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GCSE Biology Revision > Biology Topic 2 > Flashcards

Biology Topic 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are lungs

A

an organ adapted for gas exchange

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2
Q

what is another word for breathing

A

ventilation

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3
Q

what are alveoli

A

the site of gas exchange

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4
Q

why do we as humans need lungs

A

larger and more complex organisms have a smaller surface area to volume ratio and low diffusion distance from skin to organs

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5
Q

how do smaller organisms perform gas exchange if not through lungs

A

through the skin

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6
Q

why can small organisms afford not to have lungs

A

they have a large surface area to volume ratio so they can rely on diffusion from the air to perform gas exchange through the skin

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7
Q

what is the movement of the ribcage during inhalation

A

up and out

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8
Q

what is the movement of the diaphragm during inhalation

A

contracts and moves down

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9
Q

what is the change in chest volume during inhalation

A

increase

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10
Q

what is the movement of the ribcage during exhalation

A

down and in

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11
Q

what is the movement of the diaphragm in exhalation

A

relaxes and moves up

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12
Q

what is the change in chest volume during exhalation

A

decreases

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13
Q

what proportion of CO2 is inhales

A

0.04%

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14
Q

what proportion nitrogen is inhaled

A

78%

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15
Q

what proportion oxygen is inhaled

A

21%

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16
Q

what proportion of O2 is exhaled

A

17%

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17
Q

what proportion Co2 is exhaled

A

4%

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18
Q

what proportion nitrogen is exhaled

A

78%

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19
Q

give 4 adaptions of the alveoli to diffusion

A

well ventilated
lots of them and they are folded
good blood supply
one cell thick cell wall

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20
Q

how does the alveoli being well ventilated help with diffusion

A

maintains steep concentration gradient

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21
Q

how does having lots of alveoli and them being folded help with diffusion

A

increases surface area over which diffusion can occur

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22
Q

what does a good blood supply do to help with diffusion in the alveoli

A

maintains steep concentration gradient

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23
Q

what does a one cell thick cell membrane in the alveoli do to help diffusion

A

short diffusion pathway enables more diffusion

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24
Q

can you label a diagram of the lungs?

A

well done!

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25
Q

what type of circulatory system do humans have

A

double circulatory system

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26
Q

what are the two circuits of the double circulatory system

A

systemic and pulmonary circuits

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27
Q

what organ does the pulmonary circuit pass through

A

the lungs

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28
Q

the systemic circuit goes through lungs/body

A

body

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29
Q

where does the pulmonary artery go

A

to the lungs

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30
Q

where does the pulmonary vein go

A

to the heart

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31
Q

where does the vena cava go

A

to the heart

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32
Q

where does the aorta go

A

to the body

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33
Q

give the stages of the circulatory system starting with the vena cava

A

vena cava comes from body to heart
pulmonary artery takes blood to lungs
pulmonary vein carries it back to the heart
aorta carries it to the body

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34
Q

which two blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood

A

vena cava and pulmonary artery

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35
Q

which two blood vessels carry oxygenated blood

A

aorta and pulmonary vein

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36
Q

blood is oxygenated where

A

in the lungs

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37
Q

what is the biggest vein in the body

A

vena cava

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38
Q

what is the largest artery in the body

A

aorta

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39
Q

the aorta runs at high or low pressure

A

high

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40
Q

which side of the heart has deoxygenated blood

A

the right

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41
Q

which side of the heart has oxygenated blood

A

the left

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42
Q

the heart is labelled from whose point of view - above or as if you are lying down

A

as if you are lying down
make sure to swap left and right sides

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43
Q

the heart is a ____

A

muscle

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44
Q

what type of muscle is the heart made of

A

cardiac muscle

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45
Q

what keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate

A

septum

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46
Q

what is the heartbeat controlled by

A

cells in the right atrium

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47
Q

where are the pacemaker cells located

A

right atrium

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48
Q

which of the two (left or right ventricle) has a thicker wall

A

left ventricle

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49
Q

why is the left ventricle thicker than the right

A

it needs to increase blood pressure to pump oxygenated blood around the body

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50
Q

can you label a heart?

A

well done!!

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51
Q

the vena cava feeds into what chamber of the heart

A

right atrium

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52
Q

the right atrium is linked to what blood vessel

A

the vena cava

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53
Q

the right ventricle links to what blood vessel

A

pulmonary artery

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54
Q

the pulmonary artery links to what chamber of the heart

A

right ventricle

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55
Q

the pulmonary vein links to what chamber of the heart

A

left atrium

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56
Q

the aorta links to what chamber of the heart

A

left ventricle

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57
Q

the left atrium links to what blood vessel

A

pulmonary vein

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58
Q

the left ventricle links to what blood vessel

A

aorta

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59
Q

how to cells in the right atrium make the heart beat

A

they trigger electrical impulses

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60
Q

the heart muscle is supplied blood by what ___

A

coronary arteries

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61
Q

what do coronary arteries supply to the heart

A

oxygen and glucose

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62
Q

what does CHD stand for

A

coronary heart disease

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63
Q

what is the issue with CHD

A

plaque containing cholesterol builds and narrows the lumen of arteries

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64
Q

what is it called when plaque builds up in coronary arteries/more general blood vessel

