Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Body Systems and Medical Terminology 1 & 2 > CARDIOVASCULAR AND HEMATOLOGIC SYSTEMS > Flashcards

CARDIOVASCULAR AND HEMATOLOGIC SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

The heart is made of how many layers?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three layers of the heart?

A

Endocardium
Myocardium
Pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Endocardium

A

Smooth, delicate lining of the atria and ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Myocardium

A

Muscular wall ( makes up most of the heart)
Myocardium of left ventricle very thick because it forces blood to the rest of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pericardium

A

Thin, sturdy outer membrane.
Consists of two layers: Visceral and parietal pericadium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Visceral Pericadium

A

Adheres to the myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Parietal pericardium

A

contains the whole heart like a sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pericardial cavity

A

Space between visceral and parietal paricardia. Fluid -filled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Heart.. how many chambers?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Atrium

A

Where the blood enters the heart.
(Atrium is an entryway of a building).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ventricle

A

Blood goes through the entry and is pumped down into the “belly” of the heart, from where it goes back into circulation.
(Ventricle middle english meaning stomach or belly).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Interatrial septum (septa plural)

A

Partitions the two atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Interventricular Septum (septa plural)

A

Partitions the two ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

All arteries carry…

A

blood away from the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All veins carry…

A

blood toward the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where does oxygen-depleted blood go?

A

The heart pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation via the arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens to oxygenated blood?

A

It gets pumped back to the heart via veins and gets returned to the body by arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How are ventricles and atrias connected?

A

Atrioventricular (AV) valves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Right AV valve (Tricuspid valve)

A

Goes from the right atrium to the right ventricle.
The cusp flap allows blood to pass through the heart in one direction and prevents backflow into the chamber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Left AV valve (bicuspid valve/mitral valve)

A

Goes from left atrium to left ventricle.
The cusp flap allows blood to pass through the heart in one direction and prevents backflow into the chamber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Two valves guarding the exits of the ventricles.

A

Pulmonary Semilunar valve
Aortic Semilunar valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Pulmonary semilunar valve

A

Opens from right ventricle into the pulmonary artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aortic semilunar valve

A

Opens from the left ventricle into the aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Coronary Circulation

A

Process through which the heart receives its own blood supply (capillary networks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Coronary Sinus

A

Consist of coronary arteris and coronary veines.
Opens into the right atrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Superior and inferior vena cava

A

Carry blood from the rest of the body to the right atrium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Single cardiac cycle consist of …

A

Simultaneous contraction of both atria followed by simultaneous contraction of both ventricles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Systole

A

Contaction of the ventricles (relaxation of the atria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diastole

A

Relaxation of the ventricles (ventricles dialate to receive blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bradycardia

A

Heart rate slower than 60bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tachycardia

A

Heart rate faster than 100bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sinoatrial node (SA)

A

Main control center of the heart. At the junction between superior vena cava and right atrium.
Know as “pacemaker” of the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Does cardiac muscle depend on impulses sent from the nervous system?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pulmonary arteries

A

Deliver deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pulmonary veines

A

Deliver oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The muscular wall that makes up the bulk of the heart:

A

Myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which ventricle is the thicker and larger one?

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Atria and Ventricles of each side are connected by a/an

A

atrioventricular valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The heart supplies blood to itself via

A

coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The heart pumps blood to the lungs for oxygenation via the

A

pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Explain blood’s circulation among the heart and the rest of the body

A
  1. Deoxygenated blood mixed with waste gases and chemicals is collected from body via veins and brought to heart.
  2. Hearts pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs via pulmonary arteries.
  3. Oxygenated blood goes back to the heart via pulmonary veins.
  4. Oxygenated blood is supplied throughout the body via arteries, including the heart itself through coronary arteries.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Oxygenation of blood in the lungs via…

A

lung capillaries
Carbondioxide waste is exhaled and oxygen is inhaled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Veins carry blood … heart

A

Toward the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Arteries carry blood… heart

A

Away from the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What makes the “lub dub” heartbeat sound you hear under a stethscope ?

