C&M term 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Root value femoral nerve

A

L2-4

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2
Q

Root value obturator nerve

A

L2-L4

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3
Q

Root value sciatic nerve

A

L4-S3

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4
Q

Internal iliac branches

A

Sup gluteal
Obturator
Inf gluteal

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5
Q

What passes through the adductor hiatus?

A

Femoral artery and vein

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6
Q

What runs in the adductor canal?

A

Femoral artery, vein and branches of the femoral nerve

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7
Q

What does the femoral artery become after the adductor hiatus?

A

Popliteal artery

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8
Q

What branch of the popliteal artery pierces the interosseus membrane to run anteriorly?

A

Anterior tibial

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9
Q

Where do the plantar arteries arise from?

A

Posterior tibial

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10
Q

Where do the dorsalis pedis arteries arise from?

A

Anterior tibial, contribution from perforating branch of the fibular

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11
Q

Posterior thigh innervation

A

Sciatic- tibial division except BFSH is c fibular

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12
Q

Innervation plantar muscles foot

A

All lateral plantar except FDB, FHB, AbH, 1st lumbrical

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13
Q

Contents of pop foss

A
Popliteal artery and vein
Tibial nerve
Common fibular nerve
Short saphenous vein
Lymph
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14
Q

Dorsalis pedis is felt where?

A

Lateral to EHL tendon

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15
Q

PSIS what level?

A

S2 skin dimples

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16
Q

Level of bifurcation iliac arteries

A

S2

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17
Q

Appearance of T1 MRI

A

white is right (skull)

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18
Q

What is white in T2 mri?

A

Fluid

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19
Q

Bone and air are what colours in a CT?

A

Bone white air black

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20
Q

Part of thalamus of auditory pathway?

A

MGN

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21
Q

Part of thalamus of DC pathway?

A

VPL

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22
Q

Part of thalamus of sensory from head pathway?

A

VPM

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23
Q

Part of thalamus of visual pathway?

A

LGN

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24
Q

Part of thalamus of ST pathway?

A

VPL

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25
Q

Conductive deafness Rinnes test result?

A

Bone cnduction is louder

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26
Q

Sensorineural deafness rinnes test result

A

Normal

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27
Q

Conductive deafness Weber’s test result?

A

Damaged ear is loudest

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28
Q

Sensorineural deafness weber’s test result

A

Normal loudest

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29
Q

Normal hearing Rinne’s result

A

Air louder than bone

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30
Q

Normal hearing Weber’s test result

A

Same each side

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31
Q

Frequency of speech?

A

3,000 Hz

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32
Q

Lower part of the face is bilateral/ipsilateral/contralateral

A

Contralateral

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33
Q

Lateral medullary/wallenburg’s syndrome involves occlusion of which artery?

A

Post inf cerebellar

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34
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia is?

A

HTN in established spinal injury patients

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35
Q

Maculae are made of?

A

Supporting cells surrounding hair cells that are innervated by utricular and saccular sensory nerve fubres. Hair cells have tufts of cilia that penetrate gelatinous otolithic membrane of CaCO3 crystals

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36
Q

Medial vestibular nucleus sgets information from what and goes to what?

A

From SSCs to MNs of neck/body to orientate head and stabilise retinal image (VO reflex)

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37
Q

Where does the lateral vestibulat nucleus get info from and where does it go?

A

From utricle and saccule, goes to cerebellum and limb motor neurons to maintain upright body posture

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38
Q

What is Meniere’s syndrome

A

Pressure, earache, tinnitus and dizziness

Due to increased vol endolymph and rupturing of membranous labyrinth

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39
Q

What is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

CaCO3 crystals dislodged from otolith

Illusion of movement and disorientation, dizziness

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40
Q

\What is ototoxicity

A

damage to usually VC nerve from drugs/toxins

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41
Q

What do vestibular neuritis, brainstem carcinoma, infarction and haemorrhage all lead to?

A

Disrupted postural control

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42
Q

Where is a medulloblastoma, in whom does it occur and what symptoms?

A

Cerebellum, children

Postural instability as can’t use info from utricles and saccules

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43
Q

Rods features?

A

Low acuity, can see in dark, slow response, achromatic

44
Q

What is scotopic luminance?

A

Night time lighting- rods only

45
Q

What is mesopic luminance?

A

Twilight- both

46
Q

What is photopic luminance?

A

Daytime lighting- cones only

47
Q

What is an anomalous trichromat?

A

Alternative perception of colour

48
Q

What is a dichromat?

A

colour blind

49
Q

What is the name for normal vision

A

Trichromat

50
Q

What is the pigment in rod cells?

A

Rhodopsin

51
Q

Is neurotransmitter released in light or dark?

A

Dark

52
Q

3 types retinal ganglion cells

A

Magnocellular (M)
Parvocellular (P)
Non-M non-P type (K)

53
Q

What do M type ganglion cells detect?

A

Movement

54
Q

What do P type ganglion cells detect?

A

form and fine detail, colour

55
Q

What do K type ganglion cells detect?

A

Colour

56
Q

What is the most prevalent type of ganglion cell?

A

P type (90%)

57
Q

Meissner’s detects?

A

low freq vibration

58
Q

Merkel detects?

A

Small forms and shape

59
Q

Pacinian?