A

Atherosclerosis

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65
Q

what is an irregular heart rate (or too fast or too slow) condition known as

A

arrhythmia

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66
Q

what is arrhythmia treated with

A

a pacemaker

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67
Q

if heart rate is too fast what happens to blood pressure

A

too high

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68
Q

give 3 risk factors for CHD

A

smoking
obesity
high cholesterol

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69
Q

if heart rate is too slow what happens and what condition is this due to

A

arrhythmia
low blood pressure - insufficient flow of blood and oxygen around the body

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70
Q

what is the issue with a faulty heart valve

A

chambers don’t shut slo blood can’t be pumped effectively and efficiently

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71
Q

what is heart failure

A

when damage to the heart causes reduced rate of blood flow

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72
Q

give 3 possible treatments for coronary heart disease

A

statins
bypass
stent

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73
Q

what are statins

A

drugs that reduce cholesterol levels in the blood

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74
Q

what is cholesterol

A

level of fat

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75
Q

give 3 advantages of statins

A

doesn’t require surgery
easy to take
can be successful

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76
Q

give 2 disadvantage of statins

A

side effects
expensive for the NHS as its a long term thing

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77
Q

give 3 side effects of statins

A

headaches
sleeping issues
muscle pain

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78
Q

what is a bypass for treating CHD

A

adding extra blood vessel capacity (vein usually transplanted from another area of the body)

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79
Q

where do the surgeons get the vein for treating CHD with a coronary bypass

A

another part of the body

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80
Q

give an advantage of bypass surgery

A

high success rate

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81
Q

give 2 disadvantages of bypass surgery

A

may need to be done repeatedly
surgery can cause stroke or heart failure

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82
Q

what is a stent

A

an inserted small metal mesh tube that widens artery lumen size to restore blood flow to the heart

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83
Q

stents treat early stage/advanced CHD?

A

advanced

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84
Q

true or false: stents are not used to treat heart attacks

A

false - they are

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85
Q

give an advantage of a stent

A

immediately relieves condition

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86
Q

give 2 disadvantages of a stent

A

can trigger blood clots (and another heart attack therefore)
requires surgery

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87
Q

what is the treatment for arrhythmia

A

artificial pacemaker to regulate heart rate

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88
Q

give an advantage of artificial pacemaker

A

low risk procedure
can be successful and massively increase quality of life

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89
Q

give 3 disadvantages of an artificial pacemaker

A

requires surgery - with risk of infection
battery need replacing
you have to be careful around electromagnetic fields

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90
Q

give 2 possible treatments for leaky valves

A

mechanical valve replacement
biological valve replacement

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91
Q

give an advantage of mechanical valve replacement

A

they last a long time

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92
Q

give 3 disadvantages of mechanical valve replacement

A

can cause blood clots
can damage red blood cells
and so patient has to take blood thinners

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93
Q

what 3 animals can a biological valve replacement come from

A

pig, cow or human

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94
Q

give 2 disadvantages of biological valve replacement

A

some patients have religious objections to it
only last 12-15 years

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95
Q

give 2 advantages of biological valve replacement

A

you don’t have to take blood thinners
(it doesn’t damage red blood cells or lead to clotting)

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96
Q

give 2 possible treatments for heart failure

A

heart transplant
artificial heart

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97
Q

give a disadvantage of an artificial heart

A

only a short term fix

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98
Q

give 2 advantages of an artificial heart

A

won’t be rejected by the body
helps a person that needs a transplant very quickly

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99
Q

give 3 disadvantages of a biological heart transplant

A

you have to take immunosuppressants for the rest of your life
they are in short supply
there is a risk of rejection

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100
Q

give 2 advantages of a biological heart transplant

A

doesn’t need to be replaced
allows a person to live after heart failure

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101
Q

what is heart rate measured in

A

beats per minute

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102
Q

how is cardiac output calculated

A

stroke volume x heart rate

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103
Q

what is cardiac output measured in

A

ml/min

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104
Q

what is stroke volume measured in

A

ml/beat

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105
Q

is blood a cell, tissue or organ

A

tissue

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106
Q

where is blood made

A

in the bone marrow

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107
Q

how many components to blood are there

A

4

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108
Q

what % of blood are red blood cells

A

45%

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109
Q

what do red blood cells do

A

deliver oxygen to the body’s cells for respiration

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110
Q

red blood cells don’t have a what

A

nucleus

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111
Q

why don’t red blood cells have a nucleus

A

to have more space for oxygen absorption and storage

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112
Q

what shape to red blood cells have

A

biconcave shape

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113
Q

why do red blood cells have a biconcave shape

A

to have a large surface area for maximum oxygen absorption

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114
Q

what do red blood cells contain

A

haemoglobin

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115
Q

what mineral does haemoglobin contain

A

iron

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116
Q

what makes red blood cells red

A

haemoglobin

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117
Q

what substance is actually carried in the red blood cell when it picks up oxygen

A

oxyhemoglobin

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118
Q

what does haemoglobin do in the red blood cell

A

helps absorb oxygen

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119
Q

what is the function of white blood cells

A

defends body against infections caused by pathogens

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120
Q

what is the % composition of white blood cells in blood

A

less than 1%

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121
Q

what % of white blood cells are phagocytes

A

70%

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122
Q

what does phago mean

A

eat

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123
Q

what do pathogens contain

A

enzymes to digest and destroy pathogens

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124
Q

why don’t phagocytes kill pathogens?

