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Pharmacology > Board Vitals Final > Flashcards

Board Vitals Final Flashcards

1
Q

A precursor to acetaminophen would be:

  1. Glucuronide
  2. Sulfate conjugate
  3. N-acetyl-benzoquinoneimine
  4. Acetanilide
A

Acetanilide

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2
Q

Which of the following characteristics would NOT be an advantage to have in a class of sedative-hypnotics?

  1. High margin of safety
  2. Shallow dose-response profile
  3. Well tolerated
  4. Rapid onset of action
  5. None of the above
A

None of the above

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3
Q

Which of the following regarding antihistamines in anaphylaxis is TRUE?

  1. Antihistamines inhibit anaphylactic reactions
  2. Antihistamines compete with histamine at receptor sites
  3. H1 antagonists are only indicated in some forms of anaphylaxis
  4. The rapid parenteral administration of H1 antagonists may cause precipitous hypertension
  5. H2 antagonists are clearly indicated after the onset of anaphylaxis
A
  1. Antihistamines compete with histamine at receptor sites
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4
Q

Which of the following drugs is recommended for use as prophylaxis in people who have come in close contact with individuals who have active Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) infections?

  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Ciprofloxacin
  3. Rifampin
  4. Doxycycline
  5. Azithromycin
A
  1. Rifampin
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5
Q

A 45-year-old patient requires antibiotic prophylaxis prior to extraction of a tooth in an oral surgeon’s office, but is allergic to penicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate 2ndantibiotic of choice to administer to the patient before this procedure?

  1. Amoxicillin (2g 1 hour before appointment)
  2. Clindamycin (600mg 1 hour before procedure)
  3. Ampicillin (2g IV 30 minutes before procedure)
  4. Cephalexin (2g 1 hour before procedure)
  5. Cefazolin (1g IV 30 minutes before procedure)
A
  1. Clindamycin (600mg 1 hour before procedure)
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6
Q

A 6-year-old patient with an unrepaired ventricular septal defect (VSD) will need a routine teeth cleaning in the near future. Which of the following should be done with regards to this patient prior to their dental procedure?

  1. Administer prophylactic amoxicillin
  2. Administer prophylactic penicillin G
  3. Administer prophylactic ampicillin
  4. Administer prophylactic clindamycin
  5. Prophylaxis is not necessary in this patient
A
  1. Prophylaxis is not necessary in this patient
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7
Q

All of the following drugs affect the thyroid except for which one?

  1. Levothyroxine
  2. Iodine
  3. Methimazole
  4. Thyroxine
  5. Tolbutamide
A
  1. Tolbutamide
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8
Q

Because anticancer drugs cannot tell the difference between dividing malignant or normal cells, which property of the oral cavity increases the potential for developing drug-induced toxicity?

  1. Presence of multiple species of microflora
  2. Greater flow of saliva
  3. Rapid turnover of oral mucosal cells
  4. Decreased potential for micro-traumas
A
  1. Rapid turnover of oral mucosal cells
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9
Q

A 65-year-old male patient presents for dental treatment with a history of ischemic heart disease leading to congestive heart failure. His physician has placed him on a sympatholytic medication for management of his condition. Which of the following drugs should be administered with caution or avoided in this patient?

  1. Mepivacaine 3% plain
  2. Lidocaine 2% with 1:50,000 epinephrine
  3. Lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine
  4. Mepivacaine 3% with 1:20,000 levonordefrin
A
  1. Lidocaine 2% with 1:50,000 epinephrine
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10
Q

A 6-year-old patient with an unrepaired atrial septal defect (ASD) will need a routine teeth cleaning in the near future. Which of the following should be done with regards to this patient prior to their dental procedure?

  1. Administer prophylactic amoxicillin
  2. Administer prophylactic penicillin G
  3. Administer prophylactic ampicillin
  4. Administer prophylactic clindamycin
  5. Prophylaxis is not necessary in this patient
A
  1. Prophylaxis is not necessary in this patient
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11
Q

Please select the TRUE statement from the following list regarding antihypertensive agents.

  1. Aspirin increases the antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors
  2. The use of vasoconstrictors is contraindicated in hypertensive patients
  3. NSAIDs increase the antihypertensive effect of diuretics
  4. NSAIDs often antagonize the effects of antihypertensive agents
A
  1. NSAIDs often antagonize the effects of antihypertensive agents
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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of Beta-lactam antibiotic?

  1. Penicillins
  2. Carbapenems
  3. Monobactams
  4. Carbacephems
  5. Streptogramins
A
  1. Streptogramins
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13
Q

Which of the following antibiotics will most likely have interactions with other drugs?

  1. Cephalexin (Keflex)
  2. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
  3. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
  4. Doxycline (Vibramycin)
A
  1. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
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14
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding opioid-induced hyperalgesia (OIH)?

  1. Its occurrence is rare after potent analgesic use such as remifentanil.
  2. It is mediated by endogenous mu-opioid receptors.
  3. A concurrent ketamine infusion may prevent its occurrence.
  4. It can be prevented by rapid opioid dose escalation.
  5. It should not be treated with morphine in the post-operative setting.
A
  1. A concurrent ketamine infusion may prevent its occurrence.
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15
Q

In patients with a well-documented previous history of rheumatic fever, or those with evidence of rheumatic heart disease, long-term anti-streptococcal prophylaxis is indicted for secondary prevention. How long should this prophylaxis be administered in such patients (in the context of a planned invasive dental procedure)?

  1. For the rest of the patient’s natural life
  2. For at least ten years
  3. For at least five years
  4. For at least one year
  5. For at least six months
A
  1. For at least ten years
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16
Q

All of the following are adverse effects of Loop Diuretics, except for:

  1. Rapid reduction in blood volume
  2. Magnesium depletion
  3. Potassium depletion
  4. Uric acid depletion
  5. Ototoxicity
A
  1. Uric acid depletion
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17
Q

Unused nitroglycerin tablets should be discharged how long after the bottle has been opened?

  1. 1 month
  2. 2 months
  3. 5 months
  4. 9 months
A
  1. 2 months
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18
Q

AmpC-type beta lactamases (aka Class C) would render which of the following antibiotics ineffective?

  1. Metronidazole
  2. Rifampin
  3. Tetracycline
  4. Ceftriaxone
  5. Methicillin
  6. Oxacillin
A
  1. Ceftriaxone
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19
Q

Which of the following antibiotics has a t1/2 of 0.5 hours and has rapid excretion by the kidney?

  1. Metronidazole
  2. Fluoroquinolone
  3. Penicillin G
  4. Cephalosporins
  5. Ciprofloxacin
A
  1. Penicillin G
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20
Q

Which of the following causes disulfiram-like reactions if taken with alcohol?

  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Penicillin G
  3. Ciprofloxacin
  4. Doxycycline
  5. Metronidazole
  6. Sulfamethoxazole
A
  1. Metronidazole
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21
Q

The endocrine system negotiates a careful homeostatic balance in the body. A 35-year-old female patient presents to your office with bronzing of the skin, weakness, fatigue and abnormal pigmentation of the oral mucosa. The patient had recently been diagnosed with an endocrine condition by her physician and had just begun taking corticosteroids for treatment. What is the condition?

  1. Cushing’s disease
  2. Addison’s disease
  3. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  4. Grave’s disease
A
  1. Addison’s disease
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22
Q

Which of the following is a second-generation antihistamine?

  1. Loratidine
  2. Diphenhydramine
  3. Meclizine
  4. Promethazine
  5. Hydroxyzine
A
  1. Loratidine
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23
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of local anesthetics?