A

Closing of valves after cardiac contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Blood pressure =

A

Pressure placed on arterial walls during systole and diastole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bundle of His

A

Lies in the septum between the two ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Purkinje fibers

A

Stimulate both ventricles to constract simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hypertension

A

Elevated blood pressure over a significant period of time and under varied conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

Buildup of plaque in the arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Atherosclerosis of the renal arteries

A

Plaque buildup in the arteries leading to the kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Atherosclerosis of the renal arteries can lead to …

A

Hypertension (Kidneys play vital role in bp regulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to …

A

Strokes
Heart Attack (myocardial infarctions)
Peripheral vascular disease
Chronic kidney disease
Retinal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Idiopathic hypertension

A

Cause unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Risk factors for high blood pressure

A
  • Increased Age
  • High salt and saturated fat intake
  • Hyperlipedemia
  • Being overweight or obese
  • Not having an active lifestyle
  • Smoking
  • Family history of high bp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Lifestyle changes for treatment of high bp:

A
  • Losing weight
  • Drinking less alcohol
  • Decreasing salt intake
  • Exercising
  • Quitting smoking
  • Eating a healthy diet
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Classes of medications to treat hypertension :

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. Beta blockers
  3. ACE inhibitors
  4. ARBs
  5. CCBs
  6. Vasodilators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Diuretics

A

Stop kidneys from reabsorbing water and electrolytes. Leads to increased loss of water and electrolytes in the form of urine. Increased water loss lowers the blood volume, which lowers the blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Diuretic medication names

A
  • Spironolactone (Aldactone)
  • Furosemide (Lasix)
  • Bumetanide (Bumex)
  • Hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Side effect of taking diuretics

A
  • Hypotension
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte deficiencies
  • Arrythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Precautions when taking diuretics

A
  • Avoid taking at bedtime
  • May need electrolyte supplements
  • Spironolatone, a potassium- sparing diuretic , may not require a potassium supplement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Beta Blockers define functions

A

Beta receptor antagonists that act on the beta receptors in the heart.
This causes decreased heart rate and cardiac output and lowers the bp.
Beta blocker names end in -lol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Beta blocker names

A
  • Metoprolol (Lopressor)
  • Atenolol (Tenormin)
  • Metoprolol XL (Toprol XL)
  • Carvedilol (Coreg)
  • Labetalol (Normodyne)
  • Propranolol (Inderal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Side effects of Beta Blockers

A
  • Hypotension
  • Dizziness
  • Syncope
  • Bradycardia
  • Fatigue
  • Hepatic toxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Precautions taking beta blockers

A

Don’t abruptly discontinue
Major drug-drug interactions with certain asthma medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Beta blockers end in the suffix….

A

-lol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

A

Restrain the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II. They decrease the fluid volume and also cause peripheral vasodilation resulting in lower bp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Suffix of most ACE inhibitors

A

-pril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

ACE inhibitor medications

A
  • Captopril (Capoten)
  • Lisinopril (Prinvil)
  • Enalapril (Vasotec)
  • Benazepril (Lotensin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

ACE inhibitor side effects

A
  • Hyperkalemia (increased potassium in blood)
  • Hypotension
  • Dry, persistent cough
  • Angioedema (swelling of tongue, lips and mouth; immediate treatment required!)
  • Increased serrum creatinine (kidney failure indicator)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Precautions ACE inhibitors

A
  • Monitor kidney function
  • If cough not tolerable switching to different class of hypertensive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

A

Inhibit binding of Angiotensin II to the Angiotensin II receptors. Produce similar end results as ACE inhibitors to lower bp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Medication suffix for Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

A
  • sartan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Common ARB mediccations

A
  • Losartan (Cozaar)
  • Valsartan (Diovan)
  • Irbesartan (Avapro)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Side effects ARBs

A
  • Hyperkalemia (increased potassium in blood)
  • Hypotension
  • Dry, persistent cough
  • Angioedema (swelling of tongue, lips and mouth; immediate treatment required!)
  • Increased serrum creatinine (kidney failure indicator)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Precautions when taking ARBs

A
  • Monitor kidney function
  • If cough not tolerable switching to different class of hypertensive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs)

A

Hinder the calcium ion influx (calcium required during contraction) in the vascular smooth muscle of the heart, resulting in heart muscle relaxation- decreasing bp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

suffix CCBs

A

-pril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

CCB Medications

A
  • Diltiazem (Cardizem)
  • Verapamil (Calan)
  • Amlodipine (Norvasc)
  • Felodipine (Plendil)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Side effects CCBs

A
  • Hypotension
  • Dizziness
  • Flushing
  • Headache
  • Tachycardia
  • Exacerbation of CHF (congestive heart failure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Precautions CCBs