A

they may not be living so they destroy them instead

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125
Q

what is the function of phagocytes

A

to engulf pathogens by engulfing and digesting them

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126
Q

how do phagocytes destroy pathogens

A

a pit is formed which the pathogen enters
it is engulfed by the phagocyte as part of phagocytosis
then digested by digestive enzymes
then the remains of the pathogen are absorbed

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127
Q

what is phagocytosis

A

when the phagocyte engulfs the pathogen

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128
Q

what % of white blood cells are lymphocytes

A

25%

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129
Q

what is the function of lymphocytes

A

to create antibodies which cause agglutination and bind to antigens to mark them out for phagocytosis
and release anti toxins to neutralise toxins

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130
Q

what is a third category in white blood cells that is often forgotten

A

memory cells - ironic

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131
Q

what are memory cells

A

differentiated white blood cells which respond quickly to pathogens by releasing antibodies

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132
Q

what is the process of making pathogens stick together so its easier for phagocytes to destroy them

A

agglutination

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133
Q

what are the proteins on pathogens called

A

antigens

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134
Q

which one attacks/attaches to which: antigens and antibodies

A

antibodies attacks to antigens - remember that as b comes before g in the alphabet

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135
Q

what is the function of platelets

A

to clot blood at a wound to prevent loss of blood and stop micro organisms entering the body via the wound

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136
Q

what 2 bad things to platelets prevent

A

loss of blood
microorganisms entering the body via the wound

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137
Q

what are platelets

A

small fragments of cells that can clump together and clot due to proteins on their surface

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138
Q

what enables platelets to clot

A

proteins on their surface

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139
Q

what do platelets not have

A

a nucleus

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140
Q

give 3 adaptions of the platelets to function

A

no nucleus
can change shape to form different clots
secrete blood clotting proteins

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141
Q

how does having no nucleus help a platelet to function

A

makes it smaller
easier to change shape

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142
Q

what is the function of the plasma

A

liquid part of the blood that suspends cells and platelets
also transports dissolved substances such as antibodies, hormones, CO2, glucose etc

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143
Q

give 3 things the plasma transports

A

hormones
antibodies
CO2
Oxygen
glucose

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144
Q

what is the % composition in the blood of the plasma

A

54%

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145
Q

give 2 pros of blood donation

A

helps those with blood loss/leukaemia
no risk of infection in the UK due to screening procedures

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146
Q

give 2 cons of blood donation

A

hepatitis C and HIV can be passed on and infect the receiver
procedure can be painful for the donor and lead to weakness or fainting

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147
Q

what 2 conditions can be passed on by blood donation

A

hepatitis C and HIV

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148
Q

what 2 things can the process of donating your blood lead to

A

weakness and fainting

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149
Q

what is another word for blood donation

A

blood transfusion

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150
Q

give 4 features of arteries

A

smaller lumen diameter
thicker wall of muscular and elastic tissue
thicker connective tissue walls
carries blood at high pressure

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151
Q

why do arteries have smaller lumen diameters

A

helps maintain high blood pressure

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152
Q

what does the thick wall of muscle and elastic tissue do for arteries

A

expands and recoils to pulse blood

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153
Q

arteries carry blood at high/low pressure

A

high

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154
Q

what is the function of arteries

A

to carry blood away from the heart

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155
Q

arteries carry blood to or from heart

A

from

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156
Q

give 2 things that maintain high blood pressure in the arteries

A

thick walls of muscle and elastic tissue and narrow lumen

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157
Q

give 3 features of veins

A

blood travels at low pressure
larger lumen with irregular shape
thin and weak wall

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158
Q

blood in veins travels at a high/low pressure

A

low

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159
Q

blood in veins has a smaller/larger lumen with a regular/irregular shape

A

larger
irregular

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160
Q

describe the walls of veins

A

thin and weak

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161
Q

what is a venous pump

A

pressure in veins is too low to flow back to the heart on its own so skeletal muscles contract to move blood by squeezing veins