  1. Local anesthetics bind to extracellular voltage-gated sodium channels
  2. Local anesthetics cross cell membranes in their cationic form
  3. Local anesthetics can interact with voltage-gated potassium channels and nicotine acetylcholine receptors
  4. Repetitive stimulation of nerves does not influence the effect of the block
  5. The ion gradient of neurons is maintained by a cyclic adenosine monophosphate dependent process
A
  1. Local anesthetics can interact with voltage-gated potassium channels and nicotine acetylcholine receptors
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24
Q

In the operating room, the dentist proceeds to place a block using local anesthetic. The patient reports metallic taste in her mouth and some dizziness. The patient then becomes unresponsive, and rhythmic tonic-clonic movements are seen. She experiences bladder incontinence. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

  1. She may progress to generalized CNS depression and coma
  2. Using lidocaine instead of ropivacaine would have decreased likelihood of CNS toxicity from local anesthetics
  3. This adverse reaction is more common with epidural injections than peripheral nerve blocks
  4. A decrease in protein binding would increase the likelihood of CNS toxicity
  5. Administering a benzodiazepine decreases the likelihood of seizures
A
  1. This adverse reaction is more common with epidural injections than peripheral nerve blocks
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25
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding tramadol’s mechanism of action?

  1. Tramadol acts at the dorsal horn spinal synapses of the nociceptive pathways
  2. Tramadol has opioidergic, monoaminergic, and NMDA- receptor activity
  3. Tramadol is responsible for 5-hydroxytryptamine (5HT) and norepinephrine accumulation in the synaptic cleft
  4. Tramadol causes inhibition of reuptake
  5. Tramadol is considered a weak opioid
A
  1. Tramadol has opioidergic, monoaminergic, and NMDA- receptor activity
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26
Q

All of the following characteristics are true regarding Metformin, except for which one?

  1. It is used to treat type 2 diabetes
  2. Should not be used with patients with kidney problems
  3. Common side effect is mostly gastrointestinal irritation
  4. Adverse effect of causing hypoglycemia
  5. Used to treat polycystic ovary syndrome
A
  1. Adverse effect of causing hypoglycemia
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27
Q

Statement 1: Antibiotic prophylaxis is not routinely indicated for most dental patients with total joint replacements.

Statement 2: Patients allergic to penicillin who need antibiotic prophylaxis should take 2 grams orally of Clindamycin 3 hours before their dental appointment. (Select the correct choice)

  1. Both statements are TRUE
  2. Both statements are FALSE
  3. The first statement is TRUE and the second is FALSE
  4. The first statement is FALSE and the second is TRUE
  5. Both statements are true but NOT RELATED
A
  1. The first statement is TRUE and the second is FALSE
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28
Q

A 22-year-old patient with an unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart defect is scheduled for a routine teeth cleaning. The patient is allergic to penicillins. Which of the following should be done with regards to this patient prior to their dental procedure?

  1. Administer oral prophylactic amoxicillin
  2. Administer intravenous prophylactic cefazolin
  3. Administer intravenous prophylactic ampicillin
  4. Administer oral prophylactic clindamycin
  5. Administer intravenous prophylactic clindamycin
  6. Prophylaxis is not necessary in this patient
A
  1. Administer oral prophylactic clindamycin
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29
Q

Which of the following salicylates contain two carbon rings in their basic structure?

  1. Acetylsalicylic acid
  2. Sodium salicylate
  3. Salsalate
  4. Methyl salicylate
A
  1. Salsalate
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30
Q

All of the following are indications for diphenhydramine EXCEPT:

  1. Sleep disturbance
  2. Acute dystonic reaction
  3. Pruritus
  4. Stress ulcer prophylaxis
  5. Allergic reactions
A
  1. Stress ulcer prophylaxis
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31
Q

Polyene antifungal agents include:

  1. Ketoconazole
  2. Amphotericin B
  3. Clotrimazole
  4. Itraconazole
  5. All of the above
A

Amphotericin B

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32
Q

Chronic inhalation of nitrous oxide gas may lead to pernicious anemia by the following mechanism:

  1. Nitrous oxide binds to vitamin B12 in the lungs and depletes the body stores
  2. Nitrous oxide blocks the action of intrinsic factor in gastric parietal cells
  3. Nitrous oxide interacts with cobalamin (vitamin B12) to oxidize and inactivate it
  4. Nitrous oxide causes the loss of vitamin B12 in the urine and stool
A
  1. Nitrous oxide interacts with cobalamin (vitamin B12) to oxidize and inactivate it
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33
Q

The blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract and its pH within both directly affect the ??? of oral administered drugs?

  1. Distribution
  2. Excretion
  3. Bioavailability
  4. Absorption
    1. a and c
    2. a, c and d
    3. c and d
    4. c only
    5. All of the above
A
  1. a, c, and d
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34
Q

Which of the following medications is associated with pseudomembranous colitis?

  1. Augmentin
  2. Penicillin
  3. Azithromycin
  4. Clindamycin
  5. Ciprofloxacin
A
  1. Clindamycin
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35
Q

Which of the following regarding histamine biochemistry is FALSE?

  1. Antihistamines act by stimulating the histamine receptor to activate inhibitory G proteins
  2. Histamine is secreted by enterochromaffin-like endocrine cells
  3. Histamine is produced by the decarboxylation of histidine
  4. Histamine receptor stimulation on parietal cells causes G protein to activate adenylate cyclase and cyclic adenosine monophosphate
  5. Histamine release is stimulated from mast cells via C5a and C3a
A
  1. Antihistamines act by stimulating the histamine receptor to activate inhibitory G proteins
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36
Q

Lidocaine is a Class 1B antiarrhythmic. Class 1B antiarrhythmics reduce automaticity at abnormal pacemakers in the His-Purkinje system and ventricular myocardium. (Select the correct choice)

  1. Both statements are true
  2. Both statements are false
  3. The first statement is true, the second is false
  4. The first statement is false, the second is true
A
  1. Both statements are true
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37
Q

Which of the following local anesthetics is a thiophene-based anesthetic?

  1. Lidocaine
  2. Articaine
  3. Mepivacaine
  4. Bupivacaine
A
  1. Articaine
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38
Q

Your 8-year-old patient comes to you and needs full mouth radiographs for a check-up. He was born with a congenital heart defect that has been repaired with a prosthetic material. He is doing very well and is very healthy. Which of the following is the best reasoning for consideration of antibiotic prophylaxis?

  1. Patient needs antibiotic prophylaxis because the radiographs may cut him and he is at risk for infective endocarditis
  2. Patient needs antibiotic prophylaxis at every appointment without regard to what is being done at the appointment due to his medical history
  3. Patient does not need antibiotic prophylaxis because his defect is repaired and he is doing well
  4. Patient does not need antibiotic prophylaxis because it has been greater than 6 months since the procedure
  5. Patient does not need antibiotic prophylaxis because although he has a condition where antibiotic prophylaxis would be indicated, the procedure is not invasive and therefore not indicated
A
  1. Patient does not need antibiotic prophylaxis because it has been greater than 6 months since the procedure
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39
Q

Which of the following will most likely be used to treat an overdose of benzodiazepines?

  1. Naloxone
  2. Flumazenil
  3. Zolpidem
  4. Zaleplon
  5. Narcan
A
  1. Flumazenil
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40
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is considered the drug of choice for genitourinary infections with Chlamydia trachomatis?

  1. Azithromycin
  2. Ciprofloxacin
  3. Ceftriaxone
  4. Rifampin
  5. Penicillin
A
  1. Azithromycin
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41
Q

All of the following medications, except one, have been shown to cause gingival enlargement. Which is that exception?

