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biochem II last minute Flashcards

1
Q

function of acetyl CoA

A

activate pyruate carboxylase

inhibit pyruvate dehydrogenase

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2
Q

function of AMP

A

activate glycosgen phosporate and PFK1

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3
Q

function o fcitrate

A

activate acetyla CoA carboxylase

inhibit PFK1 and PFK2

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4
Q

function of F26bp

A

activaet PFK1

inhibit F16BP

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5
Q

function of F16BP

A

activat pyruvate

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6
Q

function o fmalonyl CoA

A

inhibit CPT I

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7
Q

limiations of fatty acids

A

require O2
can’t cross bbb
bulky

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8
Q

is the conversation of glucose to lactate in RBCs aerobic or anarobic

A

anarobic

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9
Q

what does liver do in the well fed state

A

convert exuss glucose into triglycerides for export

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10
Q

in the starvatino state what does the liver do

A

convert amino acids and fatty acids into glucose and ketone bodies

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11
Q

what can oral refeeding lead to diarrhea

A

supprots growth of insteinal microorganisms

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12
Q

how does insulin affect ketone body production

A

represses it by inhibition lipolysis and transport of FFA into mitochondria

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13
Q

how does insulin affect the synthesis of PEP carbosyln

A

decrease

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14
Q

how does the p450 enzyme affect heme

A

consumes it and increases heme synthesis

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15
Q

what causes AIP

A

deficency in porphobilinogen deaminase

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16
Q

symptoms of AIP

A

dark red urine
confusion
sharp abdominal pain

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17
Q

what is PCT caused by

A

defiency of UROD

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18
Q

symptom of PCT

A

urine is pink fluroence under UV light

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19
Q

what does lead inhibit

A

porphobilinogen synthase and ferrocheltase

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20
Q

what does bilirubin formation require

A

NADPH

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21
Q

what type of bilirubuin can cross the bbb

A

unconjugates

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22
Q

lab value for hepatocellular juandice

A

elecated levels of indirect bilirubin

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23
Q

what is hepatocellular jaundice caused by

A

hepatitis and acetominophin positiong

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24
Q

symptoms of cholesttatic juandice

A

pale feces and intense urine

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25
Q

what is the committed step in de novo purine synthesis

A

PrPP to PRA via amindophosphoribsyltransfase

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26
Q

what type of bilirubin is present in cholestatic juandice

A

conjuaged in urine

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27
Q

what are teh control points in de novo purine nucleotide synthessis

A

IMP dehydrogenase
adenylosuccinate synthase
PRPP synthase
amindophoribosyltransferase

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28
Q

what inhibits PRPP synthase

A

ADP and GDP

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29
Q

what inhibits amidophosphoribosyltransfase

A

AMP and GMP

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30
Q

increases in PRPP has what affect on purine synthesis

A

increases

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31
Q

what is the end product of purine metabolism

A

uric acid

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32
Q

what do you use allopurinal for

A

treat hyperuricemia by compeptively inhibiting xanthine oxidase

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33
Q

what causes orotic acidura

A

defect inUMP synthease

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34
Q

what does CTP synthase use as an amino group donor

A

glutamine

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35
Q

what does the converstion of NDP to dNDP require

A

NADPH to reduce thioredoin

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36
Q

what is the precurosre of dTMP

A

dUMP

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37
Q

what catalyzes the reaction between dUMP and dTMP

A

thymoylate synthase

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38
Q

function of 5-fluorouracil

A

inhibit thymidylate synthase

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39
Q

what does degration of pyruide nucletodie yield

A

beta-amino acids

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40
Q

beta aminoisobutyrate production is uiqure to waht

A

thymine degration

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41
Q

what do you need for the syntehsis of IMP and GMP

A

HGPRTase

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42
Q

what do you need for the syntehsis of AMP

A

APRTase

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43
Q

what is the only purine that can be directly phosphorylated to regen a nucleotidue

A

adosine

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44
Q

what casues lesch-nyan syndrome

A

HGPRT defiency

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45
Q

what case is not salvaged in humans

A

cytosine

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46
Q

what are the lab values for kidney disease

A

urea/creatine levels increases in serum

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47
Q

function o falbumin

A

binding of hydrophobic molecules
binding o fcalum
maintaince of onocotic pressure

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48
Q

what is c reactive protein a marker of

A

acute metablic response to injury

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49
Q

what is increass alkaline phosphatase indicative of

A

bone or liver disease

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50
Q

during fasting what does adipose tissue export

A

fatty acids ang glycerol

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51
Q

during fasting what does liver export

A

glucose, ketone bodies

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52
Q

during well fed state waht does liver export

A

VLDL

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53
Q

chronic EtOH consuption stresses the lvier how

A

by oxidative stress from hydrogen peroxide

DNA damage from hydroxyethyl production produces mutations and predisposes to cancer

