Buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

Marker raised in muscular dystrophy

A

Raised CK

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2
Q

Woodt texture muscle swelling

A

Duchenne or becker MD

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3
Q

Fluctuating cognitive deficit

A

Lewy body or delirium

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4
Q

Xanthochromic lumbar punture

A

SAH

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5
Q

What is cogwheel rigidity

A

Tremor superimposed on rigidity

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6
Q

REM disturbance

A

Lewy body or PD

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7
Q

Pain on loud noise

A

Facial nerve palsy

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8
Q

Inflammatory myopathy with poor response to steroids

A

Inclusion body myositis

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9
Q

Leg symptoms (e.g. leg weakness) and midline shift

A

Falcine herniation

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10
Q

Back pain worse on coughing

A

Slipped disc

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11
Q

Headache worse on coughing

A

Pituitary fossa issue

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12
Q

Myalgia + myositis + myoglobulinaemia/uria

A

Rhabdomyolysis (can lead to DIC and acute renal failure)

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13
Q

Weakness and frontal balding and cataracts and ptosis

A

Myotonic dystrophy (onset 30s, positive family history)

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14
Q

Migraine prophylaxis

A

First line: propanolol, topiramate or amitryptiline
Second line: valproate, pizotifen, gabapentin, pregabalin

If one drug doesn’t work by 4/12 try another

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15
Q

This palsy is associated with should dystocia

A

Erbs palsy

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16
Q

+ve simmonds test

A

Achilles tendon rupture

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17
Q

High stepping gait and romberg’s positive

A

Cervical myelopathy

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18
Q

Racoon or panda eyes occur with which fracture

A

Fracture of the anterior fossa

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19
Q

Battle sign is seen in which fracture?

A

Fracture of middle cranial fossa - mastoid process of temporal bone

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20
Q

Mesocortical dopamine hypoactivity

A

Negative and cognitive symptoms in schizophrenia

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21
Q

Subcortical dopamine hyperactivity

A

Psychosis

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22
Q

What is the tuberoinfundibular pathway involved in?

A

Prolactin release

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23
Q

What is the nigrostriatal pathway responsible for?

A

Extra pyramidal movements

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24
Q

What is the mesolimbic system responsible for? (often called the mesolimbic system)

A

Motivation and reward

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25
Q

Which dopamine pathway is dysregulated in schizophrenia?

A

The mesolimbic (subcortical/mesocortical)

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26
Q

Mesolimbic dopamine blockade

A

Depression

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27
Q

Mesolimbic dopamine agonism

A

Psychosis

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28
Q

Which atypical causes the most weight gain?

A

Olanzapine

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29
Q

How often do you monitor clozapine levels?

A

Weekly for the first 6 months
Fortnightly for the next 6 months
Then every 4 weeks after that, and one month after discontinuation

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30
Q

What is the limbic system responsible for?

A
M2OVE
Motivation
Memory
Olfaction
Visceral afferents
Emotion
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31
Q

Reduced frontal lobe volume (and grey matter), enlarged lateral ventricles, reduced grey matter in the temporal cortex

A

Schizophrenia

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32
Q

Brain changes seen in schizophrenia?

A

Reduced frontal lobe volume (and grey matter), enlarged lateral ventricles, reduced grey matter in the temporal cortex.

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33
Q

What is thought blocking?

A

Abrupt and complete interruption of stream (strongly associated with schizophrenia)

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34
Q

Difference between flight of ideas and knights move thinking

A

Flight of ideas - ideas are connected
Knights move thinking - no link

Seen in bipolar during manic phase

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35
Q

Treatment for EPSE

A

Procylcidine

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36
Q

This part of the brain is involved in normal responses to threat

A

Amygdala

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37
Q

What does the pre-frontal cortex do?

A

Dampens down amygdala response to threat (fewer connections less effective)

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38
Q

What is Beck’s triad?

A

Negative feelings about self, world and future

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39
Q

Treatment of OCD

A

SSRI or clomipramine (TCA)

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40
Q

Side effect of NMDA antagonists?

A

Psychotic symptoms

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41
Q

Treatment of alcohol withdrawal

A

use chlordiazepoxide ( 30mg QDS, 25mg QDS, 20 mg QDS, 15mg QDS, 10mg QDS, 10mg TDS, 10mg BD, 10mg OD - nocte)

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42
Q

When do alcohol seizures occur?

A

48 hours

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43
Q

When does delirium tremens present?

A

48-72 hours

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44
Q

Which types of dementia would you see eosinophilic inclusions in?

A

Lewy body and PD

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45
Q

Treatment of hypertensive crisis?

A

Phentolamine infusion

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46
Q

Who do you need to avoid TCAs in?