  1. Phenytoin
  2. Cyclosporine
  3. Ethambutol
  4. Nifedipine
  5. Verapamil
  6. Diltiazem
A
  1. Ethambutol
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42
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is used to treat mycobacterium infections and contraindicated with the use of antiretroviral agents?

  1. Ampicillin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Amoxicillin
  4. Rifampicin
  5. Ciprofloxacin
A
  1. Rifampicin
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43
Q

Statement 1: Penicillins work by competitively inhibiting the transpeptidase enzyme, leading to disruption of cell wall synthesis.

Statement 2: Penicillins are bacteriostatic.

(Select the correct choice)

  1. Both statements are true
  2. Both statements are false
  3. The first statement is true, the second is false
  4. The first statement is false, the second is true
A
  1. The first statement is true, the second is false
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44
Q

Which of the following medication is often used to treat an overdose of opioids?

  1. Naloxone
  2. Flumazenil
  3. Verapamil
  4. Ciprofloxacin
  5. Zolpidem
A
  1. Naloxone
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45
Q

Simvastatin is an example of a(n):

  1. Bile acid sequestrant
  2. Fibric acid derivative
  3. Nicotinic acid
  4. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
  5. Cholesterol absorption inhibitor
A
  1. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
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46
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis after dental surgical procedures is:

  1. Known to be critical for the prevention of infection
  2. Known to be ineffective in preventing infection or postoperative complications
  3. Required only for extraction of impacted wisdom teeth
  4. Required for all surgical procedures to prevent post-operative complications
A
  1. Known to be ineffective in preventing infection or postoperative complications
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47
Q

Which of the following is the best antibiotic for the treatment of primary syphilis?

  1. Rifampin
  2. Benzathine penicillin
  3. Clindamycin
  4. Doxycycline
  5. Erythromycin
A
  1. Benzathine penicillin
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48
Q

Drugs of abuse can induce: amphetamines, benzodiazepines, and narcotics. What are some indicated legal uses for amphetamines?

  1. Narcolepsy
  2. Weight loss
  3. To stay awake studying for an exam
  4. Attention deficit disorder
    1. a and c
    2. a, b, and d
    3. d only
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
A
  1. a, b, and d
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49
Q

A patient presents complaining of pain due to an abscessed tooth. You take a radiograph and examine the patient and discuss treatment options. The patient refuses treatment, but just asks for a prescription. What would be the most concerning cause of this behavior?

  1. An extremely anxious patient, requiring sedation
  2. The patient does not have the money for the treatment
  3. The patient does not care to have treatment
  4. A drug abuser seeking narcotics
A
  1. A drug abuser seeking narcotics
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50
Q

Which of the following antifungals is primarily used to treat oral Candidiasis albicans infections?

  1. Nystatin
  2. Terbinafine
  3. Amphotericin B
  4. Ketoconazole
  5. Naftifine
A
  1. Nystatin
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51
Q

A dental student was seeing a forty-year-old male patient for the first time. As he was going over the patient’s medical history, the patient informed the student that his physician had recently placed him on a new medication but he could not recall the name. This medication was to treat his high blood pressure. The patient stated he had some adverse symptoms, which included light-headedness, and gout attacks:

  1. Hydrochlorothiazide
  2. Thiazolidinediones
  3. Tolbutamide
  4. Butyrophenones
  5. Furosemide
A
  1. Hydrochlorothiazide
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52
Q

In a patient with a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection of the lungs, the best choice of antibiotic is which of the following?

  1. Piperacillin
  2. Cephalexin
  3. Ceftriaxone
  4. Daptomycin
  5. Vancomycin
A
  1. Vancomycin
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53
Q

5-Fluorouracil is used significantly in the treatment of solid cancerous tumors. It is also known as:

  1. An alkylating agent
  2. A designer antimetabolite
  3. An anti-tumor antibiotic
  4. A mitotic inhibitor
A
  1. A designer antimetabolite
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54
Q

Which of the following statements about local anesthetics is TRUE?

  1. Local anesthetics only block sensory nerves
  2. Local anesthetics only block motor nerves
  3. Local anesthetics block sensory nerves and can block motor nerves if concentration is sufficient
  4. Local anesthetics block sensory nerves mildly and block motor nerves profoundly
  5. Local anesthetics block both sensory and motor nerves profoundly
A
  1. Local anesthetics block sensory nerves and can block motor nerves if concentration is sufficient
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55
Q

Which factors do NOT influence the effects of drug administration?

  1. Body composition
  2. Age of patient
  3. Medical status
  4. Ambient temperature
  5. None of the above
A
  1. None of the above
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56
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of thiazide diuretics?

  1. Result in hypoglycemia
  2. Result in hypokalemia
  3. Increase renal elimination of sodium
  4. Increase renal elimination of chloride
  5. Increase renal elimination of potassium
A
  1. Result in hypoglycemia
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57
Q

Which of the following antibiotic medications can lead to a Clostridium difficile- associated diarrhea (pseudomembranous colitis) of the gastrointestinal system?

  1. Penicillins
  2. Tetracyclines
  3. Cephalosporins
  4. Clindamycin
  5. Metronidazole
A
  1. Clindamycin
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58
Q

A forty-year-old man walked into the dental office for the first time. As the dentist was going over his medical history, the man informed the dentist that he was recently diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes and was on a few medications. Which of the following drugs is most likely not one of the drugs his physician prescribed?

  1. Metformin
  2. Rosiglitazone
  3. Pioglitazone
  4. Acetazolamide
  5. Glipizide
A
  1. Acetazolamide
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59
Q

How soon after administration of levodopa dose should a Parkinson’s patient be scheduled for dental treatment?

  1. 3 hours
  2. 12 hours
  3. 60-90 minutes
  4. 1 day
A
  1. 60-90 minutes
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60
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding first generation antihistamine medications?

  1. They have anticholinergic effects by acting on muscarinic receptor antagonists
  2. They cross the blood brain barrier
  3. They can produce sedation, coma and seizures
  4. The dose must be weight-adjusted for children younger than 2 years of age
  5. They can reduce nausea and vomiting
A
  1. The dose must be weight-adjusted for children younger than 2 years of age
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61
Q

A 72-year-old man with past medical history of end-stage renal disease receiving dialysis is in the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) after an uneventful total knee repair six hours age that lasted for three hours. The anesthesiologist is called by the nursing staff for altered mental status. His blood pressure is 99/65 mmHg, heart rate of 54 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 7 breaths a minute, and oxygen saturation of 89% on 2 liters nasal cannula. The patient is obtunded and difficult to arouse. Chart review reveals that the patient received a remifentanil infusion totaling 2.1mg intraoperatively, and morphine 10mg orally three times for 9/10 pain in the PACU. The cause of this patient’s respiratory depression is most likely:

  1. Related to the intravenously administered intraoperative opioids
  2. Due to opioid-induced hyperalgesia
  3. Due to the slow passage of glucoronidated metabolites
  4. Opioid metabolites with higher potency than the parent drug
  5. Caused by increased context-sensitive half time of remifentanil
A
  1. Due to the slow passage of glucoronidated metabolites
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62
Q

Which of the following drugs does not have antagonist effects at the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor?

  1. Methadone
  2. Dextra-propoxyphene
  3. Ketobemidone
  4. Hydromorphone
  5. Morphine
A
  1. Hydromorphone
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63
Q

Excessive salivation may be a sign of:

  1. Digoxin toxicity
  2. Methamphetamine use
  3. Diuretic drug overdose
  4. Pathologic vomiting
A
  1. Digoxin toxicity
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64
Q

When administering local anesthetic containing the vasoconstrictor epinephrine, serious complications may be expected if the dose of epinephrine exceeds ??? and fatalities are likely to occur if the dose reaches ???.

