directly over the main bridge

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40
Q

Tower Flower

A

squadron representative needs to be present in Pri-Fly during all VFR ops. can coodinate with the ready room, communicate directly w/crew, answer platform/squadron specific questions for the Boss, and relay feedback from the Boss to the ready room

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41
Q

location on the carrier where all aircraft are tracked on the Ouija Board

A

Flight Deck Control
*base of island
scalar moels of each aircraft on board.

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42
Q

how to tell on the Ouiji Board which aircraft are out of commission

A

the aircraft is turned over

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43
Q

where is the Flight Deck Control located on the carrier

A

on the flight deck at the bas eof the island

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44
Q

2 places where staff are located during flight ops

A

Primary Flight Control (Pri-Fly): 6 stories up. Tower Flower is there if day ops. in night or IMC ops, they are in Air Ops

Flight Deck Control: flight deck at the base of hte island. Ouiji Board

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45
Q

Yellow Shirts

A 
Taxi directors
Arresting Gear Officers
Shooters
Catapult Spotters
Aircraft handling officers
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46
Q

color shirt: Taxi Director

A

yellow

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47
Q

color shirt: Flight Deck Officer

A

yellow

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48
Q

color shirt: Arresting Gear Officers

A

Yellow

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49
Q

color shirt: shooters

A

yellow

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50
Q

color shirt: catapult spotter

A

yellow

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51
Q

color shirt: aircraft handling officers

A

yello

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52
Q

green shirt

A 
air wing maintence
catapult/arresting gear crew
Helicopter Landing Signal
Cargo-handling
ground support equip troubleshooters
hook runners
photographers mates
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53
Q

color shirt: air wing maintence personnel

A

green

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54
Q

color shirt” catapult & arresting gear crew

A

green

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55
Q

color shirt: cargo-handling

A

green

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56
Q

color shirt: ground support equipment troubleshooters

A

green

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57
Q

color shirt: hook runners

A

green

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58
Q

color shirt: photographers mates

A

green

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59
Q

brown shirt

A

Air Wing Plane Captains

Air Wing line Petty Officers

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60
Q

color shift: Air Wing plane capt

A

brown

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61
Q

color shirt: Air Wing line Petty Officers

A

brown

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62
Q

blue sirt

A

Aircraft handlers (pushers, chockers, chainers)
Tractor drivers
Messengers/phone talkers
elevator operators

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63
Q

color shift: aircraft handlers

A

blue

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64
Q

color shirt: tractor driver

A

blue

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65
Q

color shirt: messengers & phone talkers

A

blue

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66
Q

color shirt: elevator operators

A

blue

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67
Q

color shirt: fueling personnel

A

grape

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68
Q

grape shirt

A

purple

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69
Q

white shirt

A 
safety
medical
LSO
final checkers
Quality Assurance
Air Transfer Officer (ATO)
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70
Q

color shirt: safety

A

white

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71
Q

color shirt: medical

A

white

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72
Q

color shift: Quality Assurance

A

white

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73
Q

red shirt

A

ordnance
crash & salvage
EOD

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74
Q

color shirt: ordnance

A

red

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75
Q

color shirt: crash & salvage

A

red

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76
Q

color shirt: EOD

A

red

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77
Q

only ones to wear khaki on flight deck

A

Flight Deck Officer
Chief Warrent Officers
Chief Petty officers

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78
Q

special designation worn on cranials on flight deck

A

catapult & arresting gear officers wera orange/green reflective tape on their cranials

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79
Q

who are the only people authorized to control the movements of the aircraft on the flight deck

A

“Yellow Shirts”

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80
Q

heart of carrier operations

A

arresting gear

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81
Q

capability of the arresting gear on a flight deck

A

mechanical system that stops an aircraft traveling at 150 knots to stop in 320 ft

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82
Q

interval between arresting gears on a carrier

A

3-4 arresting gear cables at 20 ft intervals

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83
Q

how are arresting cables on a carrier labledq

A

1-4 from aft to forward

aft most cable is the dreaded one “Ace”

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84
Q

what is considered a well-executed landing of a fixed-wing on a carrier

A

aircraft engages 3 wires

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85
Q

optimal interval between landings on a carrier

A

40-60 seconds

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86
Q

main limiting factor that determines the interval between planes landing on a flight deck

A

optimal interval = 40-60 sec
limit: fastest a flight deck crew can get an aircraft cleared on the landing area/arresting gear reset: approx 35 seconds