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54
Q

what casues hereditaty hemochromatosis

A

muations in HFE gene

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55
Q

how is glutathione peroxidase involved in radicals

A

uses electrons from GSH to reduce hydrogen peroxide

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56
Q

vitamin A

A

lipid solube compound that acts as an electron donor for reduction of radicals such as lipid peroxides

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57
Q

polyphernols

A

water soluble antioxidants that are in plants

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58
Q

methemoglobin reducase

A

works in RBCs by replacing electrons to iron in heme, does not bind oxygen

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59
Q

what is a good marker for oxidative stress

A

plasma malondaldehyde conc

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60
Q

how does hydroxyl radical affect DNA

A

makes double stranded breaks

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61
Q

peroxynitritate

A

convalently modifies lipids, DNA, proteins

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62
Q

chromatin

A

DNA + Protein

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63
Q

nucleosome

A

histone with DNA wrapped around it

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64
Q

heterochromatine

A

intenly stained
highly condesne
transcriptionally inactive
conentrated at peripheral of nucleus

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65
Q

euchromatin

A

translucent

transcriptionally acitve DNA

66
Q

how are the majoirty of mRNA molecules exported from nucleus

A

via ran-independt mechanism

67
Q

how do polymerases synthesize DNAi

A

n the 5’ —> 3’

direction

68
Q

how do doxorubin, nalidixic acid and ciprofloxan work

A

affect topisomerase II

69
Q

topiosomerase I

A

cut phosphodiester back 1 strand of DNA

70
Q

topismase II

A

manipulate 2 helices

71
Q

what helps keep DNA mistakes low

A

3’ —> 5’ exonuclase activity o fDNA polymerase delta

72
Q

what casues HNPCC

A

defect in mismatch repari

73
Q

DNA glycosylases

A

recognize altered bases and catalyze ther removal

74
Q

nucleotide excision repair

A

fixes damage caused by agents that result in large changes of structure of DNA

75
Q

xeroderma pigmentosum

A

caused by mutation in nucletoide exicision

76
Q

how does cytarabien work

A

compete with deoxyribonucleotides for binding to DNA polyermase

77
Q

how does cyclophophamide work

A

alkylating agent

78
Q

what do you use cyclophosphamide for

A

treat hodkin’s lymphoma

79
Q

what does TBP do

A

bind to TATA box and act like sign post for other transcriipin element

80
Q

what do GC-rich regions bind to

A

SP-1

81
Q

what does CAAT bind to

A

NF1

82
Q

what is prerequist to transcription

A

extensive chromatin remodeling

83
Q

how does rigampicinc work

A

RNA polymerase

84
Q

what causes beta thalessmia

A

incoorrect splicing

85
Q

how do you get PKU

A

single base change in 5’ splice donor site of a interon, leading to truncating proted

86
Q

HAT

A

acetylate lysine rediue in histone

decrease charge and stregth of interaction w/DNA

87
Q

HDACs work how

A

catalyze removal of acetyl groups from histine

88
Q

function of HDACs

A

inhbiti transcription

89
Q

symptoms of rubinstein taybi

A

intellectual disability other abnormali

90
Q

what causes rubinstein taybi

A

mutation in genes encoding CP and EP300

91
Q

how does tamozifen work

A

competitive inbitor of estrogen in breast caner treatment

92
Q

what can ionine pair with

A

A c and U

93
Q

where do you fine inonie

A

tRNA

94
Q

how does streptomycin work

A

bind to small subinit and inhibit initation

95
Q

neomycin and gentamicin work how

A

bind to ribosomes and cause mistranslation of protesin

96
Q

wha tdoes phosphoraultion of elf-2 do

A

render intiation factor inactive and shut down traslation

97
Q

what do congenital disorders of glycosylation do

A

impair N linked glycosylation o fproteins

98
Q

what causes charcot marie tooth diease

A

mutation is HSP

99
Q

HSP

A

chaperaons that repair proteins damaged by heat

100
Q

O - linked glyosylation

A

glycosylatransferase tranfer N-acetyl galactosamine to hydroxyl group of serine or theronin