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162
Q

what parts of the body squeeze veins to move blood around the body

A

skeletal muscles

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163
Q

veins carry blood to/from the heart

A

to

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164
Q

how do you remember that arteries carry blood from the heart

A

arteries = away

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165
Q

give 2 features of capillaries

A

one cell thick
narrow lumen

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166
Q

what does a one cell thick capillary help capillaries do

A

have a short diffusion pathway

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167
Q

name 3 things that diffuse through blood capillaries

A

oxygen, glucose, amino acids, hormones

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168
Q

what size lumen do capillaries have

A

narrow

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169
Q

a capillary ___runs through organs and muscles

A

bed

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170
Q

capillary beds have a large _____for efficient diffusion/gas exchange

A

surface area

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171
Q

what is the function of capillaries

A

carry blood to and from the body’s muscles and organs

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172
Q

what is the lumen

A

the tube part of the blood vessel

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173
Q

what do valves do

A

make sure blood only travels in one direction

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174
Q

where are valves located in blood vessels

A

in the lumen

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175
Q

give 3 points you could use in a comparative 6 marker about arteries vs veins

A

wall thickness
lumen size
blood pressure

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176
Q

in a comparative 6 marker what kind of words should you include

A

comparative words like whereas/however
and more/less/stronger/larger etc

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177
Q

name 4 reagents

A

Benedict’s SOLUTION
iodine SOLUTION
Biurets SOLUTION
ethanol/sudan III

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178
Q

what word should you include after the name of every reagent

A

solution

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179
Q

what is the starting colour of beneditcs solution

A

blue

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180
Q

what is the original colour of iodine

A

orange

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181
Q

what is the original colour of biurets solution

A

light blue

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182
Q

what is the original colour of ethanol/sudan III

A

colourless

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183
Q

what is a strong positive result for Benedict’s solution test

A

brick red

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184
Q

what is a medium positive result for Benedict’s solution

A

orange

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185
Q

what is a weak positive result for Benedict’s solution

A

yellow

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186
Q

what is the negative result for Benedict’s solution test

A

blue

187
Q

what extra thing do you need to do to test with Benedict’s solution

A

heat it in a water Bath

188
Q

what is the strong positive result for iodine solution

A

blue/black

189
Q

what is the negative colour result for iodine

A

orange

190
Q

what is the positive result for biurets solution

A

purple

191
Q

what is the negative result for biurets

A

light blue

192
Q

what is the positive result for ethanol/sudan III

A

white

193
Q

what is the negative result for ethanol/sudan III

A

colourless

194
Q

what is the only reagent that needs to be heated to work

A

Benedict’s solution

195
Q

what is the memory trick for reagents

A

BP IS BS
Biurets - protein
blue -purple

iodine - starch
BS - Benedict’s - sugar

196
Q

what does ethanol/sudan III test for

A

lipids

197
Q

what does Benedict’s solution test for

A

sugars

198
Q

what does iodine solution test for

A

starch

199
Q

what does biurets solution test for

A

protein

200
Q

what is a control

A

an additional test to confirm a result is being produced by the independent variable

201
Q

give a control for a food test experiment

A

add the reagent to water

202
Q

Give a method for iodine solution test

A
  1. Out food sample in test tube
    COVER sample with iodine
    Record colour change
203
Q

Give a method for testing with ethanol

A

Add fat to test tube
Add ethanol to sample
Put bung in test tube and shake
Observe change from colourless to white

204
Q

What extra step in testing for lipids do you have to do (working with ethanol)

A

Shake the mix of lipids and ethanol with a bung on the test tube

205
Q

Describe a method to test for proteins

A

Put food sample into test tube
Cover sample with biurets solution
Place bung on test tube and shake
Leave to settle
Check for purple colour if protein present

206
Q

What extra step in testing for proteins do you take in the method

A

Shake the mix of protein and biurets solution and leave to settle before recording colour change

207
Q

Describe a method to test for sugars

A

Place food into test tube
Set up water bath at 75 degrees
Put drops of Benedict’s into the sample
Place the test tube in the water bath for 5 mins
Check for colour change to brick red or orange

208
Q

How hot should the water bath in the Benedict’s solution test be

A

75 degrees

209
Q

How many minutes should the tube with benedicts and sugars be left in the water bath

A

5 minutes

210
Q

How can you increase the accuracy of the food tests experiment

A

Colour change is produced by a precipitate
So you could weigh the precipitate to find colour change

211
Q

Colour change is produced by what

A

A precipitate

212
Q

What is the digestive system

A

An organ system which works to digest and absorb food

213
Q

What is digestion

A

Breaking down large insoluble food molecules into small, soluble ones

214
Q

What is absorption

A

Movement of small soluble molecules form the intestine to blood

215
Q

What is an enzyme

A

A biological catalyst - they speed up a reaction but aren’t changed by it

216
Q

What is bolus

A

Food after chewing mixed with saliva

217
Q

What is emulsification

A

Turning something big into lots of small things

218
Q

What is egestion

A

Remaining waste material passed out of the anus as faeces

219
Q

What is assimilation

A

Movement of digested food molecules into the cells where they are used

220
Q

What is optimum for enzymes

A

The temperature or ph at which enzyme activity is highest

221
Q

What is the active site

A

The part of the enzyme where the substrate BINDS

222
Q

What does denatured mean

A

When an enzymes active site changes shape

223
Q

What is a buffered solution

A

One that is prevented from losing its pH over time

224
Q

Why do we need to digest food to eat it

A

Food is large and insoluble so we cannot absorb it until it is digested

225
Q

What are the two types of digestion

A

Mechanical and chemical

226
Q

What is mechanical digestion

A

Physical breaking down of food by grinding or churning

227
Q

Give 1 examples of mechanical digestion in the body

A

Chewing in the mouth

228
Q

What is the movement of the oesophagus called

A

Peristalsis

229
Q

What is chemical digestion

A

Breakdown of food by enzymes

230
Q

The enzymes breaks down the -___into the ____

A

Substrate
Product

231
Q

Give 4 enzymes

A

Amylase
Carbohydrase
Protease
Lipase

232
Q

What substrate does amylase break down

A

Starch

233
Q

What does amylase release as a product

A

Glucose

234
Q

What does starch get broken down into

A

Glucose

235
Q

Where is amylase produced in the body

A

Salivary glands and pancreas

236
Q

True or false: the pancreas produces all types of enzymes

A

True

237
Q

The salivary glands produce what two enzymes

A

Amylase and carbohydrase

238
Q

What does carbohydrase break down

A

Carbohydrate

239
Q

What does carbohydrase break carbohydrate down into

A

Glucose

240
Q

Give the places that carbohydrase is found in the body

A

Salivary glands
Small intestine
Pancreas

241
Q

How many places in the body is carbohydrase produced

A

3

242
Q

How many places in the body is amylase produced

A

2

243
Q

What does protease break down

A

Protein

244
Q

What does protease break protein down into

A

Amino acids

245
Q

How many places in the body is protease produced

A

3

246
Q

What places is protease produced in

A

Small intestine
Pancreas
Stomach

247
Q

The stomach produces what enzyme

A

Protease

248
Q

The small intestine doesn’t produce which enzyme

A

Amylase

249
Q

what does lipase break down

A

Lipids

250
Q

what are lipids broken down into

A

Glycerol and fatty acids

251
Q

How many places in the body is lipase produced

A

2

252
Q

Two enzymes are only produced in 2 areas of the body: which two?

