Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Board review > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

Ventricular depolarization (ECG)

A

QRS Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common mechanism for arrhythmia

A

Re-entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common mechanism of arrest in MI

A

Ventricular fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

No p wave, irregularly, irregular rhythm (ECG)

A

Atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Saw tooth pattern (ECG)

A

Atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Progressive increase in PR interval then drop beat

A

Second degree AV block Type 1 (Wenckebach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Constant PR interval then drop beat

A

Second degree AV block type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most common cause of death worldwide

A

CVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Slight limitation of activity

A

NYHA II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Less than ordinary activity cause symptoms

A

NYHA III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Systolic pulsation on liver

A

Severe TR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Posterior calf pain on active dorsiflexion

A

Homan sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Single most important bedside measurement to estimate volume status

A

JVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Exaggerated fall in SBP>10

A

Pulsus paradoxus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pulsus paradoxus

A 
COPD
Shock
PE
Tamponade
Tension Pneumothorax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Weak and delayed pulses

A

Pulsus Parvus et Tardus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pulsus Parvus et Tardus

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sharp rise, rapid fall, collapsing pulses

A

Corrigan or Water-Hamme pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Corrigan pulse

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Double peak pulse

A

Bifid or bisferiens pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bifid pulse

A

HOCM, AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Beat to beat variability of pulse amplitude

A

Pulsus alterans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pulsus alterans

A

Severe LVF, CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Normal PMI

A

5th ICS LMCL,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fix splitting of heart sound

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Widely split heart sound

A

Right bundle branch block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Paradoxical splitting of heart sound

A

LBBB

AS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

S2 is best auscultated

A

Erb’s point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Murmur with a palpable thrill

A

Grade 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common congenital heart disease

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Increase intensity of TR murmur with inspiration

A

Carvallo’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Earliest micro change in SHCVD

A

Inc in transverse diameter of myocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common cause of secondary hypertension

A

Renal parenchymal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Most common renovascular HTN

A

Medial fibroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gold standard for the diagnosis of renovascular HTN

A

Contrast arteriography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most effective treatment for renovascular HTN

A

ACEI or ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

Adrenal adenoma/Conn Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Confirmatory test for primary hyperaldosteronism

A

IV infusion of isotonic saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Screening test for hyperaldosteronism

A

Plasma aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Screening test for Cushing syndrome

A

Dexamethasone suppression test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dexa test: low - not suppressed, high - suppressed

A

Pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Dexa test: low - not suppressed, high - not suppressed

A

Adrenal tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Primary hormone secreted by pheochromocytoma

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Manifestation of pheochromocytoma

A

Vasomotor instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most common cause of congenital HTN

A

Coarctation of the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Treatment for HTN + DM/CKD

A

ACEI, ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Treatment HTN + CAD

A

BB, ACEI, ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Treatment HTN + CVD

A

ACEI, ARB, CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

BP goal: DM, CVD, CKD

A

130/80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Symptoms of HF

A

Dyspnea

Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Signs of HF

A

Edema

Rales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

HF with depressed EF

A

Systolic HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

HF with preserved EF

A

Diastolic HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Intra-alveolar hemosiderin laden macrophages

A

Heart failure cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Most common cause of Right-sided CHF

A

Left-sided CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Right sided CHF caused by intrinsic lung disease

A

Cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Centrilobular congestion and atrophy of hepatocytes

A

Nutmeg liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Major cause of HF in Asia

A

Rheumatic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Most common cause of HF

A

CAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Most common manifestation of left-sided HF

A

Pulmonary congestion

Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Most common cause of Ischemic Heart Disease

A

Atherosclerosis of the epicardial arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Most common type of Angina

A

Stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Chest pain relieved by rest