A

Monitor for signs of peripheral or pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Vasodilators

A
  • Work by directly dilating the blood vessels to produce rapid and significant reduction in bp.
  • Used to treat dangerously high bp in emergency situations due to rapid effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Vasodilator prefix

A

Nitro-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Vasodilator Medications

A
  • Hydralazine (Apresoline)
  • Nitroprusside (Nitropress)
  • Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
  • Isosorbide mononitrate (Imbdur)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Vasodilator Side efffects

A
  • Tachycardia
  • Edema or fluid retention
  • Lupus
  • Postural hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Precautions Vasodilators

A
  • Don’t suddenly stand up
  • Monitor for signs of swelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

CHF

A

Congestive Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Congestive Heart Disease (CHF)

A

Happens when the heart can’t pump blood efficiently to deliver an adequate supply of blood to the metabolizing tissues, usually because of water and sodium retention.
It may precede or follow a heart attack.
It also may be associated with other cardiovascular problems, such as high blood pressure, aortic stenosis, and coronary artery disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Congestive

A

implies edemous state commonly associated with fluid retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Symptoms CHF

A
  • Fatigue
  • Increased urination at night
  • Swelling
  • Shortness of breath
  • Tachycardia
  • Nausea/Vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Treatment CHF

A

Medications to relieve symptoms, prevent further damage and prolong survival.
Damaged heart muscle can’t be repaired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Risk factors CHF

A
  • Increased age
  • Infections
  • Valve disease
  • Arrythmia
  • Traum to heart muscle
  • Chemotherapy and certain illicit medications
  • Congenital heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Nonpharmacologic Therapy for CHF

A
  • Bed rest to decrease cardiac load
  • Progressive ambulation
  • Dietary control with small, frequent meals
  • Salt restriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Medications used to treat CHF

A
  • Digoxin (Lanoxin)
  • Diuretics
  • Beta Blockers
  • ACE inhibitors and ARBs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Narrow Therapeutic Index (NTI)

A

Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are drugs
where small differences in dose or blood
concentration may lead to serious therapeutic
failures and/or adverse drug reactions that are
life-threatening or result in persistent or
significant disability or incapacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Digoxin

A

Medication that’s proven to be very effective treating CHF symptoms and reducing hospitalization.
Digoxin levels in the blood have to be closely monitored to avoid digoxin toxicity due to its narrow therapeutic Index (NTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Diuretics as treatment for CHF

A

Diuretics are slowly titrated to minimize or eliminate fluid retention. Diuretics increase urination and sodium excretion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Beta Blockers as treatment for CHF

A

Reduce heart rate and prevent arrhythmias to help reduce CHF symptoms. Beta Blockers are known to reduce the risk of mortality and hospitalization and improve the overall clinical status of CHF patients. Sometimes beta blockers are used in conjuction with diuretics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

ACE inhibitors and ARBs in CHF treatment

A

Generally used for long-term management of chronic CHF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Hyperlipidemia (High Cholesterol)

A

Increase in circulating concentration of cholesterol, cholesterol esters, triglycerides, or phospolipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Cholesterol classified as…

A

Steroid-based and primary component of cell membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Two main types of cholesterol

A
  • HDL (High-Density Lipoprotein. Good cholesterol associated with a decreased risk of heart disease.
  • LDL (Low-Density Lipoprotein). Bad cholesterol associated with an increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Triglycerides

A

Provided by deitary fats and hepatic conversion of carbohydrates.
Also increase the risk of heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Risk Facotors Hyperlipidemia

A
  • A genetic defect in the recptor and/or enzyme abnormality or deficiency
  • Obesity
  • High fat and cholesterol dietary intake
    -Certain medications that cause increased cholesterol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Treatment for hyperlipidemia

A
  • Dietary restrictions to avoid fatty foods
  • Exercise
  • Weight reduction
  • Smoking cessation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Medications (Statins) that are used to treat hyperlipidemia include

A

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
Simvastatin (Zocor)
Pravastatin ( Pravachol)
Rosuvastatin (Crestor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Statin Side effects

A

-Nausea
-Headache
-Abdominal Pain
-Muscle Pain (May be an indicator of a serious side effect of statins, called rhabdomyolysis, which is a breakdown of skeletal muscle. Routine monitoring of CK (creatine kinase) is recommended for high-risk patients.
-Liver damage (Liver function tests are recommended periodically while patients are on statins).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Other medications used to treat hyperlipidemia

A

Niacin (Niaspan)
Fenofibrate (Tricor)
Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
Ezetimibe (Zetia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Rhabdomyolysis

A

Breakdown of skeletal muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

CAD

A

Coronary Artery Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

A

heart attack

112
Q

Acute Coronary syndrome (ACS)

A

A rupture of coronary arteries due to plaque buildup.