A

Need to avoid in old people, people with suicidal intent and patients with cardiac problems

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47
Q

How does a blow-out fracture present?

A

Can’t look up and double vision

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48
Q

Tear drop or “blood level” in sinus

A

Blow out fracture

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49
Q

Failure to adduct and nystagmus in abducting eye

A

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia - issue with medial longitudinal fasciculus

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50
Q

Curtain coming down - less than 5 minutes

A

Amaurosis fugax

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51
Q

Curtain coming down (partial) longer than 5 minutes

A

Retinal detachment

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52
Q

Loss of red reflex, eye red on ophthalmoscopy

A

Haemorrhage

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53
Q

How would a pontine issue present?

A

Pinpoint pupils

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54
Q

How does a transcalcarine fracture present?

A

Dilated pupils

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55
Q

Down and out, dilated

A

Damage to CN3

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56
Q

Down and out, not dilated

A

Diabetes

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57
Q

Roth spots (retinal haemorrhages with white or pale centre)

A

Infective endocarditis

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58
Q

Scrambled egg/ yolk appearance of the macula

A

Best disease

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59
Q

USS shows snowstorm appearance, frogspawn, grape like

A

Hydatidiform mole

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60
Q

Doughy abdomen

A

Placenta accreta (insertion of placenta into myometrium post endometrial ablation) need to treat with C-section, also remember to give contraception

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61
Q

Fetal distress and loss of engagement, previous C-section or surgery

A

Uterine rupture

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62
Q

Prolapse and back pain

A

Uterine prolapse

63
Q

Breast inflammation poor response to antibiotics

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

64
Q

“Fluid level behind drum”; “retracted drum”; “Dull colour”

A

Otitis media with effusion

65
Q

Loss of corneal reflex (+ sensorineural hearing loss, vertigo and tinnitus)

A

Acoustic neuroma (vestibular schwannoma) - associated with NF2

66
Q

Where does Little’s area/Kiesselbach’s plexus arise from?

A

Branches from external carotid artery (via maxillary and facial) and internal carotid (via ophthalmic)

67
Q

ADHD triad

A

Hyperactive
Inattentive
Impulsive

68
Q

Treatment of ADHD

A

Methylphenidate or atomoxetine

69
Q

Interaction between calcium and thyroxine

A

Decreased absorption from gut

70
Q

Metabolic complication of ACEi and spironolactone

A

Hyperkalaemia

71
Q

What happens if you give digoxin and verapamil

A

Digoxin toxicity

72
Q

Treatment of Wernicke’s

A

Pabrinex

73
Q

When are triptans contraindicated?

A

Contraindicated in IHD, concurrent use of lithium, SSRI or ergot derived drugs (e.g. PD drugs - pramipexole, ropinirole)

74
Q

Erythematous bullseye lesion

A

Lyme disease

75
Q

Cauliflower appearance

A

Plantar warts, HPV

76
Q

Which virus is responsible for Kaposis sarcoma?

A

HSV8

77
Q

Translocation (8;14)

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

78
Q

Alcohol makes this cancer worse

A

Hodgkins

79
Q

What test would you do for B12 deficiency?

A

Schilling’s test

80
Q

Bence jones proteins

A

Multiple myeloma

81
Q

African kid with history of EBV and tumour is in face/jaw

A

Burkitt’s

82
Q

Gum infiltration and bilobed large mononuclear cells

A

AML

83
Q

Smudge cells

A

CLL

84
Q

Mid-diastolic murmur with a tapping undisplaced apex

A

Mitral stenosis

85
Q

Continuous machinery like murmur

A

PDA

86
Q

Crescendo decrescendo murmur

A

Aortic stenosis

87
Q

Diminished absent lower limb pulses

A

Coarctation of the aorta

88
Q

Radio-femoral delay

A

Coarctation of the aorta

89
Q

Radio-radio delay

A

Coarctation of the aorta or aortic dissection

90
Q

Stony dull to percuss

A

Pleural effusion

91
Q

Ground glass appearance on x-ray

A

Pulmonary fibrosis/RDS of newborn

92
Q

Caseous necrosis

A

TB

93
Q

Bronchiole wider than neighbouring arteriole (on CT) (signet ring sign)

A

Bronchiectasis

94
Q

D sign on x-ray

A

Empyema

95
Q

Steeple sign on x-ray

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis/croup

96
Q

Treatment of pneumocystis pneumonia

A

Co-amoxiclav (and prednisolone if severe)

97
Q

What is samter’s triad?

