Bood and Hematopoeisis Flashcards

1
Q

What are thalaseemia syndroms

A

heritable anemias that have defect in synthesis of alpha or beta chains of normal hemoglobin tetramer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the lifespan of neutrophils?

A

In circulation: 6-7 hours In connective Tissue : 1-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of function do neutrophils have?

A

antibacterial ( phagocytic properties) inflammation (homing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why are neutrophils called neutrophils?

A

because of cytoplasmic gruanules following wright-giemsa staining -the secoundary one -very pale pink cytoplasm (close in color to erthocyte)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Eosinophil is what percent of the total leukocyte population?

A

1-5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of nucleus does an esonophil have?

A

bilobed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What distinguishing feature does an esonophil have?

A

crystalline center inside the specific granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of leukocyte is an esonophil

A

granulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is in the granular contents of an esonophil?

A

Eosinophil peroxidase Major basic protein Eosinophil cationic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Eosinophil peroxidase do ?

A

it binds to microorganisms and facilitates their killing by macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does major basic protein do?

A

predominant component of teh cyrstalline center of eosinophil granule -binds to and DISRUPTS membrane of parasites (by Fc receptor) -causes basophils to release HISTAMINE by ca dep mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does eosinophil cationic protein do?

A

neutralizes herparin with MBP causes the fragmentation of parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the body’s primary defense against parasiteS?

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the lifespan of an eosinophil?

A

5 to 8 hrs in ciruclation 8 to 12 days in homing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the function of an eosinophil

A

allergic/ hypersensitivity reactions (bronchial asthma) FIRST LINE OF DEFENSE AGAINST PARASITES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which leukocyte has IgG receptors?

A

Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What leukocyte triggers bronchial asthma?

A

Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what type of leukocyte is a basophil?

A

granulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What color are the refractile granules of an esonophil?

A

bright red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Basophils are what percent of total leukocytes ?

A

less then one percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of nuclues do basophils have?

A

bilobed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of cytoplasmic granules do basophils have?

A

metachromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is inside the cytoplasmic granules of basophils?

A

suflated or carboxylated acidiic prtoeins ie. heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How are basophils similar to mast cells?

A

they express IgG on their surface and release Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the release of histamine

A

mediates allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Basophillia

A

and increase in the number of basophils more then (150_

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is basophilia observed?

A

acute hypersensitivity reactions viral infections chronic inflammatory conditions (rhumatoid arthritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the function of basophils?

A

allergic/ hypersensitivity reactions, relase of histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The nucleus in which granulocyte is obscured by cytoplasmic granules?

A

basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which leukocytes are agranuloctyes?

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe agranuloccytes

A

have round or indented nucleus contain only lysosomal type, primary glands`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What percentage of total WBC do lymphocyts consist of ?

A

20 to 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the largest WBC?

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which are more predominant small lymphocytes or large?

A

small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where do lymphocytes orginate during fetal development?

A

yok sac liver spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where do lymphocytes originate post natal life?.

A

bone marrow thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the primary function of lymphocytes

A

immune and dfensive responses ( B & T cells ; natrual killer cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

in what size of lymphocyte are the primary granules seen in

A

in large lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the primary granules in lymphocytes?

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the three categorize of lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocytes T lymphocytes Natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where are b lymphocytes produced?

A

bone marrow`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where are t lymphocytes produced

A

produced in the bone marrow but complete maturation in the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

natural killer cell

A

less abundant class oflymphoctye (cytotoxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

lymph nodes spleen lymphoid aggregates of the Gi tract and respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of leukocyte has an indented nucleus?

A

lymphocyte

46
Q

what type of leukocyte has a kidney shaped nucleus?

A

monocyte

47
Q

What percentage of total WBC does monocytes consist of ?

A

2 to 8 percent

48
Q

What is the order of number of leukocytes seen in blood

A

neutrophil lymphocytes esonophil monocyte basophil

49
Q

What is the largest leukocyte?

A

monocyte

50
Q

How long is the lifespan of a monocyte>

A

ciruclate in blood for about 20 hrs then enter tissues to become macrophages

51
Q

Which ones are more efficient at phagocytic activities? macrophage derived monocytes neutrophils

A

macrophage derived monocytes

52
Q

what is the function of a monocyte

A

phagocytosis(osteoclast kupffer cells, microgilia)

53
Q

Platlets are derived from

A

magakaryocyte under control of thrombopoietin

54
Q

What are the four types of granules in the cytoplasm of a platelet?

A

alpha granules dense core granules lysosomes peroxisomes

55
Q

What type of nuclues do platelets have?

A

multilobed

56
Q

what is the function of platelets?

A

blood coagulation

57
Q

What is in the hyalomere of a platelet?

A

microtubules and microfilaments

58
Q

What is in the granulmere of a platelet?

A

contains granules and lysosomes

59
Q

What is gray platelet syndrome?

A

few alpha granules ..bleeding

60
Q

What do alpha granules do?

A

platelet derived growth factor _> leads to endohelial cell mottosis

61
Q

What does dense core granule do?

