Biology I Flashcards

1
Q

Define Metabolism

A

all chemical reactions in the body. The forming or breaking of chemical bonds with enzymes acting as catalysts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define chemical level

A

includes atoms, smallest level of organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define differentiation

A

is the process where unspecialized cells become specialized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Complex network of fluid filled membrane enclosed tubules that store Ca + ions needed for muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define integumentary system

A

a set of organs forming the outermost layer. includes skin, hair, glands, nails.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Recovery oxygen uptake is:

A

Need to replace [o] levels to pay back for what was used during exsersize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the steps of recovery oxygen uptake?

A
  1. convert lactic acid back to glycogyn stored in liver
  2. resynthesize creatine phosphate and ATP
  3. replace oxygen removed from myoglobin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define articulation

A

Location where two or more bones meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define homeostasis

A

ensures that the body’s internal environment remains constant despite external changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

physiology

A

study of how the body functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define anatomy

A

studies the structure of the body and relationship among structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define Neuromuscular junction

A

the synapse formed between the synaptic end bulbs of axon terminals of a motor neuron and motor end plate of a muscle fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define hemopoiesis

A

production of blood cells and platelets. occurs in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define nerve

A

bundle of fibers that transmit impulses of sensation to brain or spinal cord. impulses from these to muscular organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is saltatory conduction

A

an electrical pulse skips from node to node down axon to speed transition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

All-or-none principle

A

if it fires it fires, no in between

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define Ganglion

A

a structure containing a number of nerve cell bodies (linked by synapse) and often forming a swilling on nerve fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is continuous conduction

A

occurs in unmyelinated axon (like heel to toe walking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nociceptors

A

sensory receptors that detect signals from damaged tissue or threat of damage and indirectly also respond to chemicals released by damaged tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define insertion

A

more flexible and of muscle that is usually attacked to bone via tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define Origin

A

reletively less movable end of muscle that is attached to the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the six levels of organization, and provide examples.

A
  1. Chemical level- C,H,N,O,P
  2. Molecular level- DNA
  3. Tissue level- epithelial, connective, muscle and nervous
  4. Organ level- heart, stomach
  5. System level- Respiratory, digestive. respiratory
  6. Organismal level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

11 system

A

-integumentary
-muscular systems
-skeletal
-nervous
-lymphatic
-Urinary
-digestive
-reproduction
-respiratory
-CV
-Endocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 6 life processes

A
  1. Metabolism
  2. Responsiveness
  3. Movement
  4. Growth
  5. Differentiation
  6. reproduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three main good things for water

A

-Water (60-80% of body mass, allows metabolic reactions)
-Maintain stable body temp
-maintain atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

define superior and inferior

A

s: nearer to the head
i: Nearer to feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

define anterior and posterior

A

a: front
p: back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

define medial and lateral

A

m: nearer to midline
l: further from midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

define proximal and distal

A

p: nearer to trunk/origin
d: further from

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

define ipsilateral

A

on the same side of the body as

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define contralateral

A

opposite side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

define intermediate

A

between two structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

explain a sagital section

A

divides into left and right portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

explains median/midsagital section

A

divides into equal left and right portions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

explain frontal section

A

cut of face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

explain a transverse cut

A

divides into superior and inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

explain oblique cut

A

at an angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the 5 body cavities

A

cranial, vertebral, thoracic, diaphragm, abdominal, pelvic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The upper part of the abdomen is called________________ and the lower part is called __________________

A

epigastric; suprapubic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What membranes are found in the Thoracic cavity

A

Pleural - lungs
pericardial - heart
mediastinum - heart, thymus, esophagus, trachea, blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the three main parts of a homeostatic feedback loop?

A
  1. Receptor
  2. Control center
  3. Effector
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Explain a positive feedback loop and give examples

A

occurs when a product of a reaction leads to an increase of that reaction. Moves further from equilibrium. Eg. Childbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Explain a negative feedback loop and give examples

A

serves to reduce an excessive response to keep body in equilibrium or bring it back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the 5 steps of a feedback loop

A
  1. Stimulus
  2. Receptor
  3. control center
    4.effector
  4. response
  5. return to homeostasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some signs of aging

A

-wrinkled skin
-gray hair
-loss of bone mass
-decreased muscle mass
-slower reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the components of the integumentary system

A

skin, hair, oil and sweat glands, nails, sensory receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the functions of the integumentary system

A
  1. Body temp
  2. protection
  3. cutaneous sensation
  4. excretion and absorption
  5. Synthesis of vitamin D
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does the Integumentary system regulate body temp

A

sweat, blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does the Integumentary system protect us

A

-Keratin protects underlying tissue
-Lipids prevent excessive h2o evap
-sebum keeps us moist
-protects from sun damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How does the Integumentary system synthesize vitamin d

A

exposure to sun activates vitamin D and converts it to its active form called calitrol that aids the absorption of [Ca] and [P]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the three skin layers

A

Epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 5 layers of epidermis

A

-stratum corneum
-stratum lucidum
-Stratum granulosum
-stratum spinosum
-stratum basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is included in the stratum corneum

A

25-30 layers of flat, dead keratinocytes. these are constantly being lost and replaced. Callus is abnormal thickening of corneum. ONLY PRESENT IN THICK SKIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Stratum gransulosum

A

3-5 layers of flattened keratinocytes that are undergoing apoptosis (programmed cell death) where the nucleus fragments before cells dies. release lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does that stratum spinosum do

A

8-10 layers of many sided keratinocytes that fit together closely. provide strength and flexability to skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does stratum basale do ?

A

Single row of cuboidal/columnar keratinocytes. some are stem cells that become keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the three types of pigmentation

A
  1. Melanin: brown/black pigmentation
  2. Hemoglobin: red pigmentation
  3. carotene: yellow-orange
58
Q

What are the three types of glands

A

Sebaceous glands, Sudoriferous glands, Ceruminous glands

59
Q

What do sebaceous glands do, and where are they found?

A

-Usually connected to hair follicles
-none on palms and soles
-secrete sebum to keep us moist and soft, as well as inhibiting bacteria growth
-increases during adolesence

60
Q

What do Eccrine glands do? Where can they be found?

A

Function: control temp, secrete things
location: found everywhere but lips, nails, toes, penis, clitoris, labia minora, and ear drums

61
Q

What do apocrine glands do? Where are they found?

A

Function: Excrete apocrine sweat during sexual activity
location: armpit, groin, nipples, and beards

62
Q

What are ceruminous glands

A

secrete cerumen (earwax)

63
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system

A
  1. support
  2. protection
  3. movement
  4. mineral homeostasis
  5. blood cell production
  6. triglyceride storage
64
Q

What are the four types of bone cells and what do they do?

A

Osteoprogenitor cells: makes up most connective tissue, only bone cell to undergo cell division, resulting cells turn into osteoblasts, found in inner portion and periosteum and endosteum and cannals
Osteoblasts: bone building cells
osteoclasts- big cells derived from as many as 50 WBC and release lysosomic enzymes that break down and reabsorb bone.
Osteocytes: Mature bone cells that maintain daily metabolism

65
Q

What are the seven bone parts

A
  1. Diaphysis
  2. Epiphysis
  3. Metaphyses
  4. Articular cartilage
  5. Periosteum
  6. medullary cavity
  7. endosteum
66
Q

What is the diaphysis

A

long shaft of the bone

67
Q

What is the epiphysis

A

distal and proximal ends of the bone

68
Q

what is the metaphyses

A

where the diaphysis joins epiphysis

69
Q

What is the articular cartilage

A

Covers joint to reduce friction and shock

70
Q

What is the periosteum

A

tough sheath that goes where there is no articular cartilage

71
Q

What is the medullary cavity

A

an open cavity for yellow bone marrow

72
Q

What is the endosteum

A

lines medullary cavity and contains 1 layer of bone forming cells

73
Q

How many bones are in the adult body? How many in infants?

A

206, 270

74
Q

What are the four classes of bones

A

Long, short, irregular, and flat

75
Q

Describe long bones and provide examples

A

greater in length than width, and are slightly curved for strength. Eg. Femur, humerus, tibea, fibula, phalanges

76
Q

Describe short bones and provide examples

A

Cube shaped and nearly equal in length and width. Eg. wrist and ankle bones.