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87
Q

how quickly should the air crew on a carrier clear a landed plane and reset the arresting gear

A 
35 sec
(optimal interval between planes = 40-60 seconds)
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88
Q

situations where a plan will land w/a barricade rather than the arresting gear

A

emergency fuel during blue water ops,
hook malfunctions,
landing gear malfunctions,
combat damage

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89
Q

primary system to launch aircraft off carriers

A

catapult

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90
Q

how quickly can the catapult launch aircraft

A

0-150 KIAS in under 2 sec

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91
Q

how are the catapults on a carrier numbered

A

1-4 from starboard to port

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92
Q

naming of the catapults on a carrier

A

1-4
1 & 2 = “bow cats” b/c located on the bow
3&4: “waist cats” b/c locate don teh angle or waist

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93
Q

catapults on Nimitizv versus Ford carriers

A

NIMITZ: traditional steam catapults

Ford: EMALS (Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System)

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94
Q

EMALS

A 
Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch Systems
*catapult system on Ford class carriers
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95
Q

how do steam catapults work

A

on Nimitz carriers

  • 2 cylinders that run the length of a football field
  • high pressure steam is ported into the cylinders forcing the pistn down the cylinder at a high rate of speed = slinging the aircraft off the flight deck
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96
Q

what resets aircraft post steam catapult launch

A

water break slows down the piston so it can be retracted for hte next launch

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97
Q

how does the EMALS catapult system work

A

uses a linear motor drive in place of the steam pistons.

  • electric current generates a magnetic field that propels a carriage downt eh cat track
  • gradual accel so less stress on airframes
  • more precise control of launch performance so it can launch a greater variety of aircraft compared to the traditional steam catapults (includign unmanned)
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98
Q

prevents damage form high jet exhaust during catapult launches

A

JBD = jet blast deflector

*heavy duty metal pa

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99
Q

where is the JBD located

A

JBD = jet blast deflector

located at the rear of the catapult

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100
Q

state of the JBD when it is not in use

A

JBD= jet blast deflector

recessed & flush with the flight deck when not in use

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101
Q

state of the JBD when in use

A

when an aircraft is positioned on the catapult for launch, the JBD will be raised by several hydraulic cylinders. when it is raised, hot exhaust from launching aircraft wiill be directed upwards
*so another aircraft can go in position behind it and deck personnel can do pre-launch checks/inspections w/o danger of hot jet exhaust

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102
Q

carrier’s garage

A

hanger bay

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103
Q

where is aircraft maintence performed

A

hanger bay

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104
Q

where is the hanger bay located

A

2 decks below the flight deck

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105
Q

length of the hanger bay

A

2/3 total length of hte carrier

106
Q

how many aircraft can fit in the aircraft hanger

A

60
2/3 total length of carrier
4 zones
3 stories tall

107
Q

how do aircraft move between the flight deck and hanger bay

A

4 giant elevators
hydralic
150K lbs accommodated (2 fully equipped jets)

108
Q

safety feature when carrier elevators are in use

A

guardrail stachions will be raised

109
Q

2 types of elevators that connect the hanger bay and flight deck

A

elevators for the jets

weapons elevators

110
Q

how to act when you are topside

A

head on a swivel
vigilant
situational awareness

111
Q

experienced aircrew’s opinion about the most dangerous aspects of flying on a carrier

A

getting to/from the aircraft especially at night

112
Q

danger of jet exhaust on the flight deck

A

jet exhaust can send personnel tumbling across the deck or even over the side

113
Q

trip hazards on a flight deck

A

chocks
chains
tow-bars
arresting wires

114
Q

“mother” & “father” on a carrier

A 
father = TACAN
mother = ship itself
115
Q

primary use of the ship’s TACAN

A

“father”

primarily used for positional navigation and holding

116
Q

Q: “mark your father”

A

A: aircrew will reply with the radial and DMA of the aircraft from the ship’s TACAN

117
Q

datum lights

A

horizontal row of green lamps used to give the pilot a reference against which he may judge his position relative to the glide scope

118
Q

MOVLAS

A

Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System

*backup shipboard landing aid system that is used when the primary system is inoperatble