101
Q

what causes MSD

A

failure to convert cytein to formylglyine

102
Q

what is the first amino acid to be incorproated into aprotein

A

methionine

103
Q

what causes I cell diseeaes

A

tranfer of phosphate to mannose is impaired

104
Q

function of E3

A

indenfiy protein for ubination

105
Q

M phase cycline

A

cylcine A/CDK1

clyin B. CDK1

106
Q

mid G1 cycline

A

cyclin D/CDK4

cyclin D/CDK6

107
Q

late G1 cycline

A

cyclin E/CDK2

108
Q

s cycline

A

cyclin A/CDH2

109
Q

what degrates cycline

A

ubiquitin dependent protelysis

110
Q

what is the key targe tfor cycline D/CDK4/6

A

rb

111
Q

function of RB

A

binds to E2F protens, making them act as transcriptional repressors

112
Q

INK4

A

act as specific inhibitors of CDK4/6

113
Q

p21KIP1

A

forms a complex with cyclin A/CDK2

114
Q

what is the most important driver of events leading to mitosis

A

CDK1

115
Q

what activates ATM

A

double stranded DNA breaks

116
Q

waht acitvates ATR

A

DNA damage caused by UV light, and certian drugs

117
Q

what does ATM/AtR do

A

acitvate clycin/cdk2 and cycline 1 compelxes

118
Q

wha tdoe p21cip1 do

A

inhibit both cyclin cdk1 and cyclin cdk2 compelxes

119
Q

what casues ataxia telagiensus

A

muation in gene encoding for ATM

120
Q

what are gain of function muations usually

A

dominatn

121
Q

what is function of c-fos and c-myc

A

protooncogens

122
Q

what casues burkitts lymphma

A

transloaction on chromsone 8 and 14

123
Q

normal fucntio of Rb

A

inhibit cell cycle progession

124
Q

how does oncotoic p53 mutrate

A

dominate neg mutation

125
Q

what does NF 1 foloow

A

2hit model

126
Q

function of BRCA1 and BRCA2

A

caretaker geners that repair double stranded DNA breaks

127
Q

chromosomes that lack telmoerse seuqences do waht

A

breakage/fusionbride cycle that leads to chromsomal instability

128
Q

what does FAP result in

A

continued expression of WNT pathway

129
Q

what muation is found in 80% of sporadic colon cancers

A

APC

130
Q

what muation casues HNPCC

A

defect in MSH2 or MLH1

131
Q

philadephia chromone caused by transolation between what chromosomes

A

9 and 22

132
Q

what do imatinib, niltibnic, dasatinb do

A

inhbiit BCR/abl

133
Q

what does rituximab treat

A

non hodkins lymphoma

134
Q

what does benacizumbab treat

A

colon and lung cancer

135
Q

what does p53 do

A

stop progession into the S phase when DAN has been damged

136
Q

acontiase

A

reulate transcription by recognizion of start codon on mRNA

137
Q

durin gthe initaiton of translation what does the ternary compelx byind to

A

small ribosome

138
Q

what does telmerase do

A

add short stretch of DNA

139
Q

cytochorme c

A

component of apoptosis cascade

140
Q

what casues trinucleotide repeats

A

incorrect recomination

141
Q

funciton of pol A tail

A

stabilize mRNA

142
Q

what does ubiqutin depend protlysis inhbiit

A

cyclin A CDK1/2 and cycline B CDK1

143
Q

when is poly ubiquiation of protein required

A

targeting of protein to protseome

144
Q

when is recessibe inherience mostly observed

A

defect of enzymes and proteins invovled in transport ans storage

145
Q

loss of functio of RET gene

A

hierschpung

146
Q

game of function f FET gene

A

MEN

147
Q

what causes LHON

A

muation on ND1 gene

148
Q

chimeric BRC/ARB can cause waht

A

chronic myelgous leukima

149
Q

pattern of DNA methylation is mainted through mitosis but what

A

DNA methl transferase DNMT

150
Q

what casues rett disease

A

muation in MBPs (XD)

151
Q

what do methlated histones bind to

A

HPi protein

152
Q

what do HPI protein bind to

A

histpone methylase

153
Q

when do you use HDAC idnhbiotrs

A

treat chornic lymphocytic leukemia

154
Q

when do you use DNMT inhbitors

A

acute myeloums leukmima

155
Q

deformation

A

extrsincic influence on development

156
Q

disruptive

A

distreuction of tissue

157
Q

symptom of patuae

A

cleft palate
polydayl
heart diesae

158
Q

edwands is caused by waht

A

nondisjunction

159
Q

what is the most common cause o fpatuea

A

13/14 unbalanced transloation

160
Q

symptom of turner

A

nuchal webbing
puffy hands and feet
short

random (16 decks)

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