A

Asthma + nasal polyps + aspirin insensitivity

98
Q

Mucoid sputum

A

Chlamydia psittaci

99
Q

Rusty sputum

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia

100
Q

Morning headache

A

Hypercapnia or SE of organic nitrates or ICP etc

101
Q

Eggshell calcification at hilar region

A

Silicosis

102
Q

‘Heart-failure cells’ seen in alveolar spaces

A

Macrophages that have absorbed haemosiderin - found in chronic pulmonary oedema, and associated (severe) left-ventricular heart failure. Also, seen in long-standing pulmonary hypertension.

103
Q

What is an assmann focus?

A

Apical lesion of secondary tuberculosis infection

104
Q

Thumbprint sign on head x-ray

A

Epiglottitis

105
Q

Snowstorm appearance on chest x-ray

A

Baritosis, silicosis

106
Q

Honeycomb lung

A

Fibrosing alveolitis

107
Q

Which drugs could cause gingival hypertrophy?

A

Phenytoin, ciclosporin, CCBs

108
Q

Murphy’s sign positive

A

Cholecystitis

109
Q

Pale stools, jaundice, abdominal pain

A

Biliary obstruction

110
Q

Abdo distension, caput medusae, shifting dullness

A

Portal hypertension + ascites

111
Q

13C breath test

A

Bacterial overgrowth

112
Q

Urea breath test

A

H pylori

113
Q

AMA

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

114
Q

ASMA

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

115
Q

Corkscrew oesophagus

A

Oesophageal spasm

116
Q

Russel’s sign

A

Self-induced vomiting

117
Q

Crypt abscess/cryptitis

A

UC

118
Q

Mallory’s hyaline bodies

A

Alcoholic liver disease (acute hepatitis) and chronic active hepatitis

119
Q

Thumb-printing on X-ray commonly at splenic flexure

A

Ischaemic colitis

120
Q

“Signet RIng” cells seen on biopsy

A

Linitis plastica - diffuse stomach cancer

121
Q

Bloody diarrhoea, fragmented RBCs, undercooked hamburgers, metallic green stool cultures

A

E. coli 0157

122
Q

Red macules on body

A

Salmonella typhi

123
Q

Playing with turtles, undercooked chicken/ stale chicken

A

Salmonella enterididis

124
Q

bloody diarrhoea, haemorrhagic mucosa with ulcerations on distal colon

A

Shigella dysenteria

125
Q

Unpasteurised/raw milk, Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter

126
Q

Orphan annie nuclei

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

127
Q

Psammoma bodies

A

Papillary thyroid cancers

128
Q

Anosmia and isolated GnRH deficiency

A

Kallmann’s syndrome

129
Q

Acute management of hypocalcaemia

A

IV calcium gluconate (10ml of 10% calcium gluconate in 50% dextrose or saline)

130
Q

Brachydactyly (short bones) of the 4th metacarpal

A

Pseudohypoparathryroidism

131
Q

“Dinner fork” or “Swan’s neck” deformity in wrist

A

Displaced colles fracture

132
Q

Feels like walking on pebbles

A

advanced rheumatoid arthritis in the feet - subluxation of the metatarsophalangeal joints

133
Q

Foot drop

A

Common fibular nerve (peroneal nerve)

134
Q

Sagging rope sign

A

AVN

135
Q

Painful arc

A

Damaged supraspinatus tendon, frozen shoulder, rotator cuff impingement

136
Q

Dry eyes, mouth, vagina, bronchitis

A

Sicca syndrome

137
Q

Shortened leg and externally rotated

A

Displaced neck of femur

138
Q

Shortened leg and internally rotated

A

Dislocated femoral head

139
Q

Popcorn calcification

A

Chondrosarcoma

140
Q

Soap bubble appearance

A

Giant cell tumour

141
Q

Sunray spiculation

A

Osteosarcoma

142
Q

Hatchet like face

A

Myotonic dystrophy

143
Q

Rosary bead sign

A

Polyateritis nodosa

144
Q

Light bulb sign

A

Posterior should dislocation

145
Q

“shepherd’s crook” deformity

A

Fibrous dysplasia

146
Q

Loosers zone on x-ray

A

Pathognomic of osteomalacie, represents a pseudo fracture or incomplete stress fracture

147
Q

Sea anemone

A

Transitional cell carcinoma on cystoscopy

148
Q

UTI + Travel to India

A

Carbapenase-producing Klebsiella (Resistant to all antibiotics)

149
Q

UTI with foul smelling urine and renal calculi

A

Proteus

150
Q

Beading of the renal artery

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

151
Q

RBC casts in urine

A

Proves haematuria is glomerular

152
Q

Muddy brown casts of epithelial cels

A

Acute tubular necrosis

153
Q

“Potato” appearance

A

Testicular seminoma

154
Q

Schistosomiasis/ catheterisation

A

Squamous cell cancer