119
Q

what separates Naval aviators from others

A

shipboard operations needs vigilance and standardization. no margin for errors

120
Q

what maximizes flight efficiency

A

2 divisions within Operations Dept create a schedule

  • Air Ops
  • Strike Ops
121
Q

Air Plan

A

organizes the operations of the carrier air wing (CVW) within the CSG

122
Q

what does the Air Plan entail

A

daily scheduling for all air operations, ordnance loading, and EMCON condition

123
Q

ATO

A

air tasking order

124
Q

what drives the Air Plan

A

Air Tasking Order (ATO)

125
Q

who hands down the Air Tasking Order (ATO)

A

JFACC: Joint Force Air Component Commander

126
Q

master document that coordinates all air assets within a specific theatre of operations

A

ATO

127
Q

what does the ATO delineate

A
  • all required sorties for each 24hr period & assigns mission
  • ID targets and assigns to units
128
Q

when is the Air Plan normally distributed

A

usually the evening before but sometimes as late as early the next day since contingency operations are fluid

129
Q

info on Air Plan -11

A 
launch time
recovery time
mission
number/model of aircraft
# sorties
sunrise/sunset
moonrise/moonset/moon phase
date
fuel
tactical frequency
ordnance loading
130
Q

NATOPS

A

Naval Air Training & Operating Procedures Standardization

131
Q

manuals that govern aircraft operations (launch/recovery/flight deck procedures)

A

NATOPS: Naval Air Training & Operating Procedures Standardization

132
Q

continuous process of launching & recovering aircraft

A

Cyclic operations

133
Q

purpose of cyclic operations

A

to maximize efficiency, aircraft are launch/recovered in groups or “cycles”

134
Q

how long are typical cyclic operations

A

~1hr 30 min

135
Q

benefit of longer cyclic operations

A

accommodates more launches in recoveries

BUT: affects fuel

136
Q

shorter cyclic operations

A

limits the number of aircraft that can be launched or recovered

137
Q

how many aircraft are in each cycle of cyclic operations

A

12-20 aircraft

138
Q

arrangement of aircraft on flight deck before flight ops

A

“spotted”

139
Q

spotted aircraft

A

aircraft taxi and line up for takeoff

140
Q

3 types of weather conditions for flight ops

A

Case I
Case II
Case II

141
Q

Case I flight ops

A

day ops
weather conditions are VMC
ceiling no lower than 3K ft
not less than 5nm visibility

142
Q

ceiling in Case I flight ops

A

day ops

not lower than 3K ft

143
Q

visibility in case I flight ops

A

not less than 5nm

144
Q

Case II fight ops

A

day ops when you might encounter IMC
lowest ceiling 1K ft
5nm visibility
overcast layer present

145
Q

flight ops on clear day with high ceiling and no overcast

A

Case I flight ops

146
Q

flight ops on a day when overcast is expected

A

Case II flight ops

147
Q

ceiling in Case II flight ops

A

1K ft

148
Q

visibility in case II flight ops

A

5nm visibility

149
Q

Case III flight ops

A

all night ops
ceiling under 1K ft
visibility under 5nm
30 minutes prior ot sunset utnil 30 min post sunrise

150
Q

weather condition for all night ops

A

Case III flight ops

151
Q

ceiling for case III flight ops

A

under 1K ft

152
Q

visibility for case III flight ops

A

night. under 5nm

153
Q

when is the flight brief timed?

A

1hr, 45 min prior to scheduled launch

154
Q

what is included as part of the preflight brief

A

5-10 minute brief from the CVIC broadcast over the tv

  • weather report
  • current/forecast psotition
  • intel
  • SAR
  • divert information
  • current oeprating conditions
155
Q

CVIC

A

Carrier Intelligence Center

  • part of the pre-launch brief
  • broadcast to ship on tv
156
Q

what happens after the pre-flight brief

A

aircrew proceeds to maintence control to review the Aircraft Discrepency Book (ADB)

  • ensure the weight, fuel, and store loads are correct
  • weight chit must be correct to set the catapult correctly
157
Q

ADB

A

Aircraft Discrepency Book

  • checked after pre-flight brief.
  • make sure the weight, fuel, store loads = correct gross weight on weight chit so the catapult can be set correctly
158
Q

where does a flight aircrew suit up

A

Paraloft

159
Q

when does the aircrew report to the flight deck in full gear

A

no later than 45 min prior to scheduled launch

160
Q

Steps on a flight Day from initiation to reporting to the flight deck

A
  1. Brief. (includes CVIC broadcast over TV & Strike Lead) ~1hr 45 min prior
  2. Aircraft Discrepency Book (ADB) to ensure the weight chit is correct
  3. Aircrew suits up in the Paraloft & reports to flight deck no later than 45 min prior to scheduled launch
161
Q

walking the flight deck

A

FOD: Foreign Object Damage

162
Q

Preflight checks once at your aircraft

A
  1. Check around aircraft

(FOD, leak/pooling oil/hydraulic fluid/fuel…), & general condition of hte aircraft.