113
Q

CAD Coronary Artery Disease

A

Condition in which plaque builds up inside the coronary arteries (atherosclerosis).
This narrows the arteries and limits the amount of blood and oxygen that the heart can receive.
Most feared outcome of CAD is a myocardial infartion (MI)

114
Q

MI occurs…

A

When a thrombus (blood clot) develops in a coronary artery that’s already narrowed by atherosclerosis.
The complete blockage of blood flow through the coronary artery prevents the surrounding heart muscle from receiving any blood and oxygen.

115
Q

One proven measure to decrease the incidence of CAD and MI?

A

Controlling cholestrol levels.

116
Q

Risk factors for coronary artery disease include:

A

Hyperlipidemia
Hypertension
Smoking
Obesity
Age
Family history
Sedentary lifestyle

117
Q

thrombos

A

blood clot

118
Q

Medications commonly used to prevent MI and ACS are:

A
  • Aspirin
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Blood thinners
119
Q

Examples of blood thinners:

A
  • Clopidogrel (Plavix)- an anticoagulant or blood thinner that prevents platelets from sticking together
  • Heparin- an intravenous blood thinner, commonly used in the hospital in acute thrombosis
  • Low Molecular Weight Heparins (LMWH), such as Enoxaparin (Lovenox) and Fondaparinux (Axistra)- LMWHs are available as alternatives to heparin as anticoagulants.
  • Warfarin (Coumadin)- an oral blood thinner, used as maintenance therapy to prevent clot formation
  • Alteplase (TPA)- a thrombolytic that causes lysis (disintegration) of the clot. Risks and benefits need to be compared and evaluated before using this potent agent.
120
Q

Dysrhythmia

A

Disorganized or abnormal heart rhythm

121
Q

Common causes of Dysrhythmia include:

A
  • Hypertension
  • ACS
  • Heart Failure
122
Q

Dysrhythmia may be…. if not treated

123
Q

Medications used to treat cardiac dysrhythmia :

A
  • Amiodarone (Cordarone)
  • Disopyramide (Norpace)
  • Dofetilide (Tikosyn)
  • Propafenone (Rhytmol)
124
Q

…. is an anticoagulant or blood thinner that prevents platelets from sticking together

A

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

125
Q

… is a lack of oxygen and results from obstruction significant enough to deprive heart muscles of oxygen

126
Q

…. is the resulting chest pain.

127
Q

White Blood Cells (WBCs)

A

Main function is to defend against infection and foreign invaders. An increase in WBC count is indicator of infection.

128
Q

Leuko-

129
Q

White Blood Cells also called…

A

Leukocytes

130
Q

-cyte

131
Q

WBCs divided into which categories ?

A

Granulocytes
Agranulocytes

132
Q

Granulocytes

A

Granulocyte cells have a granular appearance under the microscope.

133
Q

Agranulocytes

A

Agranulocyte cells don’t have a granular appearance under the microscope.

134
Q

There are three main types of granulocytes…..

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Basophils
135
Q

Agranulocytes can be further classified as …

A
  • Lymphocytes
  • Monocytes
136
Q

Neutrophils

A

Most prevelant of the WBCs. They respond to bacterial infections, such as pneumonia or urinary tract infections by engulfing the bacteria through process of phagocytosis.

If infection is modrate to severe bone marrow will produce extra amounts of neutrophils.

137
Q

phagocytosis

A

the ingestion of bacteria or other material by phagocytes

138
Q

Esonophils

A

Granulocyte involved in allergic reactions.
Concentration may be elevated after allergic reactions to food or drugs.
Help fight infections by certain parasites and microorganisms.

139
Q

Basophils

A

Involved in the process of inflammation.

140
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Produce antibodies against foreign particles (Microorganisms, drugs, canceerous cells, cells from transplanted organs). Further classified as T-lymphocytes (T-cells) and B-lymphocytes (B-cells).

141
Q

B-cells

A

Produce antibodies

142
Q

T-cells

A

Participate in cell-mediated immune response against bacterial and viral infections.

