Cardiovascular Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

If a patients SpO2 is 85% on 2L/min nasal cannula and pursed lip breathing is not working what should you do?

A

Titrate the oxygen to 3-4 L/min, take appropriate safety precautions, and reassess response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When should BP medication be started?

A

If pt has stage 1 hypertension for greater than 6 months or if pt has stage 2 hypertension at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are drug classes for congestion?

A

Antitussives, decongestants, expectorants, mucolytics, and antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are drug classes for obstruction?

A

Bronchodilators, glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are bronchodilators?

A

Beta-adrenergic agonist

Anti-cholinergic

Xanthine derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do beta-adrenergic agonists (SABAs and LABAs) do?

A

Activate beta 2 adrenergic receptors in the airway smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do anti-cholinergic (SAMAs, LAMAs) do?

A

Block action of AcH in the airways by blocking muscarinic receptors causing Bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are anti-inflammatory drug classes?

A

Glucocorticoids

Cromones

Leukotriene inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does ACE inhibitor affect the RAAS?

A

Blocks angiotensin 1 from converting into angiotensin 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does ARB affect RAAS?

A

It does not allow angiotensin 2 to cause blood vessels to vasoconstrict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common manifestation of intolerance to an ACE inhibitor?

A

Sustained cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 1st line medications used for hypertension?

A

Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, Angiotensin receptor blockers, and CCBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 2nd line medications used for hypertension?

A

Loop diuretics, potassium sparing diuretics, beta blockers, and direct vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the basic targets for treating hypertension?

A

Direct cardiac agent

Peripheral vascular agent

Renal agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where do diuretics take action at?

A

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are diuretics anti hypertension effect?

A

Decrease plasma fluid volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where do sympatholytics take action at?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the anti hypertensive effects of sympatholytics?

A

Decreased sympathetic influence on heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is the primary action of vasodilators?

A

Peripheral vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the anti hypertensive effects of vasodilators?

A

Lower vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Where is the primary action of ACE inhibitors?

A

Peripheral vasculature and certain involved organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is the primary action of calcium channel blockers?

A

Vascular smooth muscle and cardiac muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the anti hypertensive effects of calcium channel blockers?

A

Decreased contractility and cardiac force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do thiazide medications do to help hypertension?

A

Inhibit sodium reuptake (first line option)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are common thiazides used for hypertension?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

Chlorthalidone

Metolazone

Chlorothiazide

Indapamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the route of HCTZ?

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the route of metolazone?

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the route of chlorothiazide?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the route of chlorothalidone?

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do loop diuretic targets do to help with hypertension?

A

Inhibit Na, K, Ca, Mg reabsorption in loop of Henle (decrease Afterload)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are loop diuretic targets often used for?

A

Edema and heart failure patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most common loop diuretic used?

A

Furosemide (lasix)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the route of furosemide?

A

Orally or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the route of bumetanide?

A

Orally or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the route of torsemide?

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the route of ethacrynic acid?

A

Orally or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aldosterone antagonists (potassium sparing diuretics)?

A

Inhibits aldosterone by inhibiting sodium-potassium exchange site in the distal tubule

38
Q

What do aldosterone antagonist excrete and retain?

A

Excretes sodium and water

Retains potassium

39
Q

What are aldosterone antagonists used to treat?

A

Hypertension and heart failure

40
Q

What are types of aldosterone antagonists?

A

Spironolactone

Eplerenone

41
Q

How are all aldosterone antagonists taken?

42
Q

What do ACE inhibitors do?

A

Inhibit conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

43
Q

What causes peripheral vasoconstriction?

44
Q

What line option is an ACE inhibitor?

45
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of ACE inhibitors?

A

Hypertension

Post MI

Heart failure

Diabetes

46
Q

What are side effects of ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers?

A

Angiodema

Cough

Hypotension

Hyperkalemia

47
Q

What is the suffix for ACE inhibitors?

48
Q

How are ACE inhibitors often administered?

49
Q

What is the action of angiotensin receptor blocker?

A

Action of angiotensin 2 is blocked despite its production

50
Q

What should angiotensin receptor blocker not be combined with?

A

ACE inhibitors

51
Q

What is the suffix for ARBs?

52
Q

What do calcium channel blockers inhibit?

A

Sympathetic stimulation of vascular smooth muscle

53
Q

What is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers?

A

Blocks calcium re entry which results in reduced contractility and HR

54
Q

What is suffix for calcium channel blockers?

55
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do to peripheral vasodilation?

A

Decrease it

56
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do to coronary blood flow?

A

Increase it

57
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do to myocardial O2 demand?

A

Decrease it

58
Q

What are the primary functions of sympatholytics (beta blockers)?

A

Beta 1 blockade

59
Q

What are the secondary effects of sympatholytics (beta blockers)?

A

Beta 2 blockade

60
Q

What does the beta 1 blockade inhibit?

A

Sympathetic cardiac stimulation of the SA node and renin secretion

61
Q

What does the beta 2 blockade do?

A

Vasodilation of GI vasculature

62
Q

What line of therapy are sympatholytics (beta blockers)?

A

Second line for hypertension

63
Q

What is the suffix for beta blockers?

64
Q

Why would you combine alpha and non selective beta blockers?

A

It lowers BP more than just beta blockers without combination

65
Q

What are the most common combined alpha and non-selective beta blockers?

A

Carvedilol

Labetalol

66
Q

What are the two ways to treat ischemic heart disease?

A

Reduce cardiac oxygen demand and increase cardiac oxygen supply

67
Q

What are the treatment options for angina?

A

Nitrates

Beta blockers

Calcium channel blockers

Ranolazine

68
Q

How do nitrates treat angina?

A

Lower O2 demand

69
Q

How do beta blockers treat angina?

A

Lower O2 demand

70
Q

How do calcium channel blockers treat angina?

A

Increase O2 supply and lower O2 demand

71
Q

How does ranolazine treat angina?

A

Mechanism unknown

72
Q

What are the different types of angina?

A

Stable

Prinzmetals (variant)

Unstable

73
Q

What is best at treating Prinzmetals (variant) angina?

A

Calcium channel blockers due to reducing vasospasm

74
Q

What are drugs trying to do to help with angina?

A

O2 supply=O2 demand

75
Q

What line of therapy are beta blockers for angina?

A

1st line (reduces cardiac oxygen demand by limiting HR)

76
Q

What line of therapy are nitrates for angina?

A

Short acting 1st line for angina attacks

2nd acting after beta blockers

77
Q

How do calcium channel blockers help with angina?

A

Block calcium re entry (reduce contractility and HR)

78
Q

What medications should you be on post MI?

A

Aspirin

P2Y inhibitor (at least 12 months)

Beta blocker

Statin

ACE inhibitor

79
Q

What are aspirin and P2Y inhibitors?

A

Anti platelet agents that may cause bruising

80
Q

What is the most common side effect of statins?

81
Q

What should you do if a patient experiences a MI?

A

Give nitro and have them chew and swallow 325 mg of aspirin

82
Q

What are the letters of heart failure?

A

A- risk only (no symptoms and no damage)

B- damage (no symptoms)

C- symptoms and damage

D- end stage

83
Q

What do medications do to treat chronic heart failure?

A

Decrease cardiac load and resistance

Increase contractility

84
Q

What medications are taken for chronic heart failure?

A

Cardiac glycosides

ACE inhibitors

Beta blockers

Aldosterone antagonists

Vasodilators

Diuretics

85
Q

What will cardiac glycoside (digoxin) do?

A

Increase heart contractility

86
Q

Why is it easy to overdose on cardiac glycoside (digoxin)?

A

Narrow therapeutic index

87
Q

What are the side effects of cardiac glycoside (digoxin)?

A

Visual disturbances

Bradycardia

Anorexia

Nausea and vomiting

88
Q

What do class 1 antiarrhythmic drugs do?

A

Block Na+ channels

89
Q

What do class 2 antiarrhythmic drugs do?

A

Beta blockers

90
Q

What do class 3 antiarrhythmic drugs do?

A

Prolong repolarization

91
Q

What do class 4 antiarrhythmic drugs do?

A

Calcium channel blockers