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CLS > Blood Bank - Week 1 (Ag/Ab, Antiglobulin, ABO) > Flashcards

Blood Bank - Week 1 (Ag/Ab, Antiglobulin, ABO) Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of the IgG antibody allows it to cross the placenta?

A

Fc (crystallizable region)

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2
Q

Naturally occuring Abs

A

Antibodies against antigens in nature that are very similar to antigens on RBC’s

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3
Q

Which are the expected antibodies in blood?

A

Anti-A and anti-B

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4
Q

Which antibody can have levels that fall below the detectable level?

A

Kidd’s

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5
Q

What is the method used for in-vivo sensitization detection?

A

DAT (direct antiglobulin test)

Take blood sample, incubate with antibodies to human IgG and C3, look for agglutination

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6
Q

What is the method used for in-vitro sensitization detection?

A

IAT (indirect antiglobulin test)

Take patient serum, add RBC’s with known antigens, incubate with antibodies to human IgG, look for agglutination

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7
Q

What factors influence Ag/Ab reactions?

A

Centrifugation, Ag-Ab ratio, pH, temp

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8
Q

What is in polyspecific AHG (antihuman globulin reagent)?

A

Antibodies against IgG and C3d (complement)

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9
Q

What is in monospecific AHG (antihuman globulin reagent?

A

Only antibodies against IgG

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10
Q

Why do we incubate RBC’s with antisera?

A

To allow time for the antibody to attach to the RBC antigen

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11
Q

Why do we perform at least 3 saline washes?

A

Remove free globulin molecule

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12
Q

Why do we add antiglobulin reagent?

A

To form visual RBC agglutinates in positive reactions

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13
Q

Why do we centrifuge?

A

Brings cells closer together so they can agglutinate if positive

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14
Q

Why do we add antibody-coated RBC’s to negative reactions?

A

To confirm washing and reagents worked correctly

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15
Q

What do we do for sample with Rouleaux (too much protein in blood)?

A

Wash sample to remove protein

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16
Q

If you have a positive DAT (in-vivo) what will your auto control (patient plasma and cells) be?

A

Positive

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17
Q

A1 reacts with:

A

Anti-A and anti-A1, agglutinates with lectin

18
Q

A2 reacts with:

A

Anti-A only, increased reactivity with anti-H lectin

19
Q

What could cause you to suspect a patient is A2?

A

If the forward type is weaker A and the reverse is O (Anti-B and some anti-A1)

20
Q

What is the sugar of the A antigen?

A

N-acetylgalactosamine

21
Q

What is the sugar of the B antigen

A

D-galactose

22
Q

What blood can be given to Bombay patients?

A

Other Bombay blood

23
Q

What blood can be given to A2 blood?

A

A2 or O

24
Q

Rank blood types from greatest amount of H substance to least amount of H substance

A

O > A2 > B > A2B > A1 > A1B

25
Q

Why do we add clear solutions first and cells second?

A

Once you add cells it can be hard to see if you added clear solutions, so add them first to be sure

26
Q

What health conditions could cause ABO reverse discrepancies?

A

Depressed antibody production (elderly, hypogammaglobulinemia, immunodeficiency, etc)

27
Q

What health conditions could cause ABO forward discrepancies?

A

Weakly reacting/missing antigens (“acquired B” phenomenon, leukemia, Hodgkin’s disease, etc)

28
Q

What is “acquired B” phenomenon?

A

Bacterial enzymes modify A sugar into sugar similar to B (acidify to see if it is true B)

29
Q

What could cause discrepancie between forward and reverse?

A

Protein/plasma abnormalities (treat by washing), cold reactive antibodies, warm autoantibodies, etc

30
Q

Rank Rh antigens from greatest immunogenicity to least

A

D > c > E > C > e

31
Q

Weiner terminology of DCe

A

R1

32
Q

Weiner terminology of DcE

A

R2

33
Q

Weiner terminology of Dce

A

R0

34
Q

Weiner terminology of DCE

A

Rz

35
Q

Weiner terminology of dce

A

r

36
Q

Weiner terminology of dCe

A

r’

37
Q

Weiner terminology of dcE

A

r”

38
Q

Weiner terminology of dCE

A

ry

39
Q

Room temp IS antibodies

A

M, N, P1, Le(a), Le(b), Lu(a)

Not clinically significant, IgM

40
Q

37C incubation antibodies

A

D, E, K

IgG, clinically significant

41
Q

Antiglobulin (AHG) phase antibodies

A

Rh, K, Duffy, Kidd, S, s, Lu(b)

IgG, clinically significant

CLS (15 decks)

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