  1. 0.5mg; 4mg
  2. 0.1mg; 4mg
  3. 0.2mg; 5mg
  4. 4mg; 10mg
A
  1. 0.5mg; 4mg
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65
Q

The body’s inflammatory response due to tissue injury is mediated by

  1. Histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes
  2. Prostaglandins, leukotrienes and salicylates
  3. Histamine, salicylates and leukotrienes
  4. Prostaglandins, salicylates and macrophage products
  5. Histamine, macrophage products and salicylates
A
  1. Histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes
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66
Q

Release of parathyroid hormone from the parathyroid gland induces:

  1. Intestinal absorption of calcium by increasing vitamin D release from the kidneys
  2. An increase in plasma phosphate concentration
  3. Decreased bone turnover via RANKL activity
  4. Kidney release of magnesium to increase bone resorption
A
  1. Intestinal absorption of calcium by increasing vitamin D release from the kidneys
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67
Q

Chemotherapy treatment for cancer is most effective in large tumor masses. This is the case because a greater proportion of tumor cells are in the stage of cell division, which allows the drug to act with more sensitivity. (Select the correct choice)

  1. The statement and the reason are both correct and related
  2. Both the statement and the reason are correct, but NOT related
  3. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
  4. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
  5. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
A
  1. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
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68
Q

A patient requires prophylactic antibiotic treatment for a dental procedure. Immediately after the procedure is done, the dental assistant realizes he forgot to administer the antibiotic treatment to the patient. How long after the procedure is performed can the prophylactic treatment still be administered?

  1. 30 minutes after the procedure
  2. 1 hour after the procedure
  3. 2 hours after the procedure
  4. 5 hours after procedure
  5. 3 days after the procedure
A
  1. 2 hours after the procedure
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69
Q

Which of the following is an antifungal medication that may cause prolonged QT intervals and is contraindicated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as Fluoxetine and Sertraline?

  1. Nystatin
  2. Terbinafine
  3. Fluconazole
  4. Flagyl
  5. Metronidazole
A
  1. Fluconazole
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70
Q

Which of the following would not be indicated in a patient with a penicillin allergy?

  1. Vancomycin
  2. Ketoconazole
  3. Clindamycin
  4. Cefaclor
  5. Erythromycin
A
  1. Cefaclor
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71
Q

All of the following about endogenous opioid peptides and their receptors are true EXCEPT:

  1. Mu-3 receptors are involved in opioid-induced immune suppression
  2. Beta-endorphins have a higher affinity for the mu-opioid receptors
  3. Dynorphin A has a higher affinity for the delta-opioid receptors
  4. Met- and leu-enkephalins have a higher affinity for the kappa-opioid receptors
  5. Delta-opioid receptors are involved in opioid-induced respiratory depression
A
  1. Delta-opioid receptors are involved in opioid-induced respiratory depression
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72
Q

Phentolamine is an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist. Phentolamine is non-selective and works on both alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors. (Select the correct choice)

  1. Both statements are true
  2. Both statements are false
  3. The first statement is true, the second is false
  4. The first statement is false, the second is true
A
  1. The first statement is false, the second is true
73
Q

For a patient in whom the prophylactic use of antibiotics is warranted, how soon before their intended procedure should the first dose of treatment be administered

  1. During the procedure
  2. Between 30 and 60 minutes prior to the procedure
  3. 24 and 48 hours prior to the procedure
  4. 5 days before the procedure
  5. 1 week before the procedure
A
  1. Between 30 and 60 minutes prior to the procedure
74
Q

Vasoconstrictors in local anesthetics constrict the vessels in surrounding tissues and thereby help control perfusion of the local anesthetic into those tissues. Several reasons this is important are:

  1. Decreased blood flow to the tissue site
  2. Increased flow to the local anesthetic into the blood stream
  3. Minimizing risk of toxicity from local anesthetic
  4. Decreased bleeding at administration site
    1. a, b, c
    2. a and d
    3. a, c, d
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
A
  1. a, c, d
75
Q

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of drug metabolism?

  1. Oxidation
  2. Reduction
  3. Hydrolysis
  4. Dehalogenation
    1. a and c
    2. a, b, c
    3. d only
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
A
  1. None of the above
76
Q

Left ventricular dysfunction over time ultimately leads to a condition known as congestive heart failure. Which of the following drugs is NOT a known treatment for this condition?

  1. Digoxin
  2. Spironolactone
  3. Furosemide
  4. Captopril
  5. Morphine
A
  1. Morphine
77
Q

Penicillin V is preferred over penicillin G because penicillin V is:

  1. Given intramuscularly
  2. Less allergenic
  3. More stable in acidic conditions
  4. Less cross-hypersensitivity with cephalosporins
  5. None of the above
A
  1. More stable in acidic conditions
78
Q

Which of the following medications is NOT considered a critical drug for use in emergency situations?

  1. Diazepam
  2. Epinephrine
  3. Nitroglycerin
  4. Glucose
  5. Aspirin
A
  1. Diazepam
79
Q

Which of the following penicillin-derived medications is considered the most effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

  1. Ampicillin
  2. Amoxicillin
  3. Carbenicillin
  4. Penicillin G
  5. Dicloxacillin
A
  1. Carbenicillin
80
Q

Penicillins may cause anaphylactic (allergic) reactions. All of the following may be a symptom of an anaphylactic reaction, EXCEPT:

  1. High blood pressure
  2. Urticaria
  3. Rash
  4. Bronchospasm
  5. None of the above
A
  1. High blood pressure
81
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is resistant to gastric acid?

  1. Penicillin G
  2. Penicillin V
  3. Procaine penicillin
  4. Carbenicillin
  5. Benzylpenicillin
A
  1. Penicillin V
82
Q

Which of the following represents the mechanism of action of isoniazid?

  1. Inhibition of cAMP synthesis
  2. Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
  3. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  4. Inhibition of topoisomerase II
  5. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
A
  1. Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
83
Q

A patient with a long-standing history of glucocorticoid treatment presents for routine dental care. Which of the following complications would you NOT expect in such a patient during the course of treatment?

  1. Decreased resistance to infection
  2. Acute adrenal insufficiency
  3. Suppression of pituitary-adrenal function
  4. Poor wound healing
A
  1. Acute adrenal insufficiency
84
Q

Adrenergic receptors in the nervous system fall into three categories. These are:

  1. Nicotinic
  2. Muscarinic
  3. alpha1 and alpha2
  4. beta
    1. a, b, d
    2. b, c, d
    3. a, b, c
    4. c and d
    5. None of the above
A
  1. c and d
85
Q

What is the primary rationale for adding vasoconstrictors to local anesthetics?

  1. Reduce bleeding
  2. Reduce systemic toxicity
  3. Increase heart rate
  4. Increase blood pressure
  5. Increase duration of effect
A
  1. Increase duration of effect
86
Q

Which of the following classes of drugs is NOT known to cause gingival enlargement?

  1. Calcium channel blockers
  2. Beta-blockers
  3. Anticonvulsants
  4. Immunosuppressants
A
  1. Beta-blockers
87
Q

All of the following are common uses of antihistamines EXCEPT?

  1. Motion sickness
  2. Anticholinergic crisis
  3. Sleeping disturbance
  4. Nausea and vomiting
  5. Serotonin syndrome
A
  1. Anticholinergic crisis
88
Q

Statement 1: Parkinson’s disease is an acute progressive wasting disease of the central nervous system.