163
Q

pre-flight FOD walk around aircraft if the tail of the aircraft is over the water

A

if the tail of the aircraft is over the water, don’t precheck it. the plane captain will check it during the hook check after taxiing clear of hte edge

164
Q

when are all crews strapped in and ready to start

A

no later than 30 minutes prior to scheduled launch

165
Q

“start signal” for flight ops

A
  1. Air Boss says “start engines” over 5MC
  2. yellow shirts give the start signal
  3. crews run through the normal start sequence
166
Q

who announces “start engines” over the 5MC

A

Air Boss

167
Q

announcing system used on the flight deck

A

5MC = “start engines” by the Air Boss

168
Q

who monitors engine starts on the flight deck

A 
plane captain (brown shirt)
squadron Flight Deck Chief
169
Q

normal sequence for engine start

A
  1. Air Boss says “start engines’ over 5MC
  2. start signal by yellow shirts
  3. prestart checklist
  4. close canopy
  5. post start checklist
  6. plaine capt checks
  7. complete taxi/takeoff checklist prior to taxxxing
170
Q

what should pilots set the “ANTI-SKID” switch to

A

OFF

171
Q

fighter jet is on approach to landing on the carrier

A

“in the groove” = 15-18 sec to touchdown

*Landing Signal Officer (LSO) will say “call the ball”

172
Q

LSO

A

Landing Signal Officer

173
Q

“in the groove”

A

15-18 sec until the aircraft touches down on the flight deck

174
Q

15-18 sec until the aircraft touches down on the carrier

A

“in the groove”

175
Q

what is the pilot asked when he is 15-18 seconds away from landing on an aircraft carrier

A

Landing Signals Officer: “Call the Ball”

176
Q

what does the LSO want to know when he asks the pilot “Call the Ball”

A

can you see the round orange “meatball” on the Optical Landing System (OLS)?

177
Q

“Clara”

A

Pilot is telling the LSO that he cannot see the round orange “meatball” on the Optical Landing System (OSL)

  • pilot is not receiving optical glide slope info
  • might have to “wave-off” and not land
178
Q

pilot doesn’t land on the carrier upon approach

A

“wave-off”

*additional cost in fuel, time, planning, and maybe safety concerns”

179
Q

response to “call the ball”

A

Clara = I can’t see the ball. (might have to “wave off”
“Side #, aircraft type, “ball”, and fuel state, & qualification # if training”
“Dallas 22-1. Tomcat Ball. 5.7.” meaning”Dallas is the call sign, 221 is the # on the side of the aircraft, Tomcat F-14, ball = I see the ball.. 5.7 = 5.700 lbs of fuel left”

180
Q

LSO response to the pilot’s affirmation that he can see the ball

A

“Roger Ball”
procede to land
*LSO will only speak again if they need to correct a deviation

181
Q

what does “ball” mean when the pilot is taking to the LSO

A

“Ball” = meatball

round bright orange light on the Optical Landing System

182
Q

what does it mean when the pilot can see the ball

A

they can see the round orange “meatball” light on the Optical Landing System (OLS)
*indicates high, low, or on glide-scope

183
Q

someone is landing

A

“on the ball”

184
Q

“on the ball”

A

someone is landing

185
Q

call given to the tower when you are ready to taxi

A

“up and ready”. call up to the tower w/gross wt

*ensure no one is landing “on teh ball” prior to making hte up and ready call”

186
Q

when must oxygen masks be on

A

when the aircraft is not chocked and chained

187
Q

removal of the chocks/chains from the aircraft

A

after start, aircraft will be “broken down”

188
Q

“broken down” aircraft

A

prior to start, chocks/chains removed

189
Q

what happens after an aircraft is taxxied

A

green shirt holds up a weight chit and the pilot must indicate if it matches the weight on the board & wt chit

190
Q

how to signal if the weight on the board matches the weight chit

A

DAY:

