BioBioChem 5 Molecular Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

defn DNA Genome

A

all of the DNA in the organism

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2
Q

Nuclear Genome has ___ chr

A

23

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3
Q

Mitochondrial genome has ____ _____ chromosome

A

1 circular chromosome

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4
Q

Mitochondrial genome is inherited by the ____

A

mom

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5
Q

Zygote (___loid, __n_

A

diploid, 2n

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6
Q

Cell cycle is G1 to ___ to G2 to ___

A

G1,S,G2,M

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7
Q

What part of the cell phase are most cells hanging out?

A

G1 (growth phase)

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8
Q

What is the S phase?

A

DNA rep

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9
Q

G2

A

Growth
-get big to divide

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10
Q

M phase

A

mitosis, meiosis

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11
Q

Defn DNA methylation

A

add CH3 to cytosine (C)

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12
Q

DNA methylation triggers gene ____ which means there is __ gene expression and causes heterochromatin formation and prevents transcription proteins from binding

A

silencing, no

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13
Q

histones proteins are ____charged and are a ___ concentration of amino acids (___ and ____)

A

positively, high, Arg (R), Lys (K)

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14
Q

DNA has a ___ charge because it has a ___ group

A

negative, phosphate

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15
Q

Heterochromatin is when we have ______ wound DNA around histones. (called _____)

A

tighlty, nucleosome

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16
Q

Defn Nuclesome

A

DNA around histone

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17
Q

Heterchromatin means there is no gene expression b/c…

A

DNA is inaccessible

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18
Q

We can add acetly groups to the histones which ____ off DNA from histones because they are ___ the charge

A

loosen, neutral

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19
Q

Histone acetylation forms ____

A

euchromatin

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20
Q

How do we get the DNA to loosen off the histones (euchromatin)

A

Histone acetylation

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21
Q

Euchromatin can have gene expression T/F

A

T

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22
Q

DNA methylation forms ___

A

heterochromatin

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23
Q

Histone acetylation forms ___

A

euchromatin

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24
Q

I can alsoform heterchromatin by ____ of histones

A

DEacetyaltion

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25
Q

I can also form euchromatin by ___ of DNA

A

DEmethylation

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26
Q

You can also methylate and phosphoylate the histone but must test for whether is forms heterchromatin or euchromatin

A
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27
Q

Between primary mRNA and mature mRNA there is ___ ______

A

RNA processing

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28
Q

RNA processing only occurs in ___ cells

A

Euk

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29
Q

Noncoding RNA exs (5)

A

tRNA
rRNA
SiRNA and MiRNA
SnRNA

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30
Q

promoter

A

where RNA polymerase binds

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31
Q

the coding strand is the ___ sequence as the RNA made except T is __

A

exact, U

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32
Q

A binds to __ in RNA

A

U (instead of T)

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33
Q

parts of the coding mRNA

A
  1. 5’ UTR (untranslated region)
  2. exons (codons)
  3. introns (optional in a gene, removed before translation)
  4. 3’ UTR
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34
Q

Introns are optional in a gene and are removed before ____

A

translation

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35
Q

How many bonds are there between A and U

A

2

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36
Q

How many bonds are there between C and G

A

3

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37
Q

RNA processing can also be called

A

post-transcriptome control

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38
Q

RNA processing is only in __ cells and is only for __ mRNA

A

euk, coding

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39
Q

What is the first step in RNA processing?

A

adding a 5’ cap (7-methylguanosine cap)

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40
Q

What does adding a 5’ cap do?

A

stability. (decreases mRNA breakdown)
40s ribosome (small unit) bind to start translation

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41
Q

What is the 2nd step of RNA processing?

A

add 3’ poly A tail (~300 A’s)

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42
Q

What is the purpose of adding a 3’ poly A tail

A

stability, role in translation

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43
Q

Splicing is when I remove RNA ____

A

introns

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44
Q

splicing (remove RNA introns) changes the seq to create the final mRNA to create ___ coding

A

protein

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45
Q

Alternative splicing is when we remove __ and some specific ____

A

introns, exons

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46
Q

Alternative splicing allows us to use the same DNA the same primary mRNA and results in a different ___

A

protein

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47
Q

mRNA is exported from the ___ to the ___

A

nucleus, cytosol

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48
Q

mRNA in the cytosol make ___

A

protein/peptide

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49
Q

exons/codons/coding region/open reading frame

A
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50
Q

Start Codon

A

AUG

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51
Q

AUG is for ___

A

Met (M)

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52
Q

What is the first amino acid in every protein?

A

Met

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53
Q

What are the three stop codons?

A

UAA, UGA, UAG

54
Q

At the stop codon the __ ___ binds, and the __ leaves

A

release factor, ribosome

55
Q

The ___s ribosome binds at the ___ cap and looks for ___

A

40s, 5’ cap, AUG

56
Q

5’ cap is the backwards __

A

G

57
Q

the ___s ribosome binds the AUG

A

60s

58
Q

Downstream always means toward the __’ end

A

3’

59
Q

Create peptide bonds as _____/____ with anticodon binds mRNA codons

A

tRNA/aa

60
Q

Protein modification is called a post-______ mod

A

translational

61
Q

DNA polymers are constructed from 4 ______, each consisting of a ____ group, _________ sugar and a ______ base

A

nucleotides, phosphate, nitrogenous

62
Q

Purines

A

PURE AG

63
Q

G has an ____ on a ring

A

oxygen (G looks like an O)

64
Q

Pyramide

A

cut py once (C,T,U). One ring

65
Q

Mutation for DNA where c-> is because of

A

deamination (loss of NH2)

66
Q

How can we distinguish DNA and RNA? which carbon

A

the 2nd carbon
If it is an H it is a deoxyribose
if it is a OH ribose (RNA)

67
Q

Nuceloside

A

Nitrogenous base attached to a ribose sugar

68
Q

Nucleotide

A

Nuceloside + phsophate group

69
Q

Does G and C have a higher melting point or A and T

A

G and C because they have 3 hydrogen bonds

70
Q

what enzymes unwinds DNA?