Statement 2: Treatment for Parkinson’s includes using drugs such as levodopa in conjunction with carbidopa.

Select the correct choice.

  1. Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is false
  3. Statement 1 is false; statement 2 is correct
  4. Both statements are false
A
  1. Statement 1 is false; statement 2 is correct
89
Q

Which of the following procedures justifies the use of prophylactic antibiotics to prevent endocarditis in a patient with a heart condition?

  1. Colonoscopy
  2. Bronchoscopy
  3. Placement of orthodontic braces
  4. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
  5. Extraction of impacted third molars
A
  1. Extraction of impacted third molars
90
Q

Which of the following medications is a short acting agent that is contraindicated in individuals with acute narrow angle glaucoma?

  1. Midazolam
  2. Verapamil
  3. Naloxone
  4. Captopril
  5. Flumazenil
A
  1. Midazolam
91
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is known to have about a 10% cross-hypersensitivity with penicillin allergic patients?

  1. Clindamycin
  2. Cephalosporin
  3. Vancomycin
  4. Azithromycin
  5. Erythromycin
A
  1. Cephalosporin
92
Q

Which of the following antibiotics require blood level-monitoring to avoid toxicity?

  1. Nalidixic acid
  2. Rifampin
  3. Gentamicin
  4. Metronidazole
  5. Erythromycin
A
  1. Gentamicin
93
Q

A 32-year-old patient with Ebstein’s anomaly must take prophylactic antibiotics prior to a dental procedure, however, he has a history of dysphagic. Which of the following is the best course of prophylactic treatment in this patient?

  1. Oral amoxicillin
  2. Intravenous ampicillin
  3. Intravenous clindamycin
  4. Intravenous azithromycin
  5. Intravenous cefalexin
A
  1. Intravenous ampicillin
94
Q

Acetylsalicylic acid has several desirable properties. Please choose four of these properties from the following list.

  1. Anti-psychotic
  2. Analgesic
  3. Anti-inflammatory
  4. Anti-oxidant
  5. Anti-pyretic
  6. Anti-platelet
  7. Anti-histamine
A
  1. Analgesic
  2. Anti-inflammatory
  3. Anti-pyretic
  4. Anti-platelet
95
Q

Which of the following drugs an individual is taking will the patient experience gastrointestinal problems and gingival hyperplasia?

  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Dilantin
  3. Acetaminophen
  4. Penicillin
  5. Azithromycin
A
  1. Dilantin
96
Q

If a patient is taking citalopram as one of his medications to treat his depression, which of the following should the patient avoid consuming with the medication together?

  1. Tryptophan
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Augmentin
  4. Verapamil
  5. Midazolam
A
  1. Tryptophan
97
Q

Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of Rickettsia rickettsii infection?

  1. Doxycycline
  2. Oxacillin
  3. Erythromycin
  4. Rifampin
  5. Clindamycin
A
  1. Doxycyline
98
Q

This drug is an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 enzymes and causes gastrointestinal problems as well as torsades de pointes. Which of the following drugs most likely fits with the description?

  1. Erythromycin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Nystatin
  4. Diazepam
  5. Augmentin
A
  1. Erythromycin
99
Q

Many diabetic patients are at risk of hypoglycemic events due to their medication or insulin use. What are the signs and symptoms of mild hypoglycemia?

  1. Periodontal inflammation
  2. Unconsciousness
  3. Weakness, tachycardia
  4. Incoherence, belligerence
A
  1. Weakness, tachycardia
100
Q

Several combination analgesics are prescribed in dental clinics. Particularly, Tylenol 3 has ben prescribed for pain management after surgical procedures. Which component of Tylenol 3 is considered an adjuvant to analgesia?

  1. Acetaminophen
  2. Codeine
  3. Caffeine
  4. Ibuprofen
A
  1. Caffeine
101
Q

The basic mechanism of action of opioid analgesics is:

  1. By initiating a descending cascade of pain inhibition
  2. By binding to opioid receptors in the CNS and PNS
  3. By directly inhibiting the pain signals from the tissue site of injury
  4. By inhibiting the ascending pain stimuli signals
    1. a, b, c
    2. a and b only
    3. a, b, d
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
A
  1. a and b only
102
Q

For therapeutic use in patients with moderate to severe xerostomia, which of the following classes of drugs would be most beneficial?

  1. Muscarinic receptor antagonists
  2. Nicotinic receptor antagonists
  3. Adrenergic receptor agonists
  4. Muscarinic receptor agonists
A
  1. Muscarinic receptor agonists
103
Q

Which of the following regarding histamine action is FALSE?

  1. Histamine undergoes primarily hepatic transformation
  2. Histamine triggers smooth muscle constriction via endothelium-derived relaxing factor, nitric oxide
  3. Histamine acts of H1, H2, H3 receptors
  4. When injected subcutaneously, histamine produces a tissue edema from increased capillary permeability
  5. Histamine binds to H2 receptors, resulting in gastric secretion
A
  1. Histamine undergoes primarily hepatic transformation
104
Q

Which of the following macrolides have the most significant adverse effects?

  1. Azithromycin
  2. Dirithromycin
  3. Clarithromycin
  4. Erythromycin
  5. Clindamycin
A
  1. Erythromycin
105
Q

All of the following are considered aminoglycosides, EXCEPT:

  1. Gentamicin
  2. Neomycin
  3. Tobramycin
  4. Azithromycin
  5. Amikacin
A
  1. Azithromycin
106
Q

An agonist for which of the following receptors is responsible for bronchial vessel dilation?

  1. Alpha-1
  2. Alpha-2
  3. Beta-1
  4. Beta-2
  5. None of the above
A
  1. Beta-2
107
Q

Procaine is one of the only local anesthetics that are classified as an ester. The other category of local anesthetics is ???, and several examples are ???.

  1. Amide; articaine, tetracaine, prilocaine
  2. Alkene; lidocaine, prilocaine, and mepivacaine
  3. Amide; lidocaine, tetracaine and mepivacaine
  4. Amide; articaine, bupivacaine, etidocaine
  5. Alkene; lidocaine, tetracaine and mepivacaine
A
  1. Amide; articaine, bupivacaine, etidocaine
108
Q

Which of the following regarding allergic reactions to local anesthetics are TRUE?

  1. Type I hypersensitivity reactions to local anesthetics most often present with delayed pruritus, papules, dermal erythema, or papules.
  2. Local anesthetic allergic reactions are more likely in ropivacaine than procaine.
  3. Amide local anesthetics are more likely to cause allergic reactions than ester local anesthetics due to the breakdown product of amide local anesthetics, para-aminobenzoic acid.
  4. Skin pricks, intradermal injections, or subcutaneous testing dose challenges are recommended for patients with suspected local anesthetic allergic reactions.
  5. Preservatives in local anesthetics never contribute to allergic reactions.
A
  1. Skin pricks, intradermal injections, or subcutaneous testing dose challenges are recommended for patients with suspected local anesthetic allergic reactions.
109
Q

The following list contains four consequences of chronic alcoholism on the body and drug metabolism. Please select these four items.

  1. Decreased effectiveness of local anesthetic
  2. Deficiency of liver function
  3. Increased likelihood of polycythemia
  4. Delayed healing response time
  5. Decreased risk of liver cancer
  6. Increased likelihood of bleeding after extraction
A
  1. Decreased effectiveness of local anesthetic
  2. Deficiency of liver function
  3. Delayed healing response time
  4. Increased likelihood of bleeding after extraction
110
Q

A 44-year-old male with a history of severe, persistent asthma presents with white patches on his tongue and inside his mouth. Which medication is responsible for his presentation?

