Biologic response modifiers to decrease inflammation: focus on infection risks Flashcards

1
Q

What are biologic response modifiers?

A

Antibodies to pro-inflammatory cytokines or proteins that target the cytokine receptors with a common net effect is a pro-inflammatory cytokine “inhibitor” effect, thus modifying the immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is abatacept?

A

Trade name Orencia binds to CD80 and CD86 on antigen presenting cells and blocks production of TNF-alpha, IL-2 and interferon-gamma. Selective costimulation modulator protein fused to human IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is adalimumab?

A

Trade name Humira. TNF antagonist. Humanized IgG1 monoclonal antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is anakinra?

A

Trade name Kineret. Binds to IL-1 alpha receptor. Human monoclonal antibody against IL-1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is canakinumab?

A

Trade name Illaris. Binds to IL-1 beta receptor and prevents interaction of cell surface receptors. Monoclonal antibody against IL-1beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is certolizumab?

A

Cimzia. TNF antagonist. Humanized PEGylated Fab’ of a TNF-alpha monoclonal antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is etanercept?

A

Enbrel. TNF antagonist. Soluble p75 TNF-alpha receptor fusion protein construct that binds to and inactivated TNF-alpha.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is golimumab?

A

Simponi. TNF antagonist. IgG1K with human variable regions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is infliximab?

A

Remicade. TNF antagonist. Humanized IgG1K with murine variable regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is natalizumab?

A

Tysabri. Blocks integrin association with vascular receptors limiting adhesion and transmigration of leukocytes. Monoclonal antibody against the alpha-4 subunit of integrin molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is rilonacept?

A

Arcalyst. Binds to IL-1 alpha and beta and prevents interaction of cell surface receptors. IL-1 receptor fusion protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is tocilizumab?

A

Actemra. IL-6 receptor antagonist. Humanized monoclonal antibody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is ustekinumab?

A

Stelara. IL-12 and IL-23 antagonist. Humanized monoclonal antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do BRM increase the risk of infection?

A

TNF alpha and other pro-inflammatory cytokines generate an inflammatory response important for:

  1. T cell mediated immune responses for destruction of intracellular pathogens
  2. Formation of granulomas
  3. Ensure adequate cell mediated response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What infections are increased in clinical settings?

A
  1. Tuberculosis
  2. Fungal infections o.e. Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatidis, Coccidioides immites
  3. Non tuberculous mycobacterium
  4. Intracellular bacreria i.e. Listeria monocytogenes
  5. Reactivation of Strongyloides
  6. Case reports of reactivation of chronic viral infection e.g. HSV, varicella, HBV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the recommended patient work-up before initiation of BMR therapy?

A
  1. TBST
  2. CXR
  3. Document vaccination status and ensure up to date
  4. Administer all live virus vaccines a minimum of 4 weeks before initiation
  5. Counsel household members regarding risk of disease and ensure vaccination for prevention of exposure to varicella and influenza and other transmissable infections
  6. Depending on risk of past exposure, consider serology for Histoplasma, Toxoplasma, and other intracellular pathogens
  7. Consider serology for HBV, varicella-zoster, and EBV
  8. Counselling with respect to food safety
  9. Couselling with respect to maintenance of dental hygiene
  10. Counselling with respect to exposure to heavy concentrations of garden soils, pets, and other animals
  11. Counselling with respect to high risk activities i.e. spelunking
  12. Counselling with respect to travel to areas endemic for pathogenic fungi or to areas where TB is endemic
17
Q

What recommendations are there for food safety?

A

Avoid eating:

  1. undercooked or deli meats
  2. raw eggs
  3. unpasteurized milk products incld. soft cheeses
18
Q

What other recommendations are there for avoiding infections?

A

Avoid direct contact w/

  1. soil (T. gondii)
  2. kitty litter (T. gondii)
  3. kittens (Bartonella)
  4. pet reptiles (Salmonella)
  5. other pet bites or scratches (Pasteurella)
  6. construction sites (fungal spores)
  7. farmyard barns (fungal spores)
  8. cave exploration (fungal spores)
19
Q

What are the recommendations regarding vaccination and BMR?

A
  1. Pneumococcal vaccine: complete primary series if <59mo, if min. 24mo give pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine 8wks after last dose of conjugate vaccine, if >59mo and primary series not complete give a dose of pneumococcal polysaccharide OR conjugate ten polysaccharide 8 wks later
  2. Annual inactivated influenza vaccine
  3. Complete routine inactivated immunizations 14d prior to starting BMR or 1m prior if on high dose steroids
  4. Live vaccines can be given 4 wks prior to starting BMR
  5. Live vaccines are contraindicated in patient on BMR