A

Lipase and amylase

253
Q

What is glucose used for in the body

A

Respiration to release energy

254
Q

what is excess glucose stored as

A

Glycogen

255
Q

What are amino acids used for

A

Building new proteins

256
Q

Give an example of a protein

A

Collagen

257
Q

What are amino acids useful for

A

Growth and repair

258
Q

What are glycerol and fatty acids used for

A

Energy sources
Hormone production

259
Q

What type of thing are enzymes

A

Proteins

260
Q

What chemical digestion takes place in the mouth

A

Amylase and carbohydrase

261
Q

why can bread melt in your mouth

A

Enzyme digestion of starch and carbohydrates

262
Q

The ____is squeezed down the oesophagus and rings of ___perform this motion (peristalsis)

A

Bolus
Muscle

263
Q

Does the oesophagus do any actual digestion

A

No

264
Q

How does the stomach perform mechanical digestion

A

It contracts to churn the bolus

265
Q

How does the stomach do chemical digestion

A

Protease enzyme is released

266
Q

Does Hydrochloric acid break down food

A

NO

267
Q

What is the function of having Hydrochloric acid in the stomach

A

To create the optimum pH environment for protease to work

268
Q

Is the stomach acidic, alkaline or neutral

A

Acidic - very

269
Q

How can CHD cause a heart attack

A

If you get injured and an artery gets damaged blood can clot and the added constriction from fatty deposits constrict blood flow

270
Q

Give 3 symptoms of CHD

A

Chest pain
Shortness of breath
Faintness
A heart attack

271
Q

What is a pig valve called

A

A porcine valve

272
Q

what is a cow valve called

A

Bovine valve

273
Q

What is the function of the liver

A

Produces bile

274
Q

What is the function of the gall bladder

A

Stores bile

275
Q

Give the 2 ways bile helps to digest fats

A

Helps lipase to work
Emulsifies fat

276
Q

How does bile help lipase to work

A

Creates an alkaline pH environment which is the optimum for lipase to work
As it counteracts stomach acid

277
Q

Is bile acidic, neutral or alkaline

A

Alkaline

278
Q

Why does bile emulsifying fat help to digest lipids

A

Fats tend to form globules which are hard to digest
Emulsification increases the surface area for lipase to work on

279
Q

What does fat tend to do

A

Form globules

280
Q

Where is bile released into in the body from the gall bladder

A

Small intestine

281
Q

Where is bile released from

A

Liver

282
Q

What 2 things happen in the small intestine

A

Digestion and absorption

283
Q

Give 5 adaptions of the small intestine to absorption

A

Villi and microvilli
Thin wall one cell thick
Good blood supply
Lots of mitochondria
Lots of digestive enzymes

284
Q

How do villi and microvilli help the small intestine perform absorption

A

Increased surface area for diffusion of nutrients

285
Q

How does a one cell thick wall of the small intestine help the small intestine perform absorption

A

Short diffusion pathway

286
Q

What does a good blood supply to the small intestine do to help absorption

A

Maintains steep concentration gradient

287
Q

What do lots of mitochondria in the small intestine do to help absorption

A

Give energy for active transport of glucose at the end of the small intestine

288
Q

what is taken into blood by active transport at the end of the small intestine

A

Glucose

289
Q

How do lots of digestive enzymes help absorption in the small intestine

A

Food molecules broken down into smaller soluble ones that can be absorbed easily

290
Q

What is the function of the pancreas

A

Produces enzymes for chemical digestion

291
Q

What is the function of the large intestine

A

Absorbs excess water and mineral ions

292
Q

What are functions of rectum and anus

A

Performs egestion

293
Q

What is waste material passed out of the anus as

A

Faeces

294
Q

Faeces are made of what two things

A

Fibre and bacteria

295
Q

What are organelles

A

The parts of a cell

296
Q

What are cells

A

The basic building blocks that make up all living organisms

297
Q

Give 5 examples of specialised cells

A

Nerve cell
Muscle cell
Red cell
Sperm cell
Egg cell

298
Q

What is a tissue

A

Group of cells with similar structures and function

299
Q

Give 3 examples of tissues

A

Muscular tissue
Glandular tissue
Epithelial tissue
Nervous
Connective
Phloem /xylem tissue

300
Q

What are organs

A

Group of different tissues that work together to perform a specific function

301
Q

What two tissues make up the stomach

A

Glandular and epithelial tissue

302
Q

What does epithelial tissue do

A

Covers stuff

303
Q

What is an organ system

A

A group of organs working together to perform a specific function

304
Q

Give 3 examples of organ systems

A

Musculoskeletal system
Nervous system
Circulatory system
Respiratory system
Digestive system

305
Q

How many organ systems are in the human body

A

12

306
Q

What are organisms

A

Living creatures

307
Q

Give the 3 stages of an enzyme controlled reaction

A

Substrate BINDS to the active site
Creates an enzyme substrate complex
The products of the reaction are released

308
Q

When drawing an enzyme controlled reaction the substrate should fit exactly/shouldnt fit with the substrate shape

A

Should fit exactly

309
Q

The active site is ___to the substrate

A

Complementary

310
Q

Enzymes can only catalyse a ___type of substrate

A

Specific

311
Q

An enzyme denatures in ___conditions

A

Extreme

312
Q

Describe lock and key theory - note that this can be an answer for questions that say ‘why can’t ___substrate be broken down by ___enzyme’

A

The ___enzyme’s active site is the lock
The substrate ___(name it)___is the key
The shape of the active site is specific to the substrate, so no other molecules will fit
Just like one key fits into line lock

313
Q

Give the 3 sentences for asking a describe question about enzyme activity graphs

A

Enzyme activity increases from___ to___
It reaches its maximum at __
After this, enzyme activity decreases, reaching 0 at ____

314
Q

How do you answer explain questions about enzyme activity graphs

A

Enzyme activity is optimum at___
Above and below this the enzyme begins to denature
Reaching 0 at___
Might need to explain collision theory with rate of reaction as well

315
Q

Explain how increasing temperature increases rate of enzyme controlled reaction

A

Enzyme and substrate have more kinetic energy
Frequency of successful collisions between enzyme and substrate increase
Increases rate of reaction up to an optimum
However if temperature is too high or too low the enzyme denatures

316
Q

Explain why enzymes dont work at non optimum pH s

A

The active site changes shape as it denatures
Substrate no longer fits
So enzyme cant catalyse the reaction

317
Q

The __and optimum____of enzymes tell us where it lives in the digestive system

A

Shape
PH

318
Q

What is a method for investigating effect of pH on amylase activity

A
  1. Put one drop of iodine solution into each depression on the spotting tile
  2. Add 2cm cubed of the buffered pH solutions into a test tube and label with the pH
  3. Use pipettes to place 2cm cubed of amylase into the same test tube
  4. Put 2cm cubed of starch into a new test tube and label it
  5. Place both solutions into water bath to reach 25 degrees with thermometers
  6. Remove them once the thermometers in them record 25 degrees
  7. Add starch to the enzyme and pH test tube and immediately place a drop in the first depression and start the clock
  8. Mix the solution with a pipette
  9. Use the pipette to remove 1 drop of the mix every 30 seconds, adding each to a dimple on the spotting tile
  10. Continue until the mixture remains orange when you do this
  11. Repeat with other pH solutions
  12. Plot a graph with pH on the x axis and rate of reaction on the y axis
319
Q

The dependent variable goes on what axis

A

The y axis

320
Q

What equipment do you put drops of iodine in in amylase practical

A

Spotting tile

321
Q

What temperature do you use a water bath to heat the solutions to in amylase practical

A

25 degrees

322
Q

What is health

A

State of physical and mental well being

323
Q

Give 3 reasons for being unhealthy but not diseased

A

Stress
Poor diet
Difficult life situations

324
Q

What does stress put as at risk of

A

Disease

325
Q

Give 3 ways diet can be poor

A

Eating wrong types of food
Too much food
Not enough nutrients

326
Q

Give 3 things that are difficult life experiences that can make you unhealthy but not diseased

A

Access to free/adequate healthcare
Emotional trauma
Finances

327
Q

When exam says state one factor that can impact your health dont say what and give 3 possible right answers

A

Not disease

Diet
Stress
Difficult life situation

328
Q

What is a disease

A

A condition in which the normal function of some part of the body is disturbed

329
Q

What is a communicable disease

A

A disease caused by pathogens that can be passed from one organism to another

330
Q

what is the definition of a non-communicable disease

A

Diseases which aren’t infectious
Cannot be passed from one organism to another

331
Q

Give 2 examples of non communicable diseases

A

CHD
Cancer

332
Q

What is the biggest killer in the developed world

A

Non communicable disease

333
Q

Immune reactions caused by a pathogen can trigger things like what

A

Skin rashes
Asthma

334
Q

Viruses living in cells can be the trigger for what
What HPV cause for example

A

Cancers
Cervical cancer

335
Q

What can physical ill health lead to

A

Depression or mental ill health

336
Q

HIV can make you more likely to catch what

A

TB

337
Q

A cold can make ___flare up

A

Asthma

338
Q

Give 2 non modifiable risk factors for disease

A

Genetics (ethnicity, gender, family heritage) and age

339
Q

Give 5 modifiable risk factors for disease

A

Lifestyle - diet, exercise, smoking
Pollution
Obesity
High blood pressure
High cholesterol

340
Q

What 3 things can smoking cause

A

Cancer - especially lung cancer
CHD and other heart diseases
harm to unborn baby development

341
Q

Give 2 ways unborn baby development can be harmed by smoking

A

Baby may be excessively small
May be miscarriage

342
Q

What damage does smoke do in the lungs

A

It damages the alveoli - presumably clogs them

343
Q

Chemicals in cigarette smoke increase risk of ________resulting in cancer

A

Uncontrolled mutations

344
Q

Give 3 harmful effects of alcohol

A

Liver damage
Brain function damage
Unborn baby development harmed

345
Q

Give the general mechanism by which alcohol harms the body

A

Damages liver cells and neurones by chemicals - and chemicals limit unborn baby development

346
Q

Give 3 things a bad diet and lack of exercise can cause

A

Heart disease and CHD
Diabetes
Vitamin deficiencies

347
Q

How does poor diet and exercise cause CHD/diabetes etc

A

Increased cholesterol levels and atherosclerosis (fatty deposits creation in arteries)

348
Q

give 2 carcinogens

A

smoking and ionising radiation

349
Q

how does a carcinogen cause cancer

A

increased risk of mutations leading to uncontrolled cell division
and the development of malignant tumours

350
Q

what can obesity cause (a disease)

A

type 2 diabetes

351
Q

how does obesity lead to type 2 diabetes

A

increased levels of compounds in the blood that promote insulin resistance

352
Q

give 4 negative effects on the sufferer of a non communicable disease

A

no job - causing financial strain
lifestyle change
mental health issues potentially caused neeeding a carer might cause financial strain

353
Q

give 3 impacts on the family of someone suffering with a non communicable disease

A

psychological
lifestyle change
financial drain

354
Q

give 2 impacts on the NHS from non communicable disease

A

financial costs of treatment
staff/resource shortage

355
Q

give 3 impacts on the government of non communicable disease

A

shortage of workers
financial cost of healthcare
reduced taxes = financial cost

356
Q

what is epidemiology

A

study of the transmission of disease

357
Q

what is incidence

A

number of people diagnosed with a disease in a particular population at a particular time

358
Q

what is prevalence

A

the number of people with a particular condition

359
Q

what is mortality rate

A

number of deaths per unit of population from a specific disease per year

360
Q

what causes tumours

A

uncontrolled growth and division of cells

361
Q

what are cancerous tumours also known as

A

malignant tumours

362
Q

what do malignant tumours do

A

invade other tissues and spread into the blood and form secondary tumours

363
Q

what is the name for tumours caused by a malignant tumour

A

secondary tumours

364
Q

give 4 features of malignant tumours

A

made of cancerous cells
form secondary tumours
grow quickly
can invade neighbouring tissue

365
Q

do malignant tumours grow quickly or slowly

A

quickly

366
Q

what kind of cells are malignant tumours made from

A

cancerous

367
Q

what are benign tumours made from

A

abnormal (non cancerous) cells

368
Q

how quickly to benign tumours grow

A

slowly

369
Q

benign tumours tend to be____and in one/many areas

A

contained
one

370
Q

give 3 characteristics of benign tumours

A

made of abnormal cells
grow slowly
contained in one area, usually within a membrane

371
Q

benign tumours are usually contained within what

A

a membrane

372
Q

give 6 risk factors for cancer

A

smoking
radiation
diet
alcohol
genetics
carcinogens

373
Q

what type of radiation can lead to cancer

A

ionising UV radiation

374
Q

what kind of diet can lead to cancer

A

high salt, sugar and processed food

375
Q

what 4 cancers can be influenced by family history of the cancer

A

breast
skin
prostate
ovarian

376
Q

asbestos exposure is/is not a carcinogen

A

is

377
Q

give 4 examples of pathogens

A

protist
virus
bacteria
fungus

378
Q

what is a pathogen

A

a micro organism that can cause disease

379
Q

what is the transpiration stream

A

the movement of water from the roots, to stem and its evaporation out of the leaves through the stomata

380
Q

what is step 1 in the transpiration stream

A

water absorbed by root hair cells

381
Q

give 4 adaptions of the root hair cell

A

large surface area
lots of mitochondria
thin cell wall
large permanent vacuole

382
Q

why does the root hair cell need a large surface area

A

to complete maximum diffusion and osmosis into the cell

383
Q

why does the root hair cell have lots of mitochondria

A

active transport of mineral ions

384
Q

what is the thin cell wall in the root hair cell for

A

efficient diffusion and osmosis

385
Q

what is the large permanent vacuole in the root hair cell for

A

to absorb lots of water

386
Q

label a root hair cell and draw it

A

:)

387
Q

do root hair cells have chloroplasts?

A

no

388
Q

what is the protrusion at the end of the root hair cell called

A

the root hair

389
Q

name all the structures in a root hair cell

A

mitochondria
cytoplasm
cell wall
cell membrane
permanent vacuole
ribosome
root hair
nucleus

390
Q

what is step 2 in the transpiration stream

A

water is transported up the stem by the xylem

391
Q

what structure moves water up the stem

A

the xylem

392
Q

how do you identify mitochondria

A

wiggly shape in the middle

393
Q

how do you identify chloroplasts on a drawing

A

horizontal lines across it

394
Q

give 3 adaptions of the xylem

A

lignin strengthens and thickens walls
no cell walls
hollow cells which are dead

395
Q

how many directions does water flow in the xylem

A

one

396
Q

which direction does water flow in in the xylem

A

up

397
Q

xylem transports water from the___to the ____

A

roots
leaves

398
Q

does the xylem need energy to transport water up it

A

no

399
Q

why doesn’t transpiration need energy

A

strong cohesion between water molecules due to the hydrogen bonding

400
Q

what is stage 3 of the transpiration stream

A

water evaporates out of the leaf via the stomata

401
Q

the leaf is a plant ____specialised for ___

A

organ
photosynthesis

402
Q

____tissues cover a plant

A

epidermal

403
Q

stomata are ____in the ___tissue which control gas exchange and _____

A

pores
lower epidermal
water loss

404
Q

upper epidermis is ___and ____to allow more light to reach palisade cells

A

thin
transparent

405
Q

what is the top layer of the leaf

A

waxy cuticle

406
Q

what does the waxy cuticle do

A

reduces water loss by evaporation

407
Q

what do the stomata control

A

gas exchange and water loss

408
Q

what are two adaptions of the palisade mesophyll layer to their function

A

lots of chloroplasts to absorb light energy for and perform photosynthesis
on top of the leaf so as to better absorb light

409
Q

what is the function of the palisade mesophyll layer

A

to perform lots of photosynthesis

410
Q

what is the spongy mesophyll for

A

space for diffusion of gases

411
Q

the palisade mesophyll layer performs most ___

A

photosynthesis

412
Q

what is the function of the phloem

A

to transport sugars and amino acids up and down the plant

413
Q

what is the function of the xylem

A

transportation of water and mineral ions up the plant

414
Q

where is meristem found in the plant

A

tips of shoots and roots

415
Q

meristem can differentiate into ____cell types

A

many

416
Q

what layer is below the spongy mesophyll

A

lower epidermis

417
Q

what is the singular of stomata

A

stoma

418
Q

what control the opening and closing of the stomata

A

guard cells

419
Q

when stomata is open water is ___from the leaf

A

lost

420
Q

can you label a diagram of a leaf?