  1. Overuse of an albuterol inhaler
  2. Theophylline
  3. Salmeterol inhaler
  4. Beclomethasone inhaler
  5. Omalizumab
A
  1. Beclomethasone inhaler
111
Q

Which of the following regarding epidural opioid administrations is TRUE?

  1. Lipophilic opioids tend to penetrate the tissues at a slower rate.
  2. Hydrophilic opioids achieve higher concentrations in the spinal cord than hydrophobic opioids.
  3. Hydrophobic opioids are cleared from the spinal fluid at a slower rate.
  4. Lipophilic opioids may cause an early onset respiratory depression.
  5. Morphine tends to cause early ventilatory depression.
A
  1. Lipophilic opioids may cause an early onset respiratory depression.
112
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cytochrome P450 3A4 inducers?

  1. St. John’s Wort
  2. Rifampicin
  3. Carbamazepine
  4. Grapefruit juice
  5. Phenobarbital
A
  1. Grapefruit juice
113
Q

Which of the following antihypertensives is known to cause gingival hyperplasia in patients?

  1. Calcium channel blockers
  2. Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers
  3. ACE inhibitors
  4. ATII receptor antagonists
  5. Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers
A
  1. Calcium channel blockers
114
Q

Which of the following antibiotics will alter the effectiveness of oral contraceptive pills and Coumadin if combined together?

  1. Augmentin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Amoxicillin
  4. Penicillin
  5. Erythromycin
A
  1. Erythromycin
115
Q

An 18-year-old with Tetralogy of Fallot must visit the dentist to remove two impacted lower third molars in the near future. Which of the following should be done with regards to this patient prior to their dental procedure?

  1. Administer prophylactic amoxicillin
  2. Administer prophylactic cefazolin
  3. Administer prophylactic ampicillin
  4. Administer prophylactic clindamycin
  5. Prophylaxis is not necessary in this patient
A
  1. Administer prophylactic amoxicillin
116
Q

A fifty-five-year-old man was seen in the dental office for the first time. When asked questions about his medical history, the patient informed the dentist that he was recently diagnosed with pulmonary edema and was placed on a new drug. He states that he has had increased urination and noticed that his hearing was affected as well. Which of the following drugs is the patient most likely taking?

  1. Furosemide
  2. Metolazone
  3. Spironolactone
  4. Triamterene
  5. Mannitol
A
  1. Furosemide
117
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of the antifungal agent, amphotericin B?

  1. Inhibits mitosis
  2. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis
  3. Inhibits glucan synthesis
  4. Combines with ergosterol to form membrane pores
  5. None of the above
A
  1. Combines with ergosterol to form membrane pores
118
Q

All of the following factors are inhibited by warfarin (Coumadin), EXCEPT:

  1. Factor II
  2. Factor VII
  3. Factor VIII
  4. Factor IX
  5. Factor X
A
  1. Factor VIII
119
Q

In a patient with an upper respiratory tract infection who is also allergic to penicillin, the most appropriate drug to administer would be which of the following?

  1. Trimethoprim
  2. Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
  3. Fusidic acid
  4. Cefuroxime
  5. Clarithromycin
A
  1. Clarithromycin
120
Q

Nifedipine is an L-type calcium channel blocker used to treat patients with cardiac problems and hypertension. Which of the following should NOT be used with this medication?

  1. Citrus products
  2. Acetaminophen
  3. Verapamil
  4. Grapefruit juice
  5. Vicodin
A
  1. Grapefruit juice
121
Q

Which channels are blocked in order to cause anesthesia when local anesthetics are used?

  1. Potassium
  2. Sodium
  3. Chloride
  4. Hydrogen
  5. Calcium
A
  1. Sodium
122
Q

Which of the following drugs taken may cause adverse effects such as a prolonged QT interval, jaundice and gastrointestinal problems?

  1. Clarithromycin
  2. Chloral hydrate
  3. Clindamycin
  4. Diazepam
  5. Augmentin
A
  1. Clarithromycin
123
Q

What is the mechanism of action of spironolactone?

  1. Decreases Na+ and Cl- cotransport
  2. Decreases Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransport
  3. Decreases Na+ reabsorption by blocking Na+ channels
  4. Blocks aldosterone receptor
  5. None of the above
A
  1. Blocks aldosterone receptor
124
Q

An 18-year-old male presents with pain in his upper right quadrant. After examination and treatment planning, it is decided to extract his upper right second molar. Just before administration of anesthetic, the patient says he has an allergy to the freezing. After asking the patient what reaction he has had, and if he knew the name of the drug he was previously given, the patient says he had diagnosed methemoglobinemia. Which local anesthetic is the most potent induces or methemoglobinemia, and should therefore be avoided?

  1. Lidocaine
  2. Etidocaine
  3. Novocaine
  4. Prilocaine
A
  1. Prilocaine
125
Q

All of the following are antituberculosis drugs (first-line) EXCEPT:

  1. Clindamycin
  2. Isoniazid
  3. Rifabutin
  4. Rifampin
  5. Ethambutol
A
  1. Clindamycin
126
Q

Which of the following is the elimination half-life of adenosine?

  1. <10 seconds
  2. 0.2 hours
  3. 1.5-2 hours
  4. 4-10 hours
  5. 12-27 hours
A
  1. <10 seconds
127
Q

The rapid turnover of cells in the mouth predisposes the oral cavity to increased drug-induced toxicity in patients undergoing treatment with:

  1. Monoclonal antibodies
  2. Glucocorticoids
  3. Antineoplastic agents
  4. Polyclonal antibody preparations
A
  1. Antineoplastic agents
128
Q

In a pregnant patient who has a Streptococcus pneumoniae infection and is allergic to penicillin, the drug of choice would be which of the following?

  1. Azithromycin
  2. Metronidazole
  3. Cephalexin
  4. Doxycycline
  5. Levofloxacin
A
  1. Azithromycin
129
Q

Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker used to treat both hypertension and Raynaud’s phenomenon that is also associated with gingival hyperplasia?

  1. Sildenafil
  2. Losartan
  3. Nifedipine
  4. Celecoxib
A
  1. Nifedipine
130
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

  1. The peak plasma level of local anesthetics for any given site of injection is directly proportional to the drug concentration.
  2. The rate of systemic absorption of local anesthetics is greater in epidural blocks than brachial plexus blocks.
  3. The peak plasma level of local anesthetics for any given site of injection is directly proportional to the dose of local anesthetics.
  4. More potent, lipid soluble agents are generally associated with a slower rate of absorption compared to less potent, less lipid soluble agents.
  5. The rate of systemic absorption of local anesthetics is greater in intercostal blocks than femoral blocks.
A
  1. The peak plasma level of local anesthetics for any given site of injection is directly proportional to the drug concentration.
131
Q

A patient is being treated for Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection and begins to lose visual acuity, and, strangely, complains about no longer being able to see the color green. Which one of the antimycobacterial agents is likely causing these symptoms?

  1. Isoniazid
  2. Pyrazinamide
  3. Rifampin
  4. Ethambutol
  5. Pyridoxal phosphate
A
  1. Ethambutol
132
Q

A female patient presents for extraction with an unremarkable medical history. She has reported to be taking NO medications. You perform the extraction and observe prolonged bleeding, that has become difficult to manage. Which of the following herbal products could be responsible if taken in large quantities?