143
Q

Monocytes

A

Phagocytic cells; main function is to engulf and digest other cells and pathogens.

144
Q

Process of Blood Coagulation

A

Thromboplastin is triggered when a cut or injury occurs, converting prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin then converts fibrinogen to fibrin. Fibrin makes a mesh over the bleeding site to trap various blood cells. Platelets are the main blood cells that stick or clump together at bleeding site to make a scab or clot. RBCs and plasma also needed to form the clot.

145
Q

…. is a complex protein that’s designed to bind and release oxygen.

A

Hemoglobin

146
Q

…. is a protein that acts as an enzyme to convert the fibrinogen in the plasma to fibrin.

147
Q

Individuals with which blood type are known to be universal recipients?

148
Q

Individuals with which blood type are known to be universal donors?

149
Q

What is the average life span of RBCs?

150
Q

What is the average blood volume of the body?

A

5-7% of the body’s total weight

151
Q

What are the three main types of blood cells?

A
  • White blood cells
  • Red blood cells
  • Platelets
152
Q

Where are blood cells produced?

A

In the bone marrow

153
Q

What is the process of formation of blood cells called?

A

hematopoiesis

154
Q

What is the basic foundation of blood?

155
Q

Red Blood Cells (RBCs) also referred to as

A

Erythrocytes

156
Q

What is the main function of RBCs?

A

To deliver oxygen to the body and remove waste products.

157
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

A complex protein designed to bind and release oxygen.

158
Q

When hemoglobin binds with oxygen it’s called?

A

Oxyhemoglobin

159
Q

Bone marrow generation of red blood cells

A

Erythropoiesis

160
Q

Which organs destroy RBCs after about 120 days?

A

Spleen and liver

161
Q

Platelets are also known as

A

thrombocytes

162
Q

Process of thrombosis

A

Blood clotting

163
Q

Normal RBC count

A

4-6 million cells per microliter

164
Q

Main funtion of RBCs

A

Transporting hemoglobin that carries oxygen from the lungs to the entire body

165
Q

Life span RBCs

166
Q

Common RBC disorder

167
Q

Normal Platelet (Thrombocyte) Count

A

150,000- 450,000 cells per microliter of blood

168
Q

Main funtion of platelets

A

Promote blood clotting to sop bleeding

169
Q

Common platelet disorder

A

Thrombocytopenia

170
Q

Normal WBC count

A

4,500- 10,000 cells

171
Q

Main function of WBCs

A

Produce an immune response and protect the body against foreign pathogens

172
Q

What is an increased WBC count an idication of ?

173
Q

Common WBC disorder?

A

Leukemia
Lymphoma

174
Q

How much of our blood volume is plasma?

A

More than 50% is plasma (92% of plasma is water)

175
Q

What does plasma consist of?

A

Water
Proteins
Nutrients
Electrolytes
Hormones
Vitamins
Enzymes
Waste products of metabolism

176
Q

3 Importan proteins in plasma

A
  • Fibrinogen
  • Albumin
  • Globulin
177
Q

Fibrinogen (Protein in Plasma)

A

Blood-clotting protein made in the liver.

178
Q

Albumin (Protein in Plasma)

A
  • Made in the liver and is the most plentiful protein in the plasma.
  • It maintains the pressure needed to pull water from tissues back into the blood vessels.
179
Q

Globulin (Protein in Plasma)

A
  • Formed both in the liver and lymphatic system.
  • Can be found as two different forms in plasma.
  • Gamma globulin helps form antibodies, and prothrombin helps blood coagulation.
180
Q

thromboplastin

A

An enzyme that works with calcium and other factors to convert prothrombin in the plasma to thrombin.

181
Q

Gamma globulin (a protein in the plasma)

A

helps form antibodies, and prothrombin helps blood coagulation.

182
Q

prothrombin (a protein in the plasma)

A

helps blood coagulation.

183
Q

Pro-Coagulant

A

Promotes coagulation

184
Q

Anti-Coagulant

A

Inhibits coagulation

185
Q

What defines a blood type ?

A

Genetic Markers
(Depends on blood protein agglutinogen or antigen on the surface of red blood cell).

186
Q

Name the four blood types:

A

A
B
AB
O
Two types of antigen: A & B.