A

Stable angina

64
Q

Episodic chest pain at rest

A

Prinzmetal angina

65
Q

Vasospasm

A

Prinzmetal angina

66
Q

Progressively increasing chest pain at rest

A

Unstable angina

67
Q

Most common cause of MI

A

Plaque rupture

68
Q

Necrosis of the full thickness of myocardium

A

Transmural infarction

69
Q

Necrosis limited to inner 1/3 or 1/2 of the ventricle

A

Subendocardial infarction

70
Q

No gross change

A

0-18h

71
Q

Vague pallor and softening

A

18-24h

72
Q

Central pallor with red border

A

7-28 days

73
Q

Coagulative necrosis

A

4-24h

74
Q

Macrophages

A

4-7 days

75
Q

Reversible injury

A

30 mins

76
Q

Early formation of fibromuscular granulation tissue

A

7-10 days

77
Q

Sudden severe substernal chest pain

A

MI

78
Q

ECG change in MI

A

ST elevation

79
Q

Cardiac marker elevated by 4-8h

A

CK-MB

80
Q

Cardiac marker elevated by 3-6h

A

Trop I & Trop T

81
Q

CKMB normalizes by

A

2-3 days

82
Q

Troponin normalizes by

A

7-10 days

83
Q

LDH peaks within

A

3-6h

84
Q

Hallmark of infective endocarditis

A

Vegetation

85
Q

Mass of platelets, fibrin, microorganism and inflammatory cells

A

Vegetation

86
Q

Prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

S. Epidermidis

87
Q

IV drug user endocarditis

A

S. Aureus

88
Q

Most common site of IE

A

Mitral

Aortic

89
Q

Sterile vegetations

A

Marantic endocarditis

90
Q

Marantic endocarditis is associated with

A

Small cell Ca of Lung

91
Q

Mitral and tricuspid valvulitis with small sterile vegetation

A

Libman-Sacks disease/Endocarditis of SLE

92
Q

Common cause of acute endocarditis

A

S. Aureus

93
Q

Common cause of subacute endocarditis

A

Strep viridans

94
Q

Most common valve affected in IV drug users

A

Tricuspid

95
Q

Cause of indolent, culture negative form of endocarditis

A

Tropheryma whipplei

96
Q

Prominent predisposing factor to develop IE in adults

A

MVP

97
Q

Most common lab finding in IE

A

Anemia

98
Q

Most common sign of IE

A

Fever

99
Q

Most common peripheral manifestation of IE

A

Petechiae

100
Q

Focal dilation of arteries weakened by infection and occlusion of vasa vasorum

A

Mycotic aneurysm

101
Q

Most sensitive diagnostic procedure for IE

A

TEE

102
Q

Duke’s criteria

A

Infective endocarditis

103
Q

Most common cause of heart transplant

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

104
Q

Most common cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

105
Q

Interstitial and endocardial fibrosis of variable degree

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

106
Q

Most common dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Idiopathic

107
Q

Second most common dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Alcoholic

108
Q

Chemo therapeutic drug associated with dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Doxurubicin

109
Q

Virus associated with cardiomyopathy

A

Coxsackie B virus

110
Q

Common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

111
Q

Gene associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

B-MHC

112
Q

Hallmark of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Systolic murmur at left sternal border

113
Q

Disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

114
Q

Hallmark of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Abnormal diastolic function

115
Q

Biatrial dilation

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

116
Q

Common cause of secondary restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Amyloidosis

117
Q

Stain to determine presence of amyloid

A

Congo red

118
Q

Prominent symptom of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Exercise intolerance

Dyspnea

119
Q

Cardioprotective agent

A

Dexazoxone

120
Q

Marked subendocardial fibrosis

A

Obliterative cardiomyopathy

121
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in adults

A

Myxoma

122
Q

Most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

Rhabdomyoma

123
Q

CHD associated with TAPVR

A

Sinus venosus

124
Q

CHD associated with Down Syndrome

A

Ostium primum

125
Q

Most common ASD

A

Ostium Secundum

126
Q

Most common congenital cardiac anomaly seen in adults

A

ASD

127
Q

Most common congenital cardiac defect

A

VSD

128
Q

Most common type of VSD

A

Membranous

129
Q

Swiss cheese septum

A

Muscular VSD

130
Q

Exertional dyspnea, chest pain, hemoptysis, right to left shunt

A

Eisenmenger Syndrome

131
Q

Functioning connection between pulmo artery and descending aorta

A

PDA

132
Q

Associated with Congenital Rubella

A

PDA

133
Q

Machinery like murmur

A

PDA

134
Q

Permanent closure of Ductus arteriosus

A

8 weeks

135
Q

Pharma closure for PDA

A

Indomethacin (prostaglandin synthase inhibitor)

Ibuprofen

136
Q

Most common cyanotic congenital anomaly

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

137
Q

Boot shaped heart

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

138
Q

Determines the degree of cyanosis in TOF

A

Pulmo stenosis

139
Q

Responsible for boot shape in TOF

A

RVH

140
Q

Cardinal features of TOF

A

Pulmo stenosis
RVH
Overriding aorta
VSD

141
Q

Treatment for Tet spells

A

Propranolol

142
Q

Most common location of coarctation of aorta

A

Near insertion of ductus arteriosus

143
Q

Associated with Turner syndrome

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

144
Q

Hypertension in upper extremities

Hypotension in lower extremities

A

Coarctation of the aorta

145
Q

3 sign

A

Coarctation on the aorta

146
Q

Snowman sign

A

TAPVR

147
Q

Notching of the 3rd and 9th ribs

A

Coarctation of the aorta

148
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for RHD

A

Penicillin

149
Q

Microbe associated with RHD

A

GABHS

150
Q

Most common cause of heart disease in children

A

RHD

151
Q

Pathognomonic for Acute Rheumatic fever

A

Aschoff bodies

Anitschkow cells

152
Q

Pathologic change in rheumatic fever

A

Rheumatic granuloma

153
Q

Most common presentation of ARF

A

Polyarthritis

Fever

154
Q

Hallmark of rheumatic carditis

A

Valvular damage

155
Q

Valve commonly affected in ARF

A

Mitral

156
Q

Atrial depolarization (ECG)

A

P wave

Board review (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions