Biopsychology A2 and A1 Flashcards

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1
Q

How do animal behaviors relate to the complexity of their brain structures?

A

The more complex and adaptive an animal’s behaviors are, the more complex the brain structures.

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2
Q

What two important structures does the inferior lobe involve?

A

The inferior lobe has the pituitary gland inside it and the pituitary gland outside it.

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3
Q

What does the olfactory lobe control?

A

It controls sense of smell. Animals with a hypersensitive perception of smell like sharks) will have a very large olfactory lobe.

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4
Q

Why did dogs develop larger cerebral hemispheres than sheep?

A

As the cerebral hemispheres contain the structures related to sight and spatial awareness, so dogs require a larger cerebrum, as they need better vision and spatial awareness to hunt.

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5
Q

What system in the brain is associated with emotion?

A

The Limbic System.

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6
Q

Who was F___z g__l? What did he theorize about skull shape and personality traits?

A

Franz Gall— Founded Phenology in 1796. He divided the brain into 27 theoretical “organs”, of which we shared 19 with other animals (think of 2319!! from monsters inc, but 27 as that’s …..the right number). He suggested that personality traits could be felt as bumps on the skull above those corresponding brain areas.

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7
Q

Who was M___e-J__n-P____e Fl__r_ns?

A

He specialised in animal lesion studies (dissecting brains). He found, through cutting the brains of pigeons and rabbits, that different brain areas control different major functions.

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8
Q

What does localised function mean?

A

The theorising of how specific areas of the brain are associated with specific cognitive processes.

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9
Q

What is the function of the motor cortex? Whereabouts in the brain is it located?

A

It is responsible for the generation of voluntary motor movements, specifically conscious physical movements It is located in the cerebrum, just above the stomatosensory cortex

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10
Q

What is the function of the visual cortex? Whereabouts in the brain is it located?

A

It receives and relays visual signals like colour and movement from the optic nerve, that receives the signals from the retina, giving us visual perception. It is found at the back of the brain, within the occipital lobe.

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11
Q

What is the function of Broca’s Area? Whereabouts in the brain is it located?

A

It is one of the centres responsible for language production. It combines signals from multiple other regions of the brain to create speech. It is located in the LEFT cerebral hemisphere

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12
Q

What is the function of Wernicke’s Area? Whereabouts in the brain is it located?

A

The centre within the brain responsible for understanding language. It allows us to interpret and progress physical and verbal communication. It is also found only in the left cerebral hemisphere.

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13
Q

What is the function of the stomatosensory cortex? Whereabouts in the brain is it located?

A

It synthesizes information from peripheral neurons to create physical sensations. It is located just below the motor cortex

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14
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland? Whereabouts in the brain is it located?

A

It produces and regulates the release of melatonin, which could suggest its importance to sleeping patterns. It is pea-sized and located in a ventricle between the two cerebral hemispheres.

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15
Q

What is the Dorsal Stream?

A

It is part of the two-stream explanation for visual processing and hearing. It suggests the “stream” of neurotransmitters from the primary visual cortex to the occipital lobe and finally to the frontal lobe. (Through the structures near the top of the brain). It theoretically dictates location, movement and spatial reactions).

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16
Q

What is the Ventral Stream?

A

It is part of the two-stream explanation for visual processing and hearing. it’s pathway stretches from the primary visual cortex to the temporal lobe (through the structures more oriented towards the bottom of the brain). It helps process form, colour, size, texture and other pictorial details.

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17
Q

What are the ventricles?

A

Small openings in the brain that allow for the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid

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18
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

The connective tissue that joins the two cerebral hemispheres. It is imperative for the interaction between sight and speech.

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19
Q

What is one evaluation supporting localised function involving research support?

A

The evidence from many case studies supports localised function, for example split brain lasseration and stroke sufferers with damaged Broca’s area being unable to speak coherently.

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20
Q

What is one evaluation supporting localised function involving neurology?

A

EVidence of localised areas for specific functions have been shown by using fMRI scans to track brain activity in diffrent areas when doing specific tasks.

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21
Q

What is one evaluation supporting localised function involving evolutionary benefit?

A

These localised can help us explain how we have evolved and are therefore more equipped with these specific localised areas (e.g. larger temporal lobes than monkeys to allow for rational thinking and co-operation)

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22
Q

What is one evaluation criticising localised function that regards gender difference?

A

There are gender differences in neural structures, with many of the earlier case studies researching localised function being exclusively tested on men (reduces internal validity)

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23
Q

What is one evaluation criticising localised function that regarding age difference?

A

DIfferent age brains also have different neural structure. When we are young, for instance, we have a dense and very branched network of axons, especially when we are toddlers, but these then become denser and more specialised, though the axons/neuron connections become stronger.

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24
Q

What is one evaluation criticising localised function that regards neuroplasticity/reductionism?

A

Due to neuroplasticity, the brain structures can change, so localisation should usually be considered with uncertainty.

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25
Q

What is the mnemonic that you use to remember the 7 principles of evaluation in biopsychology?

A

RED PAGE

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26
Q

What does RED PAGE stand for?

A

R- Reductionist E-Evolutionary Benefits D- Determinism P- Practical Applications A- Age differences G- Gender Differences E- External Validity/Research Support

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27
Q

What does contralateral organisation mean?

A

Functional areas of the brain that are localised in both hemispheres will always connect to the opposite side of the body.

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28
Q

How come the case studies involving split-brain patients came about?

A

Lateralisation of the corpus callosum was used to attempt to treat “incurable” epilepsy that was unresponsive to drug treatment. This was an attempt to halt electrical impulses between the two hemispheres that could have caused seizures. Nowadays, the operation is still used, but only a small lesion is made.

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29
Q

What (very briefly) was the method of S____y and G_________’s study?

A

Sperry and Gazzaniga– They studied split-brain patients by sending visual information to one hemisphere at a time. The patients were either asked to give a response using their right arm, left arm or verbally.

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30
Q

What were the findings of S____y and G_________’s study?

A

Sperry and Gazzaniga - Information can only be processed in the sphere it is exposed to - If the information was shown to the left field, meaning the information would be processed in the right hemisphere, they would not be able to verbally confirm seeing it, as there is no language centre in the right hemisphere. - If a dog was shown in the left field/eye, only the right hemisphere would see the dog and vice versa.

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31
Q

What were the two IVs and two DVs in S____y and G_________’s?

A

Sperry and Gazzaniga IV1- Stimulus presented to right hand side IV2- Stimulus presented to left hand side DV1- Accuracy reacting to stimulus shown in gesticulation DV2- Accuracy reacting to stimulus shown verbally

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32
Q

What are three factors of Sperry and G’s study that could suggest a lack of population/external validity?

A
  • Sperry only studied right-handed patients, and patients having different dominant hands can suggest that different cerebral hemispheres are more dominant in dictating their function. - Brain structures can change over time due to neuroplasticity - Age can affect brain structure, and sperry only studied adults, as older individuals tend to have less lateralised/ more closely knitted hemispheres
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33
Q

Was Sperry and G’s study cost beneficial?

A

Though some argued that it could be considered unethical (partly due to lack of confidentiality for brain damaged individuals who didn’t know they had these disabilities- meaning these studies actually revealed the extent of the effect the lateralisation had caused for them. However, it was a natural study, which benefited our understanding of epilepsy, which could suggest his contributions outweigh the controversy/ethical issues proposed.

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34
Q

When do new neuronal connections form?

A

When we experience new things. Hence why so many new neuronal connections are formed during childhood.

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35
Q

How are axons and the myelin sheath related to us becoming more functional as we grow up?

A

New axons form from the myelin sheath. As we experience more when growing up, we at first create more axon connections, but our axon connections then tend to become thicker and fewer. This is because the connections related to functions we repeatedly use and repeat develop layers and layers of axons around them, while other less used axons/neural pathways are used less, so the axon branches aren’s as heavily built up.This helps us get better at these specific functions.

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36
Q

At what age does our neuronal growth peak?

A

5-6

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37
Q

How does the theory of neuronal growth relate to critial period?

A

The evidence that neuronal growth peaks at ages 5-6 could support the critical period suggested in Bowlby’s theory of maternal deprivation/monotropy, and help him extend the critical theory from 6 months. It supports the idea that this period is very important for development and can be integral in determining our later emotional stability/dependency, due to the changing structures of our brain possibly involving the structures localised for emotion.

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38
Q

What are the two types of plasticity?

A

Structural Plasticity- When the brain structure changes due to growth Functional Plasticity- When localised functions move from a damaged to an undamaged region after the area originally controlling the function being damaged.

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39
Q

What is pruning?

A

The process in which axons that aren’t used weaken and are eventually lost.

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40
Q

What does NGF do?

A

NGF, standing for Neural Growth Factor encourages the growth of new neurons.

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41
Q

How are neurotrophins used in synaptic growth?

A

They sustain and encourage axon sprouting.

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42
Q

How is pruning different in an individual with multiple sclerosis?

A

The process in which axons are weakened and eventually lost occurs, but the lack of myelin sheath means that these axons are not replaced.

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43
Q

How can FMRIs be used to help us study the brain?

A

The FMRI scan can be used to measure when specific brain areas are stimulated, by detecting blood flow to that area. This suggests that when performing specific tasks, certain neurons/areas related to that function will require more energy, so therefore blood will go to the neuron associated with the action.

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44
Q

How do fMRIs use magnets?

A

Deoxygenated haemoglobin (haemoglobin in respiring tissues) has a different magnetic field to oxygenated blood. Therefore, when a different magnetic field is shown around a specific neuronal area when an action is occurring, we can infer that the blood/oxygen is mostly being concentrated towards that area.

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45
Q

What is the temporal resolution of FMRI scans?

A

The Image that is shown shows the change in magnetic 1-4 seconds after the activity is shown.

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46
Q

What is the spatial resolution of FMRI scans?

A

1-2 millimetres

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47
Q

What are EEG machines?

A

EEG machines measures activity in the brain using adhesive stickers on the scalp. It detects the different waves of activity in consciousness (based off readings of the amplitude and frequency etc).

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48
Q

What are the different waves of activity in consciousness (in the three following orders) - Highest frequency to lowest frequency - Highest amplitude to lowest amplitude - Level of alertness (most alert first) that it is related to

A

Gamma Rays, Beta Waves, Alpha Waves, Theta Waves, Delta Waves Delta Waves, Theta Waves, Alpha Waves Beta Waves, Gamma Waves Gamma Rays (Problem solving and learning), Beta Waves (awake and aroused) , Alpha Waves (awake and relaxed), Theta Waves (light sleep/deep meditation), Delta Waves (deep sleep)

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49
Q

How can we use EEGs to study the brain in Event-Related Potentials?

A

A Patient will repeat an action many times, and the EEGs will record the activity waves (via detecting where here is the highest frequency/amplitude). We then record the varying activity of the brain at bassline readings (without the stimulating activity). We can then recognise the change in activity in any specific areas when the activity is completed.

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50
Q

What is one drawback of using ERPS and EEGS to study the brain?

A

The change in activity and activity being performed are not necessarily cause and effect variables, the can be effected by many other things. ERPs give correlational data only, making them easily determinist.

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51
Q

What is one practical drawback of using ERPS and EEGS to study the brain?

A

The activity must be repeated a very large number of times to ensure there are no anomolous readings in the activity, as well as having to do the bassline activity reading, so this form of study can be very time consuming and expensive (in some cases could make us question whether it is cost benificial)

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52
Q

What is one good practical application of ERPs, that could help us argue that it IS cost effective?

A

ERPs have been used to detect sleep disorders, epilepsy and alzheimers.

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53
Q

What is the latency of a sensory ERP

A

within 100 milliseconds (i.e. an ERP response is measured within 100 milliseconds of the stimulation/activity)

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54
Q

What is the latency of a cognitive ERP

A

The EEG will show response to the stimulus AFTER 100 milliseconds.

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55
Q

What is one strength EEGs have over fMRIs

A

FMRIs have a much slower temporal resolution (they can not scan activity as quickly)

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56
Q

What are three examples of circadian rhythms that affect our sleep cycle?

A

How our body clock reacts to light, body temperature and blood pressure.

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57
Q

What is the most important brain area in the process of light waking us up?

A

The suprachiosmotic nucleus

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58
Q

What is the chain of events when we see blue light in the morning?

A

LIght is percieved by the photoreceptor cells in the retiana, this is then processed along the optic nerve, which is then taken to the hypothalamous, where the light intensity/colour is processed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus. This blue, bright light then triggers the pituitary gland, which releases cortisol, resulting in arousal and us becoming “awake”.

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59
Q

What is the chain of events when we see red light at night time?

A

LIght is percieved by the photoreceptor cells in the retiana, this is then processed along the optic nerve, which is then taken to the hypothalamous, where the light intensity/colour is processed by the suprachiasmatic nucleus. The faint red light triggers the pineal gland, resulting in melatonin release, resulting in us being sent to sleep.

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60
Q

What does the lateral geniculative nucleus do?

A

It desides whether images are horizontal or verticle before it reaches the occipital lobe, so gives us spatial awareness and the ability to orient ourselves.

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61
Q

How does our cycle of body temperature relate to our sleep-wake cycle?

A

Core body temperature is one of the best indicators of circadian rhythm, It is at it’s lowest at about 4:30 am and at it’s highest at about 6pm. During the normal circadian rhythm, sleep occurs when the body temperature begins to drop and body temperature begins to rise during the last hours of sleep, promoting a feeling of alertness.

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62
Q

How does our cycle of blood pressure relate to our sleep-wake cycle?

A

We have our highest blood pressure usually at 6:00pm, after which our blood pressure gradually decreases and is very low as we sleep. However, when we wake up, usually around 6:30, we have our sharpest blood pressure surge, causing us to wake up and become more alert.

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63
Q

How did Hughes research support the idea of light effecting our circadian rhythms?

A

In 1973, Hughes tested the circadian rhythms of the British antarctic station. Hughes found that they had changed cycles of cortisol release, due to them being exposed to near constant darkness in the winter months, with their peak cortisol being at noon rather than at sunrise.

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64
Q

What is the scientific name for social and external cues that affect our circadian rhythms?

A

exogenous zietgabers- these are often just our rhythms and daily routines (i.e. drinking a cup of tea before bed)

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65
Q

How can circadian rhythms be applied to psychopathology?

A

People with ASD often have trouble with melatonin production and regulating sleep. Therefore, we can try and manipulate their circadian rhythms using lights (commonly called wake-up lights) that emulate the blue light of day or red light of night, and can therefore regulate their hormones enough to help them sleep.

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66
Q

How have circadian rhythms been applied to pharmacology?

A

They have been used to develop chronotherapeutics. These are drugs that have a coating that takes a specific amount of time to dissolve, so the drug will be administered at a specific time relating to circadian rhythms. (For example, if a drug needs to be administered when blood pressure is at it’s lowest, the pill would be taken before bed and dissolve to be released whilst the person is asleep).

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67
Q

How have circadian rhythms been benificially applied to healthcare?

A

It has lead to restrictions on the number of night shifts healthcare workers can do, due to the risks circadian rhythms have revealed to be associated with prolongued sleep disruption.

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68
Q

What are 5 side effects of prolongued sleep disruption?

A

Reduced Concentration, Heart Attack, Depression, depression, stroke, and premature aging due to oxidative stress (all can be related to an excess/extended exposure to cortisol)

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69
Q

How can cortisol cause heart attacks?

A

Cortisol can cause heart attacks by a process called atheroschlerosis. This is when cortisol causes someone to have constant high blood pressure, this creates atheroschlerotic scabs in the heart/veins, which can break off and cause sudden blockages, resulting in heart attack.

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70
Q

What is one drawback of the theory of circadian rhythms (relating to the “red” of “red page”

A

The idea of circadian rhythms is hard to generalise to many people, as it ignores individual differences. Researchers, such as Czeicher et.al. have found that circadian cycles can vary from 13-65 hours. This suggests circadian rhythms are machine/biologically reductionist.

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71
Q

What did Duffy et. Al. discover relating to circadian rhythms?

A

Duffy suggested that individuals have different circadian rhythms, which helps us to understand why some of us “early larks” prefer to rise and go to bed early, and others prefer to rise and go to sleep later.

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72
Q

What is an ultradian rhythm?

A

Cycles that last less than 24 hours, such as the cycle of sleep stages that occur throughout the night.

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73
Q

what is an Infradian rhythm?

A

Rhythms that have a duration of over 24 hours, can be weekly, monthly or annually.

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74
Q

What are the five stages of sleep?

A
  • Stage 1- light sleep with slowed muscular activity - Stage 2- breathing pattern, body temperature and heart rate slows -Stage 3- Deep sleep begins as the brain generates delta waves. -Stage 4- Very deep sleep- delta waves- limited muscle movement Stage 5- REM sleep- rapid+shallow breathing with dreams.
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75
Q

How many of the five stages of sleep are Non Rapid Eye Movement?

A

4 stages, Non Rapid Eye Movement Takes up 75% of our sleep.

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76
Q

What percentage of the 90 minute sleep cycle is stage 1?

A

4-5%

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77
Q

What percentage of the 90 minute sleep cycle is stage 2?

A

45-55%

78
Q

What percentage of the 90 minute sleep cycle is stage 3?

A

4-6%

79
Q

What percentage of the 90 minute sleep cycle is stage 4?

A

12-15%

80
Q

What percentage of the 90 minute sleep cycle is stage 5?

A

20-25%

81
Q

what is the choroid plexus?

A

The centre where cerebrospinal fluid is produced.

82
Q

What radio waves relate to Stage 1 and stage 2 of sleep?

A

Theta

83
Q

What radio waves relate to Stage 3 and stage 4 of sleep?

A

Delta

84
Q

when is centrospinal fluid circulation levels at its highest?

A

during sleep

85
Q

when is cerebrospinal fluid circulation levels at its highest?

A

during sleep

86
Q

What is the Ultradian Rhythm of cerebrospinal fluid circulation?

A

every 90 minutes, the cerebrospinal fluid and the glymphatic system flush out your brain and body of blockages and toxins. This allows for new growth.

87
Q

How can the glymphatic system effect people with Alzheimers?

A

Waste products and blockages, such as beta amyloids, can build up in the brain with age/over time. If the glymphatic system loses some of it’s function, these waste products are not flushed out, eventually causing cell death and loss of function due to these excess blockages.

88
Q

What is one common waste product that builds up in the brain?

A

Beta Amyloids

89
Q

What is one example of an Infradian Rhythm?

A

The menstrual cycle- can affect appetite, skin complexion, water retention and anxiety due to a surge of progesterone between days 14 and 28, just before/after a large surge of estrogen between day 7 and 14.