  1. Astralagus
  2. Kava-kava
  3. Garlic
  4. St. John’s Wort
A
  1. Garlic
133
Q

Drug synergism involves:

  1. A pairing of two or more drugs to produce a lesser effect than each drug alone
  2. A pairing of two or more drugs to produce a greater effect than each drug alone
  3. A drug accumulating in the body over time to increase its concentration
  4. A drug using the kidneys to produce an effect greater than it could in vitro
  5. The production of active metabolites within the liver
A
  1. A pairing of two or more drugs to produce a greater effect than each drug alone
134
Q

All of the following additives prolong local anesthetic activity EXCEPT:

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Alkalinization of local anesthetic solution
  3. Opioids
  4. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists
  5. Steroids
A
  1. Alkalinization of local anesthetic solution
135
Q

A dentist may be the first health practitioner to suspect hypothyroidism in a young patient is which of the following signs are seen?

  1. Delayed eruption of the teeth
  2. Moist and warm skin
  3. Weight loss
  4. Profuse sweating
A
  1. Delayed eruption of the teeth
136
Q

All of the drugs listed are loop diuretics except for which of the following?

  1. Furosemide
  2. Ethacrynic acid
  3. Bumetanide
  4. Torsemide
  5. Spironolactone
A
  1. Spironolactone
137
Q

Syncope is:

  1. A temporary loss of consciousness due to insufficient blood flow to the brain
  2. A prolonged loss of consciousness due to increased perfusion to the brain
  3. A temporary loss of consciousness due to inadequate blood flow leading to coma
  4. A temporary loss of consciousness due to increased perfusion to the brain
  5. A prolonged loss of consciousness due to inadequate blood flow leading to coma
A
  1. A temporary loss of consciousness due to insufficient blood flow to the brain
138
Q

Which of the following drugs when used with alcohol will cause a disulfiram-like reaction?

  1. Fluconazole
  2. Metronidazole
  3. Midazolam
  4. Naloxone
  5. Flumazenil
A
  1. Metronidazole
139
Q

Upon administering epinephrine intravenously, one would expect a decrease in systolic pressure and heart rate. This occurs because epinephrine induces contraction of vascular smooth muscle and vasoconstriction. (Select the correct choice)

  1. The statement and the reason are both correct and related.
  2. Both the statement and the reason are correct, but NOT related.
  3. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
  4. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
  5. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
A
  1. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
140
Q

Which of the following regarding stress ulcer prophylaxis with H2 antihistamines is FALSE?

  1. Famotidine and cimetidine are examples of antihistamines that act on the proton pumps of parietal cells to decrease gastric acid secretion
  2. H2 antihistamines have been shown to reduce stress bleeding from gastric ulcers
  3. Indications for gastric ulcer prophylaxis include patients with respiratory failure who have been mechanically ventilated for over 48 hours
  4. Caution must be used in using antihistamines in elderly patients
  5. Stress ulcer prophylaxis with H2 antihistamines can benefit patients with coagulopathy
A
  1. Famotidine and cimetidine are examples of antihistamines that act on the proton pumps of parietal cells to decrease gastric acid secretion
141
Q

For a patient taking warfarin, which drug(s) should not be given concurrently?

  1. Ketoprofen
  2. Tylenol 3
  3. Acetaminophen
  4. Meperidine
A
  1. Ketoprofen
142
Q

All of the following regarding second generation antihistamines is true EXCEPT:

  1. They are used to treat seasonal allergic rhinitis
  2. They are used to treat chronic idiopathic urticaria
  3. Their side effects include headache, fatigue and sedation
  4. Azelastine is a second-generation antihistamine
  5. Compared to first generation antihistamines, second generation antihistamines are not associated with anticholinergic side effects
A
  1. Their side effects include headache, fatigue and sedation
143
Q

Which of the following drugs is known for causing skin photosensitivity and staining of teeth if the mother took this medication during pregnancy?

  1. Nystatin
  2. Penicillin
  3. Tetracycline
  4. Celebrex
  5. Diazepam
A
  1. Tetracycline
144
Q

High doses of carbenicillin can cause which of the following?

  1. Hypokalemia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Headaches
  4. Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
  5. Liver failure
A
  1. Hypokalemia
145
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of action of digoxin?

  1. Inhibits angiotensin II (ATII) formation
  2. Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase and indirectly increases intracellular calcium
  3. Inhibits NaCl cotransport
  4. Inhibits Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransport
  5. None of the above
A
  1. Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase and indirectly increases intracellular calcium
146
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is known to cause tooth staining in patients?

  1. Tetracycline
  2. Erythromycin
  3. Penicillin
  4. Vancomycin
  5. Clindamycin
A
  1. Tetracycline
147
Q

Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic drug that is used to treat Type 2 diabetes. This drug is also effective in treating polycystic ovary diseases.

  1. Both statements are true.
  2. Both statements are false.
  3. The first statement is true, the second is false.
  4. The first statement is false, the second is true.
A
  1. Both statements are true.
148
Q

Which of the following medications is an L-type calcium channel blocker that will cause gingival hyperplasia and light headedness as adverse effects?

  1. Amlodipine
  2. Norvasc
  3. Verapamil
  4. Celebrex
  5. Tetracycline
A
  1. Verapamil
149
Q

All of the following statements about antibiotic administration when oral infection is present are true EXCEPT:

  1. Prompt removal of the offending tooth/teeth in the presence of infection is to be encouraged.
  2. A common misconception is that all infections, by definition require antibiotic administration.
  3. Patients who have decreased host resistance, such as chemotherapy patients, may require vigorous antibiotic therapy for minor infections
  4. A patient presenting with diffuse cellulitis is not indicated for antibiotic administration
  5. A patient who has a temperature higher than 101 degrees F is indicated for therapeutic use of antibiotics.
A
  1. A patient presenting with diffuse cellulitis is not indicated for antibiotic administration
150
Q

Which of the following drugs will a patient be given to treat acute mountain sickness?

  1. Amiloride
  2. Triamterene
  3. Acetazolamide
  4. Furosemide
  5. Spironolactone
A
  1. Acetazolamide
151
Q

A 68-year-old female patient presents for full mouth extractions. This patient has been placed on anticoagulant medication for a heart condition. At what INR level would you deem it safest to proceed with treatment?

  1. 4.0
  2. 3.5
  3. 3.0
  4. 2.5
A
  1. 2.5
152
Q

Which of the following cephalosporins are useful for odontogenic infections?

  1. Methicillin (Staphcillin) and Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
  2. Cefaclor (Distraclor) and Cefdinir (Omnicef)
  3. Cephalexin (Keflex) and Cefadroxil (Duricef)
  4. Cefditoren (Spectracef) and Cefproxil (Cefzil)
  5. Clarithromycin (Biaxin) and Erythryomycin (Erythocin)
A
  1. Cephalexin (Keflex) and Cefadroxil (Duricef)
153
Q

Which of the following represents the mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

  1. Inactivation of DNA gyrase
  2. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase
  3. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
  4. Inactivation of cyclooxygenase
  5. Inhibition of bacterial transpeptidases
A
  1. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
154
Q

Which type of seizure is classified as a partial seizure?

  1. Jacksonian
  2. Myoclonic
  3. Atonic
  4. Absence
A
  1. Jacksonian
155
Q

Which of the following drugs has a generally low toxicity level but leads to staining of developing teeth if given to children or to pregnant or lactating women?

  1. Erythromycin
  2. Doxycycline
  3. Clindamycin
  4. Vancomycin
  5. Isoniazid
A
  1. Doxycycline
156
Q

Histamine is typically stored within mast cells or basophils in the body. A small number of other sites store histamine as well, including:

  1. The liver
  2. The hypothalamus
  3. The pancreas
  4. The adrenal cortex
A
  1. The hypothalamus
157
Q

Acetaminophen overdose reaches toxicity at levels approximating ??? and primarily affects the organ system of the ???.