A

topoisomerase

71
Q

Prokaryotes have ____ origin of replication in a ____ chromosome

A

1, circular

72
Q

Lagging strands are also called _____ and are ________ replication

A

okazaki fragments, discontinuous

73
Q

_ sites for leading strands and __ sites for lagging strands

A

2, 2 (bidirectional)

74
Q

Helicase unwinds DNA strands (break __-bonds)

A

H-bonds

75
Q

Single stran binding proteins (SSC) keep ____

A

2 strands apart

76
Q

Leadings strands are made going ____ the fork

A

towards

77
Q

DNA pol III

A

new synthesis

78
Q

DNA pol I

A

has 3-5’ exonuclease for proofreading. It also has a 5-3’ exonuclease to remove RNA primers and replace with DNA

79
Q

What enzyme remoes RNA primers

A

DNA pol I

80
Q

DNA ligase

A

seals the gap
creates phosphodiester bond b/w 2 DNA fragments

81
Q

Fidelity also means

A

accuracy

82
Q

The ends of euk chromosomes are called ___

A

telomeres

83
Q

Telomerase (which lengthens telomeres) is active in (4)

A

fetus, stem cells, germ line cells, cancer

84
Q

A gene codes for the production of an ____ prodict

A

RNA

85
Q

rRNA

A

(ribosomal) RNA component of a ribsosome
-bind mRNA and hold in place in ribosome

86
Q

tRNA

A

transfer RNA
-bring an aa into the ribosome, tRNA anticodon binds the mRNA codon

87
Q

what two RNA are involved in translation

A

rRNA and tRNA

88
Q

siRNA and miRNA decide if ____ is translated

A

mRNA

89
Q

RNA can exit the nucleus, DNA —

A

cannot, remains in the nucleus

90
Q

TATA box is an AT rich area beacuse it makes it easier because it has __ bonds

A

2

91
Q

What types of compounds have RNA and protein?

A

Ribosome and splicesome

92
Q

snRNPs + snRNA is the ___

A

spliceosome

93
Q

Lariat

A

the removed sequence (most times made of introns)

94
Q

Splicing. What are the two rxns?

A

1st attack is the 5’ splice side (upstream)
2nd attack: attack of 3’ splice site (downstream)

95
Q

Unambiguous

A

a codon codes for an amino acid (very specific)

96
Q

Degenerative

A

one amino acid may have more than one 3 nucelotide (Proline) (CCC,CCG,CCA,CCU)

97
Q

What is the third position in the amino acid called?

A

wobble

98
Q

Wobble

A

the third nucleotide can loosely bind wrong base (this is okay for degenerative)

99
Q

Universal

A

nearly every living organism uses the same genetic code

100
Q

What are the 3 stop codons?

A

UAA - u are annoying
UGA - u go away
UAG - u are gone

101
Q

prok have a sedimentation co-efficient of ___ and ___ with a total of

A

30s and 50s (70s)

102
Q

Euk has a sedimentation co eff of __ and __ with a total of ___

A

40s 60s 80s

103
Q

shine Dalgarno sequence

A

SD boc at the 5’ UTR in prokaryptes

104
Q

The A site is where new ____ with amino acid enters

A

tRNA

105
Q

40s binds 5’ cap, scan to AUG. @AUG, initiator tRNA bind, large subunit binds, new tRNA in A site

A
106
Q

Secretory pathway is from the ___ to the _____ to the plasma membrane via _______

A

RER, Golgi, plasma membrane

107
Q

DNA mutations are ___stranded DNA changes

A

double

108
Q

Silent point mutation

A

single nucleotide is changed but has no effect because it is the same aa

109
Q

Missesne point mutation

A

a change in one nucleotide and causes a diff aa

110
Q

Nonsense point mutation

A

one nucletode change causes the codon to be a stop codon

111
Q

Frameshift mutations result from ___ or ___ of nucelotides in multiples other than 3

A

deletion, insertion

112
Q

Forward mutation will change the gene even ___ from its original change

A

more

113
Q

most mutations are ___

A

neutral

114
Q

Translocation is moving )))) to another chromosome

A

dsDNA

115
Q

Proto-oncogenes are ____ oncogenes are not

A

normal

116
Q

Oncogenes only need one copy to be gas pedal are are called a ____ function gene

A

gain of function gene

117
Q

A tumor suppressor gene is a gene whose product normally ____ the cell from unrestricted growth

A

protects

118
Q

Both copies must be nonfunctional to get cancer for which gene?

A

tumour suppressor gene

119
Q

How many chromosomes do humans have and what is their shape?

A

23 per genome x 2 = 46 and they are linear

120
Q

How are autosomal chromosomes organized?

A

largest to smallest

121
Q

XX is ___ XY is ___

A

female, male

122
Q

Tuner’s syndrome is ___

A

XO

123
Q

Kleinfelters is _ _ _

A

XXY

124
Q

a karyotpe is taken at which phase in mitosis?

A

metaphase

125
Q

2 chromosomes is 4 ____

A

chromatids

126
Q

what are common epigenetic changes? 2

A

DNA methylation
Histone modification: acetylation, methylation, phosphorylation

127
Q

what happens at each stage?G1, S, G2, mitosis

A

Growth, DNA rep, get bigger to divide, divide DNA

128
Q

Cytokinesis is when the cell ____

A

pinches into 2 different cells

129
Q

Prophase: DNA ____

A

condenses

130
Q
A