A

high freq vibration

60
Q

Ruffini

A

Pressure

61
Q

Which tactile receptors have a large receptive field?

A

Pacinian and Ruffini

62
Q

Posterior parietal damage =?

A

Neglect, asteroagnosia, R+L confusion

63
Q

Late pain is what type of fibre?

A

C

64
Q

First pain is?

A

Alpha delta

65
Q

Which modalities does Alpha delta fibres have

A

mechanical and thermal

66
Q

Where are nociceptor cell bodies?

A

DRG

67
Q

What do nociceptors travel up and down the spinal cord in before synapsing?

A

Zone of lissauer

68
Q

Where do nociceptors synapse?

A

Dorsal horm (superficial laminae- 1 and 2- subs gel)

69
Q

What is the neurotransmitter of nociceptors?

A

Glutamate

70
Q

In high stimuli what is released at synapses?

A

Substance P

71
Q

Where is perception of pain?

A

Thalamus

72
Q

Where does localisation of pain occur?

A

Cortex

73
Q

What is non painful stimulation fibre type?

A

Alpha beta

74
Q

What are the 4 types of pain?

A

Chronic or acute

Nociceptive or neuropathic

75
Q

Direct pathway of movement initiation involves which 4 structures

A

Cortex, striatum, GPi, thalamus (cortex again)

76
Q

Indirect pathway involves which 6 structures?

A

Cortex, striatum, GPe, subthalamus, GPi, Thalamus (cortex again)

77
Q

What is the role of substantia nigra and what does it release? where does it act?

A

Dopamine, acts on striatum

More initiation- excites direct pathway and inhibits indirect

78
Q

Hyperkinsea/chorea would be damage to what?

A

Subthalamus, or inhibitory fibres from striatum to GP

79
Q

function of the direct pathway?

A

facilitates wanted movement

80
Q

Function of indirect pathway?

A

Inhibits unwanted movement

81
Q

What lamina of the VGH do MNs synapse in?

A

9

82
Q

Muscle tone involves interaction between which two things?

A

Spindles and alpha motor neurons

83
Q

Is babinski sign U or L MN damage?

A

Upper

84
Q

2 types of spindle fibres and what type of fibres

A

Bag- 1a (dynamic)

Chain- 1a and 2 (static)

85
Q

What type of MN are spindle fibres innervated by?

A

gamma

86
Q

What MN type is responsible for tension generation

A

alpha

87
Q

Fibre type in golgi tendons

A

1b

88
Q

What do golgi and spindle detect?

A

Golgi tension

Spindle stretch

89
Q

Why do spindle need motor innervation

A

They adjust length in response to alpha

90
Q

What does the myotatic stretch reflex involve?

A

Tap muscle tendon, 1a afferent synapses with alpha motor neuron in SC, homonymous muscle contracts
Also inhibition of antagonising muscle through interneuron

91
Q

What does the inverse myotatic reflex involve?

A

Increased firing in 1b afferent
Inhibition via inhibitory neuron in SC
Alpha motor neuron- inhibition of homonymous muscle
(protective)

92
Q

What does the crossed extensor/flexor withdrawal reflex involve?

A

Increased activity in alpha delta and C afferents
Ipsilateral flexors and contralateral extensors excitred
Ipsilateral extensors and contralateral flexors inhibited

93
Q

Which reflex involves a change in muscle tension?

A

Inverse myotatic

94
Q

Vestibulocerebellum function

A

Balance, constancy of visual fields

95
Q

Spinocerebellum function

A

Posture and locomotion

96
Q

Cerebrocerebellar function

A

Fine skilled movements of hands

97
Q

What is the vestibulospinal pathway involved in? what nucleus?

A

Posture

Vestibular nucleus

98
Q

What is the reticulospinal pathway involved in? Where in brain?

A

Voluntary movement, breathing, consciousness

Brainstem reticular formation

99
Q

What is the rubrospinal pathway involved in? What nucleus?

A

Muscle tone

Red nucleus

100
Q

What runs in the spinocerebellar tract?

Is this ipsilateral or contra?

A

Proprioception and other sensory informationfrom spinal cord (from spindles and golgi) into cerebellum (knows what muscles are currently doing) via ICP into spinocerebellum
Ipsilateral

101
Q

What does the cerebrocerebellum recieve input from?

Is this ipsi or contralateral

A

What muscles are about to do- motor cortex via pontine nuclei (MCP)
-inferior olivary nucleus (ICP)
CONTRALATERAL

102
Q

What is the output of the cerebellum?

Contra or ipsi?

A
To:
Motor cortex via thalamus
Reticular nuclei
Red nucleus
This crosses the midline (but recrosses when motor fibres cross at medullary pyramids so ipsilateral overall)
103
Q

What is truncal ataxia\;

A

Inability to sit or stand without falling over
Vestibulocerebellar lesion, midline
Medulloblastoma

104
Q

What is gait ataxia?

A

Lower limbs affected- gait staggering
Spinocerebellar lesion
Alcoholics

105
Q

Cerebrocerebellar lesion =?

A
Intention tremor
Past pointing
adiadochokinesis
dysarthria
nystagmus
106
Q

what is an output out of the ICP?

A

Efferents to neck and eye lower motor neurons