90
Q

What are the symptoms of winter seasonal affective disorder

A

Overeating, unexplained weight gain, sleeping more than usual, low mood, lack of motivation- basically all the symptoms associated with depression.

91
Q

What is winter-specific seasonal affective disorder caused by?

A

In terms of the SAD in general, it is caused by a hypersensitivity to light- for winter SAD, it is caused by a lack of blue/bright light causing a lack of cortisol and too many parasympathetic functions creating symptoms similar to depression.

92
Q

What is summer-specific seasonal affective disorder caused by?

A

In terms of the SAD in general, it is caused by a hypersensitivity to light- for summer SAD, it involves constant brightness and extended exposure to light causing high cortisol levels, that create symptoms similar to anxiety disorders.

93
Q

What are the symptoms of summer seasonal affective disorder?

A

undereating, sudden weight loss, fractiousness, sudden mood swings, trouble sleeping, high anxiety and excess sympathetic responses.

94
Q

Name one pathological disorder that relates to Infradian Rhythms

A

Seasonal Affective Disorder.

95
Q

How often does the basic rest activity cycle repeat throughout the night?

A

Every 90 minutes, both through the day and through the night.

96
Q

What is the definition of an endogenous pacemaker?

A

an internal stimuli that triggers/controls our circadian rhythms.

97
Q

What is the definition of an exogenous zeitgaber?

A

an external stimuli that triggers/affects our circadian rhythms.

98
Q

Give an example of an endogenous pacemaker (clue- the one that is also known as “The Master Circadian Clock”) and where it got its nickname from?

A

The suprachiasmatic nucleus controls many other circadian rhythms (like sleep and arousal). It does this by firing neurons in a synchronised pattern, causing other cycles to be stimulated.

99
Q

How does the SCN use melatonin?

A

To gauge what time of day it is (if melatonin is at it’s highest, our SCN will gauge that it is the middle of the night).

100
Q

How does melatonin encourage sleep?

A

melatonin is an inhibitory neurotransmitter, as it inhibits the function of the mesencephalon and limbic system. The mesencephalon-or mid-brain area- holds the thalamus and hypothalamus, which help control arousal, while the limbic system also helps control arousal and emotion regulation.

101
Q

what do rod photoreceptor cells do?

A

They sense light in the retina to create black and white vision (and they tend to function best at night).

102
Q

what do cone photoreceptor cells do?

A

They sense light in the retina to create colour vision (and they tend to function best in the daytime).

103
Q

What does IpRGCs stand for?

A

Intrinsically photoreceptive retinal ganglian cells

104
Q

What do IpRGCs do?

A

They contain a special opsin called melanopsin that allows us to detect the intensity/type of light being received. This information then travels along the optic nerve to the SCN, which then triggers the correct hormonal response.

105
Q

What is the protein found in IpRGCs that detects light intensity?

A

melanopsin

106
Q

What are two examples of exogenous zeitgarbers?

A

light and social cues

107
Q

What are some examples of social cues that affect our circadian rhythms?

A

meal times, tv programmes, behavioral routines, working routines, hygiene etc.

108
Q

What was R___h’s study into the function of the SCN?

A

Ralph tested on two hamsters with different circadian rhythms. They were exposed to light at different times of day, and therefore had different sleep cycles. The scientists implanted the SCN of one hamster into the other and vice versa, and found they took on each other’s sleep cycles, showing the SCN has immense control over our circadian rhythms.

109
Q

What is one drawback of R___h’s study to do with population/sample?

A

Ralph tested on animals, suggesting that the findings would not be generalisable to humans, as we have more complex brain structures. This suggests a lack of external validity.

110
Q

What is one drawback of R___h’s study to do with the “D” of “RED PAGE”

A

Ralph’s study is determinist. It doesn’t take into account neuroplasticity, exogenous zeitbergers such as daily habit and the difference in brain structure between animal brains and human brains. It also doesn’t take into account that multiple brain areas can contribute to that one function.

111
Q

What is one drawback of R___h’s study to do with ecological validity?

A

There was a very small sample (only two hamsters), it doesn’t take into account how daily routine affects circadian rhythm and it was a very contrived laboratory study, meaning it may have a lack of mundane realism and generalisability.

112
Q

How can the A from RED PAGE be used to evaluate circadian rhythms?

A

Age differences can affect our circadian rhythms as children require more sleep to grow.

113
Q

What did S____s study prove about the importance of social cues? How? (give methodology)

A

Siffre lived in a cave that was completely light deprived for a week. However, he maintained a regular routine, with regular mealtimes and work times etc. The result was for Siffre to remain hs regular sleep/wake cycle, even without the use of light as an E.Z. (completely relying on social cues).

