Bone Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three main types of bone cells?

A

osteoclasts
osteoblasts
osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do osteoclasts do?

A

responsible for bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do osteoblasts do?

A

responsible for bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the primary cell of mature bone?

A

osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name five factors that affect the ability to achieve peak bone mass

A
genetics 
being underweight 
sex hormones
diet 
exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name six factors that increase the rate of physiological bone loss

A
sex hormone deficiency 
body weight 
diet 
immobility 
disease 
drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what two types of drugs increase rate of physiological bone loss?

A

glucocorticoids

aromatase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is peak bone mass usually attained?

A

around 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when does age related bone loss start?

A

around 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is it called when the bone mass stays stable?

A

consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what causes a steep decline in bone mass in women?

A

menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

who has a higher bone mass throughout life - males or females?

A

males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the major determinant of bone loss in women after the menopause?

A

oestrogen deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are four common fracture sites in osteoporosis?

A

neck of femur
vertebral body
distal radius
humeral neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

name two tools that can be used to assess fracture risk in osteoporosis?

A

QFracture

FRAX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

name some non modifiable risks for osteoporotic fractures

A
age 
gender 
previous fractures 
family history 
early menopause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

name some modifiable risks for osteoporotic fractures

A
bone mineral density 
alcohol 
weight 
smoking 
inactivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

who should be assessed for osteoporosis?

A

> 50 with any risk factors

< 50 with very strong risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the very strong risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

early menopause

glucorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how should be referred for a DEXA scan?

A

patients with 10 year risk for osteoporotic fractures >10%

21
Q

what is the most common method for measuring BMD?

22
Q

what two areas are scanned in a DEXA scan?

A

L1-L4

non dominant hip

23
Q

what is the Z score in a DEXA scan?

A

their BMD compared to the peak in a young population - assesses whether loss is age appropriate

24
Q

what is the T score in a DEXA scan?

A

BMD compared to their own age group

25
what is normal on a DEXA scan?
BMD within 1SD of the young adult reference mean
26
what is osteopenia on a DEXA scan?
BMD >1SD below the young adult mean
27
what is osteoporosis on a DEXA scan?
BMD >2.5SD below the young adult mean
28
what is severe osteoporosis on a DEXA scan?
BMD >2.5SD from young adult mean alongside a fracture
29
what lifestyle advice is given for osteoporosis?
strength training low impact exercise alcohol and smoking avoidance fall prevention - OT
30
what mineral do people with osteoporosis need to eat more than average of?
calcium eat 1000mg a day
31
what is the first line drug management of osteoporosis?
calcium + vit D supplements | bisphosphonates
32
when can calcium supplements not be taken?
within 2 hours of bisphosphonates
33
how do bisphosphonates work?
anti resorptive agents - preventing bone loss
34
name two bisphosphonates
alendronate | risedronate
35
what are the complications of long term use of bisphosphonates?
osteonecrosis of the jaw oesophageal carcinoma atypical fractures
36
what are the possible second line drugs for osteoporosis?
zoledronic acid denosumab teriparatide romosozumab
37
what should be considered in patients with early menopause tor reduce fracture risk?
HRT
38
what is the pathophysiology of Paget's disease of bone?
initially normal bone resorption followed by increased bone formation = results in abnormal structure with reduced strength
39
what is it called when Paget's disease of bone affects one site?
monostotic
40
what is it called when Paget's disease of bone affects more than one site?
polyostotic
41
where does Paget's disease of bone usually affect?
long bones pelvis lumbar spine skull
42
how does Paget's disease of bone present?
bone pain deformity deafness compression neuropathies
43
what is a rare complication of Paget's disease of bone?
osteosarcoma
44
how is Paget's disease of bone diagnosed?
x-ray isotope bone scan bloods
45
what is seen on bloods in Paget's disease of bone?
raised ALP
46
how is Paget's disease of bone managed?
analgesia | bisphosphonates
47
what is osteogenesis imperfecta?
group of genetic disorder affecting bone
48
what can osteogenesis imperfecta be associated with?
blue sclerae | dentinogenesis imperfecta
49
how is osteogenesis imperfecta managed?
fracture fixation surgery for deformities bisphosphonates