77
Q

Describe flat bones and provide examples

A

thin, protective, and provide extensive surface for muscle attachment. Eg. Cranial bones, sternum, ribs

78
Q

Describe irregular bones and provide examples

A

complex shape that dosen’t fit into any other grouping. Eg. vertebrae, facial bones.

79
Q

What are the 4 basic fracture types?

A

Partial: bone not broken all the way through
Complete: bone in 2+ pieces
Closed (simple): doesn’t break through skin
Open (compound): breaks though skin

80
Q

What are the two girdle types?

A

Pectoral, pelvic

81
Q

What bones are involved in the pectoral girdle?

A

clavicle and scapula. clavicle articulates with sternum and scapula articulates with clavicle and humerus. does not articulate with vertebral column

82
Q

What bones are involved with the pelvic girdle?

A

Two hip bones, called coxal bones. Hip bones unite at a joint called the pubic symphysis, they unite with sacrum at sarcoiliac joint.

83
Q

What is the purpose of the pelvic girdle?

A

Provides strong, stable support. protects the pelvic viscera and attaches lower limbs

84
Q

What is the pelvic brim? What does it connect?

A

Line that connects the true and false pelvic bones

85
Q

What is the difference between the true and false pelvic bones

A

false (greater): doesn;t contain pelvic organs except the bladder when full and the uterus when pregnant. Inlet
true (lesser): surrounds pelvic cavity and contains pelvic axis. outlet

86
Q

Why is it important to expose the bones to mechanical stress

A

bones get stronger in response. lack of mechanical stress leads to demineralization (loss of bone strength)

87
Q

What are the two types of Bone formation

A

Intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification

88
Q

What are the steps of intramembranous ossification

A
  1. Development of ossification center
  2. calcification
  3. formation of trabuculae
  4. development of periosteum
89
Q

What are the steps of endochondral ossification

A
  1. Development of cartilage
  2. Growth of cartilage model
  3. development of primary ossification center
  4. development of medullary cavity
  5. development of the secondary ossification center
  6. Formation of articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate
90
Q

What are the functions of the muscular system?

A
  1. Producing body movement
  2. Stabilizing body positions
  3. storing and moving substances within the body (sphincters)
  4. producing heat
91
Q

What are the functions of the muscular system?

A
  1. Producing body movement
  2. Stabilizing body positions
  3. storing ad moving substances within the body
  4. Producing heat
92
Q

How does the muscular system help to store and move substances withing the body?

A

-storage using sphincters
-cardiac muscles move blood
-smooth muscles help flow of GI tract
-skeletal muscles assist in blood flow

93
Q

What are the types of muscles?

A

-Skeletal
-cardiac
-smooth

94
Q

What are the types of contraction?

A

Eccentric- elongates
concentric- shortening of muscle
isometric- isn’t changing length

95
Q

What are the basic quadricep muscles

A

-rectus femoris
-vastus lateralis
-vastus intermedius
-vastus medialis

96
Q

What are the basic hamstring muscles

A

-biceps femoris
-semitendinosus
-semimembranosus

97
Q

What are the basic rotator cuff muscles

A

-subscapularis
-teres MINOR
-supraspinatus
-infraspinatus

98
Q

Aging and the muscular system

A

-between 30-50 there is slow decline in muscle strength
-(SO) fibers increase
-40% of muscles lost between 50-80

99
Q

4 ways ATP is generated

A
  1. Creatine phosphate (15 sec. of muscle contraction)
  2. Krebs cycle (aerobic)
  3. Glycolosis (anaerobic)
  4. Electron transport chain (anaerobic)
100
Q

What is produced in Creatine phosphate

A

1 ATP

101
Q

What is produced in Krebs cycle

A

occurs in mitochondria, 2 pyruvates make 2 NADH and total to 2 ATP

102
Q

What is produced in glycolosis

A

breaking up glucose for net 2 ATP, 2 pyruvates, and 2 NADH

103
Q

what is produced in the ETC

A

34 ATP

104
Q

What are the three functions of the NS

A
  1. sensory
  2. integrative
  3. motor
105
Q

What makes up the CNS

A

Brain and spinal cord

106
Q

What makes up the PNS

A

SNS, ANS, ENS

107
Q

What makes up the SNS

A

Somatic nervous system consist of sensory neurons that conduct impulses from somatic special sense receptors to the CNS, and motor neurons from PNS. (voluntary)