114
Q

How can age suggest reductionism in the theory of circadian rhythms and the sleep/wake cycle?

A

Adults require less sleep, while teens and children require more sleep to grow This shows how individual differences can overshadow/influence circadian rhythms.

115
Q

How do histones affect DNA structure and how it is read?

A

DNA is curled around proteins called histones. Some genes are more tightly coiled around these histones than others. as DNA needs to be opened to be transcribed, these genes can sometimes be skipped, creating variant genes than create different proteins.

116
Q

How do methyl groups affect the proteins made by our DNA?

A

Methyl groups can bind to specific genes/bases in genes, causing them to coil more tightly around the histones and most likely be skipped in DNA transcription. If this happens, the protein produced will be variant/different. This is called methylation.

117
Q

What is one example of methylation having an influence on psychopathology?

A

Methylation can cause variant genes that form inefficient versions of some specific proteins. An example of this could be an methylated SERT gene creating inefficient SERT proteins, so therefore creating low serotonin which would indicate a risk gene for OCD.

118
Q

what is one thing methylated genes can’t do?

A

Be read during DNA transcription.

119
Q

What is the epigenome?

A

Chemical compounds that affect the genome by dictating which genes are expressed or not.

120
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

The study of how methyl groups modify which genes are transcribed into proteins without changing the gene structure.

121
Q

What are two examples of chemical groups changing coils around histones in epigenetics?

A

Methylation- a methyl group suppresses expression of a gene by closing the histone structure. Acetylation- An acetyl group promotes the expression of a particular gene by promoting gene expression.

122
Q

How can environmental influences affect epigenetics?

A

Specific environmental influences can add methyl groups to genes (e.g. stress, dietary choices, chemical exposure, over or under-exercising, UV light exposure etc.), causing them to make different proteins in transcription

123
Q

How can environmental influences in epigenetics relate to the nature/nurture debate to use genetics to diagnose mental illness.

A

Risk genes, such as ineffective COMT or SERT can be created by environmental influences causing effective versions of these genes to become methylated, showing that the genetic influence for OCD (or whatever disorder) is both genetic and therefore favours nature, but this is changed by environment, indicating nurture. This shows how nature/nurture can not be seen as separate, promoting the use of the diathesis stress model.

124
Q

What two genes are inefficient in schizophrenia?

A

D2 and D4

125
Q

What gene is inefficient in depression?

A

5-HTTLPR

126
Q

Are epigenetic changes reversible? How?

A

Epigenetic changes, such as methylation can be changed or reversed or increased by enzymes that act on the epigenome?

127
Q

What are three enzymes that effect the epigenome?

A

Writers, readers and erasers?

128
Q

What do writer enzymes do?

A

They deposit the epigenetic modifiers (e.g the methyl or acetyl groups)

129
Q

What do reader enzymes do?

A

reader enzymes recognize the epigenetic modifiers, allowing for them to affect histone coiling.

130
Q

What do eraser enzymes do?

A

If the epigenetic modification needs to be reversed (i.e. the gene needs to be recoiled/decoiled) this is done by erasers.

131
Q

Name 5 features of the Sympathetic Nervous System

A

+ Associated with fight or flight + Involves releasing Cortisol, Adrenaline and Noradrenaline + Increases Heart rate + Inhibits saliva Production (dry mouth) + Stimulates glucose production and urination

132
Q

Name 5 features of the Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

+ Associated with sleep, digestion and unconscious responses + Increases rate of digestion + Increases saliva production + Decreases Heart rate + Antagonistic with the Somatic Nervous System, meaning they can’t work at the same time as they can’t work at the same time.

133
Q

What is the role of Adrenaline?

A

Causes the fight or flight response, only affects muscles.

134
Q

What is the role of Noradrenaline?

A

Causes concentration, also released in fight or flight (like before an exam), main difference from adrenaline being that it affects the brain and not muscles.

135
Q

What is the role of Gaba?

A

Neurotransmitter responsible for calming brain function and emotion. Does this by cutting of neurons, it is the neurotransmitter that benzodiazepines triggers to relieve stress and anxiety.

136
Q

What is the role of Acetylcholine?

A

The learning neurotransmitter, it stimulates new growth in the brain. Often too high in people with ADHD.

137
Q

What is the role of Glutamate?

A

The neurotransmitter responsible for memory. Often released with dopamine to create happy memories.

138
Q

What is the role of Endorphins?

A

Creates a feeling of euphoria, also reduces perception of pain. Often released during exercise.

139
Q

What are the neurotransmitter imbalances associated with Parkinson’s disorder?

A

Very low dopamine levels.

140
Q

What are the neurotransmitter imbalances associated with Anxiety disorders?

A

Overly high noradrenaline and dopamine, with uncontrolled or low serotonin. Often similar to the imbalances characterised in major depression.