A

:)

421
Q

what is the second to top layer of a leaf

A

upper epidermis

422
Q

what is the third to top layer of the leaf

A

palisade mesophyll

423
Q

what is the fourth to top layer of the leaf

A

spongy meosphyll

424
Q

what is the fifth to top layer of the leaf

A

low epidermis layer

425
Q

what does the lower epidermis layer contain

A

stomata and guard cells

426
Q

when the plant has allot of water what happens to the guard cells

A

water moves into the guard cells by osmosis
this makes them turgid and opens them
so lots of CO2 can enter the leaf for photosynthesis

427
Q

why do the stomata open when the plant has lots of water

A

so the plant can do photosynthesis more by letting in more co2 to react with the water

428
Q

give 4 factors affecting rate of transpiration

A

wind
temperature
light
humidity

429
Q

if light intensity is increased what happens to rate of transpiration

A

increased

430
Q

as temperature is increased what happens to rate of transpiration

A

increases

431
Q

why does rate of transpiration increase with increased light intensity

A

rate of photosynthesis increases so water is drawn up faster from the stem/the stomata open to let more CO2 in for photosynthesis and some water vapour is let

432
Q

why does increased temperature increase rate of transpiration

A

evaporation and diffusion are faster as water particles have more energy

433
Q

as it gets windier, what happens to rate of transpiration

A

it increases

434
Q

why does winder conditions lead to faster rate of transpiration

A

steeper concentration gradient as water moves off the surface of the leaf more quickly so diffusion is faster

435
Q

as it gets more humid what happens to transpiration rate

A

it decreases

436
Q

why does humidity decrease rate of transpiration

A

the concentration gradient is smaller so diffusion is slowed

437
Q

what piece of equipment is used to measure rate of transpiration

A

potometer

438
Q

what is measured in the rate of transpiration practical

A

volume of water absorbed by shoot

439
Q

why is the volume of water absorbed by shoot measured in the potometer practical

A

it must be equal to the volume of water lost by transpiration

440
Q

what can be changed to see the impact of certain variables on the rate of transpiration

A

environmental conditions

441
Q

give 3 steps of the photometer practical

A

leafy shoot is stuck in a test tube with a bung with a hole in it
out in a test tube connected to a reservoir and a capillary tube with a ruler around it and a beaker of water at the end of the capillary tube
and vaseline is applied around the stem to seal it
the ruler is used to measure the distance moved by the air bubble from 0
the reservoir is used to reset the air bubble to 0

442
Q

always cut the stem of the shoot in the potometer practical in a specific way - describe how

A

at an angle

443
Q

why is the shoot cut at an angle in the potometer practical

A

it reduces the chance of an air bubble getting stuck in the xylem (and the plant dying quickly)

444
Q

how do you find water volume absorbed in the potometer practical

A

find the area of the cylinder of water lost by finding radius of cylinder, doing volume of a cylinder with the distance the air bubble moved

445
Q

what is the function of the phloem

A

transports dissolved substances from leaves to the rest of the plant for immediate use or storage

446
Q

what is translocation

A

the transport of dissolved sugars

447
Q

translocation is passive true or false

A

false - it actually requires energy

448
Q

where are sugars made in the plant

A

the leaves - photosynthesis

449
Q

sugars are used for ____throughout the plant

A

respiration

450
Q

the phloem is living/dead

A

living

451
Q

the___of the phloem extends throughout the whole structure

A

cytoplasm

452
Q

give 3 adaptions of the phloem

A

no nuclei
perforated walls (sieve plate) at one end
companion cells

453
Q

how does not having a nucleus help the phloem

A

more space for dissolved sugars

454
Q

how does the sieve plate help the phloem

A

allows cell sap to move from one phloem to the nest for effective movement of dissolved sugars

455
Q

what does the companion cell help the phloem to do

A

it houses the phloem’s organelles
and provides energy for translocation

456
Q

draw the xylem and phloem in the roots

A

the xylem looks like a cross in the roots
and the phloem is the dots in between the cross

457
Q

draw the xylem and phloem in the stem

A

ring shape of xylem and phloem with the xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside of the flower shape thing ring of stuff on the edge

458
Q

why is the xylem like a cross in the root of the plant

A

allows the root to be strong and push through the soil (xylem is strong due to lignin)

459
Q

rings of the __show the age of the tree trunk

A

xylem

460
Q

the xylem is ___and provides inner/outer support for the stem

A

strong
inner

461
Q

what is the word equation for photosynthesis

A

carbon dioxide + water -light-> oxygen + glucose

462
Q

give 4 factors affecting rate of photosynthesis

A

light intensity
CO2 concentration
amount of chlorophyll
temperature

463
Q

what is the symbol equation for photosynthesis

A

6CO2 + 6H2O -> C6H12O6 + 6O2

464
Q
A

GCSE Biology Revision (10 decks)

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