108
Q

What makes up the ANS

A

contains sensory neurons from visceral organs and motor neurons that convey impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle tissue, cardiac tissue and glands. (involuntary)

109
Q

What makes up the ENS

A

controls the gut, functioning somewhat independently of ANS and CNS

110
Q

What are the functional cells of the NS

A

neurons

111
Q

What are the three main portions of a neuron

A

dendrites, axon, cell body

112
Q

What are the three neuron structures

A
  1. unipolar
  2. bipolar
  3. multipolar
113
Q

3 neuron types

A
  1. sensory (afferent)
  2. motor (efferent)
  3. interneurons
114
Q

What are neuroglia, what do they do?

A

Specialized cells that support nurture and protect neurons. They maintain interstitial fluid

115
Q

What are the neuroglia found in the CNS

A

astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglial cells, and ependymal cells

116
Q

What are the neuroglia found in the PNS

A

Schwann cells and satellite cells

117
Q

Which types of neuroglia form myelin sheath

A

oligodendrocytes and schwann cells

118
Q

What is involved in gray matter

A

cell bodies, dendrites, axon terminals, unmyelinated axons, and neuroglia

119
Q

What is involved with white matter

A

agregets and myelinated axons

120
Q

What is a ganglion, and a nucleus

A

cluster of neuronal cell bodies located in the PNS, nucleus is a cluster of cell bodies located in the CNS

121
Q

What are bundles of axons

A

nerves

122
Q

What is resting membrane potential

A

when muscle cells are at rest and potential the voltage across the plasma membrane is termed resting.

123
Q

What makes up the brain stem

A

continuation of the spinal cord, medulla oblogata, pons, and midbrain

124
Q

What is CSF

A

clear liquid that carried [o], glucose, and other chemicals to neurons and neuroglia and remove waste. Circulated in subarachnoid space in brain and spinal cord

125
Q

What is the pons responsible for

A

links medulla with midbrain and forms connection with cerebellum. relays nerve impulse related to sensory input and movement

126
Q

What is the midbrain responsible for

A

movement of head, eyes, trunk, in response to visual stimuli

127
Q

What 3 structures are involved in the diencephalon

A

thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal gland

128
Q

What is the hypothalamus responsible for

A

body temp, water balance, metabolism

129
Q

What’s up with the cerebrum

A

-allows us to write, read, speak, calculate, make music, remember, plan, and create
-folds to fit
-four lobes

130
Q

What does the limbic system do?

A

Acts as he emotional brain.

131
Q

What are the two types of reflexes?

A

Somatic and Autonomic

132
Q

What are the 5 steps of a reflex arc

A
  1. sensory receptor
  2. sensory neuron
  3. integrating center
  4. motor neuron
  5. effector
133
Q

What are the three layers of connective tissue in spinal cord

A

-dura mater
-arachnoid mater
-pia mater

134
Q

how long is the spinal cord (typically)

A

18 inches, 45 cm

135
Q

Three steps of action potential

A

depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization

136
Q

What is the value of resting potenial

A

-70 mV

137
Q

What is the threshold value

A

-55 mV

138
Q

What are the 3 sources for ATP production

A

-creatine phosphate
-Anaerobic respiration (glycolosis)
-Aerobic respiration

139
Q

explain creatine P

A

Transfer of high energy phosphate group from creatine P to ADP to create ATP

140
Q

Together how long can creatine P and ATP make a a muscle contract maxiamally for

A

together, creatine phosphate and ATP provide
enough energy for muscles to contract maximally for
about 15 seconds.

141
Q

Expain anaerobic cellular respiration and how long it works for

A

GLYCOLOSIS
Glucose is converted to pyruvic acid in the
reactions of glycolysis, which yield two
ATPs without using oxygen.
These reactions, referred to as anaerobic
cellular respiration, can provide enough
ATP for about 30 to 40 seconds of maximal
muscle activity.

142
Q

Explain Aerobic cellular respiration

A

Necessary for muscular activity that last for longer than half a minute requires Aerobic respiration
-these are mitochondrial reactions that are required to produce ATP
- yields about 36
molecules of ATP from each glucose
molecule.