  • YES: thumbs up or flashlight circle
  • NO:
  • increase: palm up and move hand up or flashlight up vertically
  • decrease: palm down or flashlight horizontal
  • weight adjusted in 500/1K increments. if off by more than 2 increments, radio call “Callsigh, gross weight is XX thousand X hundred”
191
Q

how do you know what hand signals on the flight deck are for the aricrew & deck crew

A

signals above director’s waist: aircrew

signals below director’s waist: deck crew

192
Q

signals given above the director’s waist

A

aircrew

193
Q

signals given below the director’s waist

A

deck crew

194
Q

normal sequence of visual signals for catapult operations -13

A
  1. extend launch bar
  2. disengage nose wheel steerign
  3. taxi ahead
  4. slight turn L/R
  5. brake on (when in holdback)
  6. tension
  7. retract launch bar
  8. engine runup
  9. acknowledge salute
  10. launch signal
  11. hang fire
  12. suspend
  13. throttle back
195
Q
  1. extend launch bar
A

director rests right elbow in left palm at waist level w/right hand held up vertically and then brigns right hand down to horizontal position

196
Q
  1. disengage nose wheel steering
A

director points right index finger to his nose and presents a lateral wave w/open palm of the left hand at shoulder height

197
Q
  1. taxi ahead
A

director extends arms forward at shoulder level witih hands up at eye level, palms facing backward and makes beckoning arm motion, speed of arm movement indicates desired speed

198
Q
  1. slight turn L/R
A

director will not head in direction of turn while giving taxi ahead signal

199
Q
  1. brakes on (when in holdback)
A

director extends arms above head with open palms toward aircraft and then closes fists

200
Q
  1. tension
A

director extends arems slightly overhead with fists closed and then opened with palms forward (indication to release breaks); then hands towards bow is swept down to a 45 degree postion toward deck while other hand is swept up 45 degrees dowards sky. pilot releases breakes, heels to deck, stays at idle awaiting runup signal

201
Q
  1. Retract launch bar
A

director rests right elbow in left palm w/right arm extended horizontally at waist level and then raised to vertical

202
Q
  1. engine runup
A

Catapult officer makes circular motion w/index and middle finger at head level. pilot advances throttle tor MRT and execute Control Check “wipeout” and engine instrument check

203
Q
  1. Acknowledge salute
A

Catapult officer returns salute

204
Q
  1. launch signal
A

Catapult Officer squats, touches deck, and return the hand to horizontal in the direction of the launch

205
Q
  1. hang fire
A

Catapult officer extends right hand index finger overhead and poirints horizontally at left palm extended vertically

206
Q
  1. suspend
A

catapult officer raises arm above head w/wrists crossed (indicates the launch is to be suspended)

207
Q
  1. throttle back
A

Catapult officer extends arm in front of body at waist level and thumb extended up, then grasps thumb with other hand and rocks as if pulling throttle back

208
Q

when do you throttle back

A

do not throttle back until the catapult officer walks in front of hte aircraft and gives the throttle back signal during suspended launches

209
Q

problem of brakes during catapult launch

A

Brakes may inadvertently be applied during a catapult launch, resulting in a blown tire, even w/heels placed on the deck

210
Q

signal that the pilot is ready for launch

A

day: pilot salutes Catapult Officer
night: external lights are turned on to indicate salute

211
Q

end speed of catapult

A

catapult fires and aircraft will accelerate reaching end speed in 2 sec

212
Q

glass enclosure on the flight deck

A

bubble

213
Q

speed passed under the nose of the aircraft at the edge of hte flight deck

A

edge of the flight deck should pass under the nose at 120 KIAS minimum

214
Q

what does the pilot do as the aircraft clears the end of the stroke

A

pilot rotates 10-12 degrees nose up, establishes a positive rate of clumb. gears and flaps raised in accordance w/NATOPS

215
Q

turns by pilots when the leave the carrier

A

CARQUAL evolutions don’t nomally do them
bow catapults: clearing turns to right
waist catapults: clearing turns ot hte left

216
Q

CARQUAL

A

carrier qualifications

217
Q

right turns off the carrier

A

clearing turns to the right if launched off bow catapult

218
Q

left turns off the carrier

A

clearing turns to the left if launched off the waist catapult

219
Q

no clearing turn off carrier

A

might be doing CARQUAL since they are not normally required

220
Q

pilot after airborne and radios that the aircraft is mission ready

A

“Kilo”

221
Q

pilot says “kilo”

A

after launched, indicates aircraft is mision ready

222
Q

what does an aircraft do after their mission and it is time for their scheduled cyclic landing time

A

proceed back to “Mother”

223
Q

Red Crown

A

CSG Air Defense Controller.