141
Q

What are the neurotransmitter imbalances associated with Aggression (IED)?

A

Low serotonin and GABA (characterising a stressed and overactive brain), with high cortisol and dopamine causing a lot of fight or flight and panic. Very similar with the imbalances in those with schizophrenia, often why people with schizophrenia show signs of are more susceptible to, or are associated with aggression.

142
Q

Name 5 hormones released by the pituitary gland and their functions

A

+ Vasopressin- responsible for water retention, often causes the stimulation of urination during fight or flight response + Gonadotropin- aids the growth of hair and the production of milk in lactating mothers. + Oxytocin- responsible for orgasm, attachment, infatuation and parental bonding. + Melanin- aids tanning and complexion + Cortisol- responsible for stress.

143
Q

What are the two parts of the adrenal gland?

A

The Adrenal Cortex and the Adrenal Medulla

144
Q

What is the role of the Adrenal Cortex?

A

It is necessary to live, it triggers the release of cortisol and aldosterone.

145
Q

What is the role of the Aldosterone?

A

Regulates sodium absorption, therefore regulating salt and water levels. It is considered a steroid, so therefore can be converted into other steroids, such as Progesterone and Testosterone.

146
Q

What is the role of the Adrenal Medulla?

A

It is not technically necessary to live. it releases adrenaline and noradrenaline, meaning it controls triggering the fight or flight symptoms

147
Q

Where is the Adrenal Gland located in the body?

A

Just above the kidneys.

148
Q

What emotional response is triggered by progesterone?

A

Causes feelings of stress and feelings of threat ( main cause of Premenstrual stress, as that is when progesterone is at its highest).

149
Q

What emotional response is triggered by Oestrogen?

A

Causes relaxation and helps production of collagen (often improves complexion).

150
Q

What emotional response is triggered by Testosterone?

A

Causes male characteristics ( whatever the fuck those are), sex drive, work drive, muscle growth. Can be associated with aggression or pugnaciousness.

151
Q

What are the three most important types of neuron?

A

Sensory, motor and relay neurons

152
Q

What are 5 features of a Motor Neuron?

A
  • They are part of the Somatic Nervous System (conscious response) - form synapses with muscles - when viewed during a dissection, they are part of the pink tissue in the brain ( part of the grey matter) - Controls muscular contractions (as of the synapses it forms) by releasing certain neurotransmitters (such as noradrenaline) - Muscle relaxation is cause by the inhibition of this neuron
153
Q

What are 5 main features of Sensory Neurons ?

A
  • carry nerve impulses from sensory receptors (e.g. receptors for vision, taste, touch, smell) - carry impulses from sensory receptors to the brain and spinal cord (the central nervous system) - Sensory receptors are found all over the body, like in eyes, ears, tongue and skin, so sensory neurons travel all around the body - Also found in the grey matter (the tissue that looks pink in a dissected brain)
154
Q

What are 5 features of a Relay Neuron?

A

• They are mostly found in the spinal chord • they are characterised for transmitting information • They help sensory and motor neuron communicate with each other • They are part of the white, spindly tissue we see in a dissected brain. • they are part of the autonomic (non conscious) nervous system

155
Q

What is action potential and what is its role in synaptic transmission?

A

Action potential is the electrical signal that moves through nerves. It can be detected in an MRI scan. At the synapse, action potential is transmitted into neurotransmitters.

156
Q

What is a vesicle and what is its role in synaptic transmission?

A

A vesicle is a bubble like feature carries neurotransmitters and signals through the synapse. Specifically, it encased the neurotransmitters when they are travelling through the postsynaptic cell, but releases the neurotransmitter when it meets the cell membrane before the synaptic gap, as both the vesicles and the membrane are made of similar fats, so they amalgamate and break down the vesicle during contact.

157
Q

What is the synaptic gap and what is its role in synaptic transmission?

A

The synaptic gap is the gap between the presynaptic cell and the postsynaptic cell. It is what neurotransmitters diffuse across. They can release multiple neurotransmitters, and is the feature in synaptic transmission, that turns active potential into neurotransmitters

158
Q

What is a receptor and what is its role in synaptic transmission?

A

Receptors are found in the postsynaptic cell, after the synaptic gap. They are what receptors diffuse to in the reaction. They are where the neurotransmitters are interpreted, and are used to decide how the neurons react (if there is a physical, mental or other response - what neurons are released). They are also important, as they help decide if a excitatory response or inhibitory response is produced via summation. It does this as all receptors are neutral, but will change to have a positive or negative charge, depending on whether they receive an excitatory or inhibitory response.

159
Q

What are post synaptic potentials and what are the two types?

A

Like active potential, but occurs after the synapse and causes a response by causing a neuron to send a signal to the brain, which usually creates a response. It can either be excitatory or inhibitory.