A

secretes serotonin which leads to vasoconstriction

62
Q

Bernard-soulier syndrome

A

macroplatlets issue with Gp1b receptor on surface of platelet

63
Q

prostacylcin

A

secreted by endothelial cells inhibitor of platelet aggregation and secretion of ADP

64
Q

Where is hematopoesis during the first trimester

A

islands of hematopoiesis in yok sac

65
Q

where is hamtopoesis during the 2nd trimester?`

A

liver and in the spleen

66
Q

where is hematopoesis during the last trimester

A

bonemarrow

67
Q

bone marrow has two compartments

A
  1. marrow stormal compartment hematopoietic cell compartment
68
Q

marrow stormal compartment

A

adipose cells fibroblast stormal cells vascular endothelial cells macrophages blood vessels PROVIDES NICHES FOR STEM CELLS

69
Q

hematopoietic cell compartment

A

highlyl vascularized

70
Q

hematopoietic cells

A

occpy sites in bone marrow called niches and have capcities for self renewel growth and fifferentiation and maturation

71
Q

mature hematopoietic cells

A

translocated from site of growth through the sinusoid wall by transendothelial migration into openings of the sinus then goes to circulation

72
Q

sinusoid wall

A

blood vessel that is a cpillary with open pores

73
Q

What empties into the central longitudinal vein

A

venous sinus

74
Q

Describe erythroid linage

A
  1. proerthroblast (derives from mature progenitor with stimulation from erthropoietin) Nucleoli are present 2.basophilic erthroblast ( intense basophilic cytoplasm (purple) which indicates presence of polyribosomes; nucleoli not usually seen MITOSIS) 3. polychromatophilic ( no nucleolus visible no cell division after this ) 4.orthochromatic erythroblast (extremely dense (pyknotic) nucleus; POSTMITOTIC) 5. reticulocyte ( anucleated cell; ink cytoplasm )
75
Q

Erthropoeitin stimulates….

A

the early stages of erthroid colony forming unit

76
Q

how can you tell the difference between mitotic and post mitotic erythoblast?

A

in the mitotic erthoblast there is euchromatic chromatin in the postmitotic erthroblast there is herterochromatin (dense)

77
Q

Describe the myeloid progeny

A

With the granulocate-macrophage cfu eosinophil cf basophil cfu

78
Q

Descrie the myeloid progeny

A

myeloblast/ promyelocyte myelocyte metamyelocyte Band form (nuclues is u shaped…mature cytoplasm)

79
Q

In which phase of the myloid process can the golgi region be distinguished

A

myelocyte and metamyelocyte

80
Q

Describe the monoblast progeny

A

monoblast (macrophage forming ) promonocyte monocyte macrophage

81
Q

Lack of oxygen (hypoxia) leads to decrease of erthrocytes stimulates the release of

A

erythropoietin from the kidney which causes the stimulation of erythroid CFU

82
Q

Which phases of the myloid progeny are mitotically dividing?

A

myeloblast promyelocytes myelocytes

83
Q

Myeloblast

A

nucleoli are present granule free

84
Q

promyelocyte

A

Nucleoli and primary granules are present

85
Q

myelocyte

A

nucleoli not present round or indented nucleus slightly identid primary granules specific granules LAST STAGE CAPABLE OF MITOTIS

86
Q

metamyelocyte

A

eccentric bean shaped nucleus has condense chromatin more specific granules then primary golgi region can be distinguished

87
Q

Band form

A

nucleus is u shpaed with rounded ends golgi region can be distinguished

88
Q

Megakaryoctyes

A
  1. serial mittoic division withouth cell division (endoreduplication) tightly packed multilobulated nuclues 2. cytoplasmic maturation (increase in the # of dense core granules, alpha granules and the network of memebrane channels and tubules known as network demarcation membrane sytem) 3. proplatelet shdeeind into sinusoids of bone marrow
89
Q

network demarcation channels

A

they are intially formed by the invagination of the plasma membrane coalese to generate proplatelets

90
Q

Thrombopoietin

A

stimulates megakaryocytes bleeding

91
Q

Erythropoietin

A

stimulates erthroid progeny helps with anemia

92
Q

Stem cell factor

A

binds to c-kit receptor ( a tyrosine kinase) on hematopoeitic stem cells

93
Q

Where is the source of growth factors

A

marrow stromal compartment cell (outside bone marrow)

94
Q
A

band forms

95
Q
A

basophil

96
Q
A

basophilic erthyoidblast

97
Q
A

eosinophil

98
Q
A

large lymphocyte

99
Q
A

monocyte

100
Q
A

myeloblast

101
Q
A

myelocyte

102
Q
A

neutrophil

103
Q
A

orthochromic ethryoblast

104
Q
A

othochromic ethryocyte

105
Q
A

polychromophillic erthoblast

106
Q
A

proerythoicyte

107
Q
A

promyelocyte

108
Q
A

reticulocyte

109
Q
A

small lymphocyte

110
Q

Hereditary Elliptocytosis

A

oval shaped RBC

defect with submembranous cytoskeleteon

curative

111
Q

Why is splenctomy curative for hereditary ellipotcytosis and spherocytosis

A

because spleen is primary site for descruction of those types of cells so removing it would fix distruction issue.