187
Q

Name the eight bood types with RH factor:

A

Type A+
Type B+
Type AB+
Type O+
Type A-
Type B-
Type AB-
Type O-

188
Q

One of the most common causes of microcytic anemia is an…….. deficiency

189
Q

Macrocytic anemia is commonly caused by ….. and….. deficiency…

A

Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiencies

190
Q

A major risk factor associated with anticoagulants is….

191
Q

List four risk factors of developing DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)

A
  1. Atrial fibrillation (A-fib)
  2. Prosthetic heart valves
  3. Pregnancy
  4. Prolonged Immobility
192
Q

Anemia is defined as

A

Low red blood cell (RBC) or hemoglobin concentration.

193
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia (SCA)

A

Is a genetic disorder that’s caused by abnormal hemoglobin production. Abnormal hemoglobin molecules are unable to carry appropriate amounts of oxygen and also make a rigid polymer that can occlude small blood vessels.
The occlusion of blood vessels causes extreme pain, requiring hospitalization and treatment with pain relievers, such as acetaminophen (Tylenol), Ibuprofen (Advil), morphine, or fentanyl.
There’s no definitive treatment option for SCA. Patients require frequent blood transfusions and also need treatment for severe pain during an SCA

194
Q

Microcytic anemia

A
  • Characterized by the formation of tiny RBCs. - The main cause of microcytic anemia is iron deficiency and lead poisoning
195
Q

Iron deficiency

A
  • Refers to the improper intake of iron or chronic diseases leading to iron deficiency.
  • Mild forms of iron deficiency anemia can be treated by increasing the iron-rich food in your diet.
196
Q

Macrocytic anemia

A
  • Body forms very large RBCs.
  • The main cause of macrocytic anemia is a vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency.
  • This deficiency could be due to an inappropriate amount of vitamin B12 and folic acid in the diet or the result of another health condition or genetic disorder.
197
Q

ferrous

198
Q

fumarate

A

A salt or ester of fumaric acid

199
Q

Common medications for treatment of microcytic or iron deficiency anemia also include:

A

Ferrous sulfate (Feosol)
Ferrous fumarate (Ferro-Sequels)
Ferrous gluconate (Fergon)
Polysaccharide iron complex (Niferex)
Vitamin C (absorbic acid) is generally recommended, along with iron to increase its absorption from the GI tract.

200
Q

Where does Vitamin B12 occur in our diet?

A

Animal Products

201
Q

What foods do we get folic acid from?

A
  • Green vegetables
  • Meat
    -Eggs
202
Q

What disease cause folic acid deficiency?

A
  • Macrocytic Anemia
  • Alcoholism
  • Liver disease
  • Renal failure
203
Q

What chronic diseases can cause anemia?

A
  • Renal or kidney disease
  • Cancer
  • HIV
204
Q

Erythropoietin is a..

A

Hormone produced in the kidneys that stimulates RBC production.

205
Q

Hemolytic Anemia

A

Result o decreased RBC survival time due to excessive hemolysis or destruction of RBCs. Exessive destruction of RBCs releases too much bile pigment bilirubin for the liver to handle.

206
Q

Janudice

A

Yellowing of the skin, is a sign of hemolytic anemia.

207
Q

Treatment for Hemolytic anemia

A
  • Handling underlying disorders
  • Steroids
  • Immune supressants
208
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

Caused by Aplasia
(Aplaria is a bone marrow condition in which the bone marrow cells fail to develop. Body doesn’t produce enough platelets to help the blood clot or not enough leukocytes to help with infections.

209
Q

How is Aplastic Anemia treated?

A

Serious condition, treated with blood transfusion.

210
Q

Neutropenia

A

Condition in which the neutrophil count is decreased. Neutropenia is usually a side effect of medications such as chemotherapy medications, heparin, and antibiotics, but can also be the result of some genetic disorders.

211
Q

Dangerously low levels of neutrophil pose an extremely high risk of contracting various…………

A

Bacterial and fungal infections

212
Q

Treatment of neutropenia ….

A

Discontinuation of offending medications causing neutropenia.
medications called granulocyte colony stimulating factors (gCSF) available that stimulate the production of neutrophils.
Two common gCSF medications are
Filgrastim (Neupogen)
Pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)
Patients with severe neutropenia are generally treated with a course of prophylactic antibiotics.

213
Q

Leukemia

A

Disorder in which the bone marrow produces an extreme abundance of WBCs. Leukemia is a type of cancer.
It’s caused by the production of WBCs going unchecked, which can destroy other blood cells.