160
Q

What are excitatory neurotransmitters?

A

They cause an active response, or a response that encourages a reaction/behavior, rather than reducing it. Examples would be Noradrenaline, adrenaline and acetylcholine. These trigger learning (via new tissue growth in the brain) and fight-or-flight fear responses.

161
Q

What are inhibitory neurotransmitters (give two examples).

A

These neurotransmitters decrease the likelihood of electrical impulses (post synaptic responses) firing, so they often calm/slow down brain function. They also often stop a reaction or behavior. Examples of this would be GABA or serotonin (GABA is found in benzodiazepines and slow nearly all brain functions, and serotonin causes us to feel relaxed and happy)

162
Q

How does summation determine whether a post synaptic potential is positive or negative?

A

Receptors are neutral, but take in a positive or negative charge if they are affected by a excitatory or inhibitory neurotransmitter. The sum of these receptors controls the response , I.e. if there are more positive receptors the post synaptic potential and response will be excitatory and if there are more negative receptors the postsynaptic potential will be inhibitory.

163
Q

What is the role of dendrites in a neuron?

A

They receive signals from other neurons or sensory receptors and then relay impulses to the rest of the neuron. They are connected to the cell body.

164
Q

What role does the cell body have in a neuron?

A

The cell body is the control centre of the neuron, it is where the neurons are received before they are projected along the axons.

165
Q

What role does the myelin sheath play in a neuron?

A

The myelin sheath encases the axons that are carrying the impulses. It insulates the axons as they are made of fats. They are wrapped around the axons in small sections called schwann’s cells. The break down of the myelin sheath can cause neurological diseases such as Multiple sclerosis.

166
Q

What role do nodes (of ranviers) play in neurons?

A

They are the parts of the axons that stick out from between the schwann’s cells. These are what new cell bodies in neuron cells are grown from.

167
Q

What are terminals in a neuron?

A

What the impulses are relayed to via the axon.

168
Q

What part of the brain processes threat?

A

The amygdala- It uses sensory stimulus to trigger fear and/or anger.

169
Q

How does the amygdala trigger fight or flight response (mention the receptor centre used and the nervous system used).

A

The amygdala, when we are under threat, will send a distress signal to the hypothalamus. This will then communicate with the rest of the body and cause physical responses using the sympathetic nervous system.

170
Q

What are the two forms of stressors?

A

Acute stressors- sudden and not long-lasting, such as a robbery or violent attacker Chronic Stressors- ongoing stress, like financial issues, or a stressful profession

171
Q

What are three features of a response to an acute stressor? (two nervous systems and one neurotransmitter)

A

The Sympathetic Nervous system- signals for the releasing of…… Adrenaline- causes the heart to beat faster, blood pressure to increase, more rapid breathing, release of glucose. The Parasympathetic nervous system- Part of the Autonomic nervous system. Placates the previous response. Causes heart rate to slow back to normal, reduce blood pressure back to normal and restart digestion.

172
Q

What does the hippocampus do?

A

Involved in memory- considered to be the episodic buffer, also involved in decision making

173
Q

What does the amygdala do?

A

Processes stressors, involved in fight or flight and creating a fear response, can also be involved in creating memories involving fear and pain.

174
Q

What does the prefrontal cortex do?

A

planning, decision making, attention, rationalising

175
Q

What does the Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex do?

A

Executive function, paying attention, responding, abstract reasoning, also involved in working memory.

176
Q

What does the orbitofrontal cortex do?

A

the orbitofrontal cortex processes and suppresses worry impulses from the caudate nucleus.

177
Q

What does the anterior cingulate cortex?

A

Emotion, impulse control, decision making, empathy etc. (a lot of roles)

178
Q

What is “N” labelling?

A

The occipital lobe

179
Q

What is “C” labelling?

A

The corpus callosum

180
Q

What is D labelling?

A

The prefrontal cortex

181
Q

What is “G” referring to?

A

The pituitary gland

182
Q

What is F labelling?

A

The hypothalamus

183
Q

What is E labeling?

A

The thalamus

184
Q

What region could 8 be labelling?

A

The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

185
Q

What is 7 labelling?

A

The motor cortex

186
Q

What is 9 labelling?

A

The stomatosensory cortex

187
Q

What is the area closer to the front of the brain?

A

The Broca’s area

188
Q

What is th area further away from the front of the brain?

A

Wernicke’s area

189
Q
A
190
Q

What type of neuron is this? What indicates this?

A

A sensory neuron.

The dendrites are not coming from the cell body

191
Q

What type of neuron is this?

How can we tell?

A

A relay neuron

As the axon looks branched

192
Q

What is this type of neuron?

What indicates this?

A

Motor neuron

Large amount of dendrites