  1. 2 grams; liver
  2. 20 grams; kidney
  3. 2 grams; gastrointestinal tract
  4. 20 grams; liver
  5. 20 grams; lungs
A
  1. 20 grams; liver
158
Q

Rituximab is a(n):

  1. Monoclonal antibody
  2. Proteasome inhibitor
  3. Histone deacetylase inhibitor
  4. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
A
  1. Monoclonal antibody
159
Q

Which of the following is NOT a condition for which the therapeutic use of corticosteroids is indicated?

  1. Psoriasis
  2. Lupus erythematous
  3. Crohn’s disease
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis
  5. Hashimoto’s
A
  1. Hashimoto’s
160
Q

Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat against anaerobic bacterial species but will cause xerostomia and a metallic taste in an individual’s mouth?

  1. Metronidazole
  2. Penicillin
  3. Erythromycin
  4. Ciprofloxacin
  5. Tetracycline
A
  1. Metonidazole
161
Q

Which of the following drugs is most likely to result in decreased metabolism of opioids that undergo hepatic metabolism?

  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Phenytoin
  3. St. John’s Wort
  4. Rifampicin
  5. Diltiazem
A
  1. Ditiazem
162
Q

Which of the following regarding buprenorphine is FALSE?

  1. It is a partial agonist regarding pain relief.
  2. It is considered a mixed agonist-antagonist.
  3. It can cause respiratory depression.
  4. It is a partial agonist at the mu-opioid receptors.
  5. It is a full agonist at the nociception/orphanin FQ receptor and delta-receptors.
A
  1. It is a partial agonist regarding pain relief.
163
Q

All of the following drugs are associated with gingival enlargement intraorally except for which one?

  1. Nifedipine
  2. Verapamil
  3. Dilantin
  4. Ethosuximide
  5. Cephalexin
A
  1. Cephalexin
164
Q

Which of the following is FALSE?

  1. Myotoxicity can be seen in muscle biopsies as hypercontracted myofibrils as lysis of striated muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum
  2. Bupivacaine is less likely to produce myotoxicity compared to tetracaine.
  3. Myotoxicity from local anesthetics is dose-dependent.
  4. Most myotoxic injuries are reversible.
  5. Myotoxic injuries may be the result of local-anesthetic induced disturbances in the oxidative function of mitochondria.
A
  1. Bupivacaine is less likely to produce myotoxicity compared to tetracaine.
165
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for the prevention of infective endocarditis, EXCEPT:

  1. All patients undergoing an invasive dental procedure must take prophylactic antibiotics.
  2. Only patients with heart conditions at the highest risk for infective endocarditis should take prophylactic antibiotics.
  3. Patients with a history of infective endocarditis should take prophylactic antibiotics.
  4. Patients with an unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart defects should take prophylactic antibiotics.
  5. Patients with prosthetic cardiac valves should take prophylactic antibiotics.
A
  1. All patients undergoing an invasive dental procedure must take prophylactic antibiotics.
166
Q

One of your diabetic patients came into her appointment in the afternoon. She stated she did not have time for a lunch break and rushed to the dentist to avoid being late. She informs you she feels fine and had taken her medication and would like to proceed with her treatment. Which of the following drugs will most likely have a risk of causing hypoglycemia?

  1. Glipizide
  2. Metformin
  3. Acarbose
  4. Miglitol
  5. Pioglitazone
A
  1. Glipizide
167
Q

Which of the following piperidine opioid is NOT metabolized in the liver?

  1. Fentanyl
  2. Alfentanil
  3. Sufentanil
  4. Remifentanil
  5. All of the above are metabolized by the liver
A
  1. Remifentanil
168
Q

When administering antimuscarinic medication, which of the following functions is the first to wane, even at low doses?

  1. Loss of parasympathetic control of bladder and GI smooth muscle
  2. Mydriasis, cycloplegia, tachycardia
  3. Lower secretion of saliva, sweat and bronchial exudate
  4. Inhibition of gastric secretion
A
  1. Lower secretion of saliva, sweat and bronchial exudate
169
Q

All of the following are contraindications to the use of antihistamines EXCEPT:

  1. Hypersensitivity
  2. Acute asthma
  3. Serotonin syndrome
  4. Premature infants
  5. Breastfeeding
A
  1. Serotonin syndrome
170
Q

The long-acting barbiturate phenobarbital acts in the ???, and is mainly excreted by the ???.

  1. CNS; large intestine
  2. PNS; sudoriferous glands
  3. CNS; kidneys
  4. CNS; liver
  5. CNS; small intestine
A
  1. CNS; kidneys
171
Q

Statement 1: Coumarin compounds are related to a group of anticoagulants known as indanediones.

Statement 2: The mechanism by which these compounds act is by the competitive inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase.

Select the correct choice.

  1. Statements 1 and 2 and both correct
  2. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is false
  3. Statement 1 is false; statement 2 is correct
  4. Both statements are false
A
  1. Statements 1 and 2 and both correct
172
Q

Which of the following is NOT a class of endogenous opioids?

  1. Alkaloids
  2. Endomorphins
  3. Endorphins
  4. Enkephalins
  5. Dynorphins
A
  1. Alkaloids
173
Q

Which of the following regarding opioid pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics is FALSE?

  1. The context-sensitive half-time of fentanyl is relatively independent of the duration of infusion due to its rapid clearance.
  2. Respiratory alkalosis can potentiate the effects of morphine.
  3. One mechanism of termination of action of lipophilic opioids’ loss of analgesic effect is due to redistribution.
  4. Remifentanil has a relatively low volume of distribution.
  5. Drugs with high protein binding have a lower volume of distribution.
A
  1. The context-sensitive half-time of fentanyl is relatively independent of the duration of infusion due to its rapid clearance.
174
Q

Which of the following antiviral medications would be most effective to treat recurrent herpes labialis?

  1. Rimantadine
  2. Interferon
  3. Penciclovir
  4. Ribavirin
A
  1. Penciclovir
175
Q

The major site of action for opioid drugs in the central nervous system is:

  1. The limbic system
  2. The reticular formation
  3. The basal ganglia
  4. The deep cortex
A
  1. The deep cortex
176
Q

If a urethral swab is cultured and reveals Gram-negative diplococci, treatment with which of the following would be most appropriate?

  1. Azithromycin
  2. Amoxicillin
  3. Clindamycin
  4. Ceftriaxone
  5. Sulfamethoxazole
A
  1. Ceftriaxone
177
Q

All of the following can be considered outpatient antibiotics of choice for odontogenic infections, EXCEPT:

  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Clindamycin
  3. Azithromycin
  4. Ampicillin + sulbactam
  5. Moxifloxacin
A
  1. Ampicillin + sulbactam
178
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding local anesthetic induced cardiovascular toxicity?

  1. The systemic local anesthetic dose required for cardiovascular toxicity is greater than the systemic dose required for CNS toxicity.
  2. Cardiovascular toxicity would have been less likely if this patient had received lidocaine instead of bupivacaine.
  3. Cardiovascular toxicity would have been more likely if this patient had received ropivacaine instead of bupivacaine.
  4. Accidental intravascular local anesthetic administration can result in cardiovascular collapse due to a dose-dependent block of sodium channels.
  5. Prolongation of the PR interval and duration of the QRS complex are signs of local anesthetic cardiovascular toxicity.
A
  1. Cardiovascular toxicity would have been more likely if this patient had received ropivacaine instead of bupivacaine.

Pharmacology (18 decks)

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