214
Q

Two types of leukemia:

A

Acute (sudden onset) leukemia is characterized by large numbers of undeveloped WBCs. Chronic (gradual development) leukemia has fully matured WBCs present.

215
Q

The subtypes of leukemia include:

A
  • Acute myelogenous (or myelocytic) leukemia (AML)
  • Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
  • Chronic myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (CML)
  • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
216
Q

Treatment options Leukemia

A

Leukemia is treated with a combination of chemotherapy medications. The combination depends on the type of leukemia. When the patient goes into remission, a period in which signs of disease are absent, a bone marrow transplant may be performed.

217
Q

Lymphoma

A

Caused by cancerous tumor cells developing in the lymphatic system. There are two types of lymphoma:
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

218
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (more common)

A

If a doctor doesn’t see the Reed-Sternberg cell under a microscope, the lymphoma is classified as Non-Hodgkin’s.
Treatment: chemotherapy

219
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

If a doctor sees the Reed-Sternberg cell under a microscope, the lymphoma is classified as Hodgkin’s.
Lymphoma is treated with a combination of chemotherapy medications.

220
Q

Hemophilia

A

Genetically inherited disease. It’s generally characterized by a deficiency of certain clotting factors (factor VII and factor IX), which prevents blood from clotting.

221
Q

Treatment hemophilia

A

Hemophilia is treated by infusing factors that are available as injectable medications. Hemophilic patients may lose a lot of blood, which means many patients require frequent blood transfusion.

222
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Defined as an abnormally low level of platelets in the blood. It’s a general condition that stems from an underlying disease.

223
Q

Low level of platelets can be due to:

A
  • Chronic liver disease, causing the spleen to enlarge and destroy platelets
  • Antibodies to platelets in some individuals
  • Diseases of the bone marrow, resulting in inadequate production of platelets
  • Certain medications (such as Heparin)
224
Q

Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

A

A body’s own antibodies destroy the blood platelets.

225
Q

Treatment Thrombocytopenia

A

Treating the underlying disease or discontinuing offending medications.

226
Q

Arterial Clots

A

Blood clots that occur in the arteries.

227
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

Results from the adherence of cholesterol, RBCs, plateltes, fibrin and other substances to injured arterial walls that can result in MI or stroke.

228
Q

Venous clots

A

Blood clots that occure in veins, usually deep veins within the legs.

229
Q

Venous clots = DVT

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis

230
Q

Describe DVT process

A

Venous clot (Embolus) breaks off and travels through the blood stream. Leg DVTs often travel to the lungs, causing pulmonary embolism (PE). PE is usually painful and fatal.
A clot that develops in the heart can travel to the brain causing a stroke.

231
Q

Common causes of DVT:

A
  • Trauma to the blood vessels
  • Clotting factor deficiencies
  • Prosthetic heart valves
  • Pregnancy
  • Artial fibration (afib), irregular heartbeat
  • Prolonged immobility
  • Orthopedic surgery
  • Certain cancers
  • Estrogen use
232
Q

Antiplatelet medications disrupt…

A

Platelet aggreation to help prevent clots from forming.

233
Q

Antiplatelet medications

A

Oral:
- Aspirin (Ecotrin)
- Dipyridamole (Persantine)
- Clopidogrel (Plavix)
- Ticlopidine (Ticlid)
- Prasugel (Effient)
Intravenous :
Abciximab (Reopro)
Eptifibatide (Integrilin)

234
Q

Anticoagulant medications disrupt the….

A

Clotting pathway to slow or stop the clotting process. These medications don’t:
- Require routine lab tests to adjust dosage and measure effectiveness
- Have many drug-drug interactions
- Have many drug-herbal interactions

235
Q

Disadvantage of anticoagulants:

A

Reversal agent to control bleeding may not be easily accessible.

236
Q

Heparin is used…

A

Subcutaneously to prevent DVT in high risk patients and intravenously to treat DVT and PE.
Heparin works by inactivating factor X and preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Heparin doesn’t dissolve clots. It prevents the clot from becoming bigger, and it also stops more clots from forming. Prothrombin (PT) is a lab test used to measure the outcome of heparin and adjust heparin dose.
The main side effect of heparin is bleeding and thrombocytopenia- commonly called heparin associated thrombocytopenia (HAT) or heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).