224
Q

maintenance discrepencies that you report prior to landing on the carrier

A

Alibis

225
Q

Alibis

A

maintenance discrepencies that you report prior to landing

226
Q

checklist if you are flying from ship to shore or vice versa

A 
HAIL-R to ensure the aircraft is set up for the particulars of that recovery
H: hook/heats
A: anti-skid/altimeter
I: Instruments
L: Landing Weight/Lights
R: Radio/RADALT
227
Q

HAIL-R

A 
mneumonic to ensure the aircraft is set up to land if going from ship-shore or vice versa
H: hook/heats
A: Anti-Skid/altimeter
I: instruments
L: landing wt/lights
R" radios/RADALT
228
Q

when does Red Crown hand you off to Strike COntrol

A

should occur prior to entering the 50nm Carrier Control Area (CCA)

229
Q

handoffs when a pilot is reentering the CCA (Carrier Control Area)

A

Red Crown - Strike Ops-Marshall COntroller

230
Q

“Zip Lip” conditions

A

radio communications are minimized unless: CQ, low visibility,, safety of flight

231
Q

how to respond to waveoff

A

MANDATORY. must comply either verbally or from waveoff lights

232
Q

how to execute a waveoff

A 
advance power to MRT
retract speed brakes
maintain landing altitude
level wings
climb up the angled deck
233
Q

EAT

A

expected approach time

234
Q

“Bingo”

A

emergency.

aircraft is at emergency fuel levels, ot minimum fuel

235
Q

emergency where aircraft is at emergency fuel level, not minimum fuel

A

Bingo

236
Q

KIAS

A

knots of indicated airspeed

knots = unit o speed

237
Q

AOB

A

angle of bank

238
Q

cross-deck pendant/hook point failure

A

immediately determine if the aircraft can be stopped on the deck
if not: is there adequate air speed for flight? if not, eject,
if airspeed is adequate , maintain MRT, check speed brake retracted, smoothly rotate to optimum AOA

239
Q

catapult malfumction

A

catapult hang fire.

240
Q

role of Air Boss

A

Officer (located in Pri-Fly) in charge of the flight deck and tower operations within 5nm of the shipo

241
Q

in charge of all flight deck/tower operations within 5nm of the ship

A

Air BOss

242
Q

where can you find the Air Boss

A

Pri-Fly

243
Q

Air Operations Officer

A

officer who coordinates all matters pertaining to air operations includign the CATCC

244
Q

altitudes in thousands of feet

A

Angles

Angles 1.5 = 1, 500 ft

245
Q

Axial Winds

A

Winds downt eh longitudinal axis of hte ship created by the ship’s forward movement
*causes a right to left crosswind across the angled deck

246
Q

schedule of carrier flight operations published daily

A

Air Plan

247
Q

Bingo

A

refers to the minimum fuel state required to divert safely to the nearest suitable field. EMERGENCY

248
Q

Bingo fuel

A

aircraft fuel state in sufficient quantity necessary to fly to the bingo field w/X lbs remaining, depending on aircraft type

249
Q

Bolter

A

a touchdown on the carrier in which the arresting hook does not engage the arresting wires

250
Q

touchdown on the carrier in which the arresting hook does not engage the arresting wire

A

bolter

251
Q

BRC

A

Base Recovery course

ship’s magnetic course

252
Q

ship’s magnetic course

A

BRC: Base REcovery COurse

253
Q

first aircraft to land for each cycle

A

Breaking the Deck

254
Q

Breaking the Deck

A

first aircraft to land for each cycle

255
Q

proceed at maximum airspeed

A

Buster

256
Q

Buster

A

proceed at maximum airspeed

257
Q

CATCC

A

Carrier Air Traffic COntrol Center

*status-keeping of all carrier air ops and control of all airborne aircraft involved in l aunch/recovery

258
Q

department responsible for status-keeping of carrier aircraft in launch/recovery

A

CATCC: Carrier Air Traffic COntrol Center

259
Q

area controlled by the Air Boss

A

CCZ = Carrier Control Zone
5nm radius around carrier
2,500ft

260
Q

p. 63

A

Military Topics (12 decks)

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