237
Q

LMWs are

A

LMWs are newer and better forms of heparin. The side effect profile is similar to heparin. LMWs are administered subcutaneously once or twice daily for the prevention and/or treatment of DVT and PE.
No routine lab monitoring is required for patients taking LMWs. These medications work by inactivating factor Xa. Examples of LMWs are enoxaparin (Lovenox) and dalteparin (Fragmin).

238
Q

Warfarin is an

A

Oral anticoagulant

239
Q

How does Warfarin work?

A

It interrupts the coagulation pathway by preventing the activation of the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X activation depends on vitamin K. It takes approximately 5 to 7 days for Warfarin to be fully effective due the long half-lives of the factors. Warfarin effectiveness as an anticoagulant is monitored by a lab test called international normalized ratio (INR). Warfarin is used as maintenance therapy to prevent DVT, PE, and stroke. One of the disadvantages of warfarin is that it interacts with many OTC and prescription medications and herbal supplements. Patients are also instructed to consistently consume a vitamin K-rich diet to avoid fluctuations in the warfarin effectiveness.

240
Q

Newer oral anticiagulants (not warfarin)

A

Dabigatran (Pradaxa), Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) Apixaban (Eliquis).

241
Q

Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI)

A

A condition in which complete obstruction of the coronary artery results in death of the heart muscle.

242
Q

Hematologic System

A

The composition, formation, and transportation of blood; also blood’s function within the body.

243
Q

Erythrocytes

A

A type of blood cell; also called red blood cells or RBCs.

244
Q

Leukocytes

A

A type of blood cell; also called white blood cell or WBCs.

245
Q

Thrombocytes

A

A type of blood cell; also called platelets.

246
Q

Plasma

A

The liquid portion of the blood

247
Q

Coagulation

A

The process of blood clotting

248
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Formation of blood cells in the bone marrow

249
Q

Anemia

A

Low levels o red blood cells in the body.

250
Q

Leukemia

A

A type of cancer that results in abnormal production of white blood cells.

251
Q

Vasoconstrictor

A

Medications or agents that cause blood vessels to constrict.

252
Q

Vasodilators

A

Medications or agents that cause blood vessels to dilate.

253
Q

Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP)

A

Blood pressure during systole or ventricle contraction; the highest exerted pressure on the arterial wall.

254
Q

Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP)

A

Blood pressure during distole or relaxation period; the lowest exerted pressure on the arterial wall.

255
Q

Coronary Arteries

A

Arteries that supply oxygen-rich blood to the heart itself.

256
Q

Ischemia

A

A lack of oxygen due to an obstruction significant enough to deprive the heart muscles of oxygen.

257
Q

Angina

A

Chest pain that’s caused by ischemia or lack of oxygen.

258
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)

A

Occurs when a rupturing of plaque results in a blood clot in the coronary arteries.

259
Q

Bradycardia

A

A heart rate slower than 60bpm

260
Q

Tachycardia

A

A heart rate faster than 100bmp

261
Q

Atria

A

The top two chambers of the heart that receive blood from other parts of the body.

262
Q

Ventricles

A

Bottom two chambers of the heart that supply purified blood to the other parts of the body; larger and thicker than the atria

263
Q

Valves

A

There are four main valves in the heart that open and close to move blood in one direction between the heart chambers.

264
Q

Cardiac Cycle

A

Cyclic flow of blood through the heart, valves, and vessels to and from the body.

265
Q

Diastole

A

Period of heart relaxation; the flow of blood is passive and only due to gravity.

266
Q

Systole

A

Period of heart contraction; the flow of blood is faster due to force of contraction.

267
Q

Arteries

A

Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.

268
Q

Veins

A

Blood vessels that carry blood to the heart.

269
Q

Stroke volume

A

Amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle of the heart per single heartbeat. Normal value is 60-80ml per beat.

270
Q

Heart rate

A

Number of heart contractions per minute; measured in beats per minute

271
Q

Cardiac output

A

Volume of blood pumped by heart per minute. Can be calculated by multiplying the stroke volume and the heart rate; normal value is 4-8 liters.

272
Q

Vessel

A

Arteries and Veins that carry to or away from the heart.

273
Q

Disrhythmias

A

Disorganized or abnormal heartbeats or irregular heartrate.

274
Q

Hypertension

A

Increased blood pressure over a certain period of time, normal BP 120/80mmHg.

275
Q

Hyperlipidemia

A

Increase in cholesterol; typically LDL (low-density lipo proteins

Body Systems and Medical Terminology 1 & 2 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions