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Mice > BB AALA Ch10 Rodents > Flashcards

BB AALA Ch10 Rodents Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following symptoms IS NOT usually seen in a mouse with moderate pain?
    a. Roughened haircoat
    b. Piloerection
    c. Teeth grinding
    d. Eyes closed or squinted
    e. Hunched posture
A

c

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following IS NOT a sign of moderate pain in rats?
    a. Increased or decreased water intake
    b. Porphyrin staining around nose and eye
    c. Eye closed or squinted
    d. Brachypnea, increased 30% under baseline
    e. Pica, chewing on cage
    f. Twitching, tremor
    g. More aggressive or docile
A

d. Tachypenia increased 30% over the base line

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding guinea pigs experiencing pain?
    a. Exaggerated startle reflex
    b. Stampeding more
    c. Unusually quiet
    d. Porphyrin section around eyes and nose
A

c

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following considered general clinical signs of pain in mice?
    a. Absence of nest building
    b. Stretching
    c. Back-arching
    d. Increased low rearing
    e. Reduced high rearing, reduced exploring
    f. Cannibalism of offspring
    g. Altered sleep-wake cycle
    h. Altered group behavior (conspecific grooming, separation)
    i. Lying with legs crossed
    j. All of the above
A

j

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5
Q
  1. True or False: Genetically modified rodents may have unexpected variability in their response to anesthetics compared with background strains.
A

True

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following can affect the animal response to anesthetic?
    a. Obesity
    b. Pregnancy
    c. Bedding type (e.g., raw pine shaving)
    d. All of the above
A

d

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7
Q
  1. The choice of rodent anesthetics depends on which of the following statements?
    a. Duration of a procedure
    b. Scientific compatibility
    c. Whether a procedure is survival or non-survival
    d. The invasiveness of the procedure
    e. All of the above
A

e

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following IS NOT required for rats prior to use of injectable anesthetics?
    a. For transported animals a period of 24-72 hours of acclimation
    b. Fasting for at least 24 hours
    c. Measuring body weight
    d. All of the above are required
A

b

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9
Q
  1. True or False: Rodents are obligate nasal breathers.
A

True

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is COREECT regarding maximum volume per site using IM route in mice?
    a. 0.1 ml
    b. 0.05 ml
    c. 0.025 ml
    d. 0.01 ml
A

b

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11
Q
  1. What is the proper gauge of needle to be used for lateral tail vein injection in mice?
    a. <18G
A

c

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12
Q
  1. What is the maximum volume per site and needle gauge for SC (scruff or back) in rats?
    a. 5-10 ml, <20 G
A

a

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13
Q
  1. What is the maximum intravenous infusion volume for mice, gerbils and hamsters?
    a. 100 ml/kg
    b. 10 ml/kg
    c. 5 ml/kg
    d. 25ml/kg
A

d

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14
Q
  1. What is the maximum intravenous infusion volume for rats and guinea pigs?
A

20 ml/kg

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15
Q
  1. Why it is extremely important to provide thermal support peri-op and continuing throughout until full recovery?
    a. Because rodents have a high surface area to body mass
    b. Because fur is clipped
    c. Because liquid disinfectant is used
    d. Because animal is in contact with conductive surfaces such as metals
    e. All of the above
A

e

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16
Q
  1. True or False: Charcoal filtration is an effective method for removing nitrous oxide gas.
A

False

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17
Q
  1. True or False: Isoflurane can be administrated IV in mice when mixed with Intralipid.
A

True

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding MAC
    a. It stands for minimum alveolar concentration
    b. Anesthetic with high MAC have a relatively high potency
    c. (MAC) is defined as an end- tidal concentration of inhaled anesthetic required to prevent purposeful movement (positive motor response) in 50% of subjects to somatic noxious stimuli.
    d. MAC is comparable to ED50 (effective dose when 50% of patients are anesthetized).
A

b

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is the CORRECT ranking of MAC of volatile anesthetic from low to high?
    a. isoflurane, halothane, sevoflurane, desflurane
    b. sevoflurane, desflurane, halothane, isoflurane
    c. isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane, halothane
    d. halothane, isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane
A

d

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20
Q
  1. True or False: The primary negative side effect of all volatile anesthetic is an agent-dependent depression of cardiovascular system.
A

True

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21
Q
  1. True or False: Isoflurane creates more profound myocardial depression compared to halothane
A

False, reverse is true

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22
Q
  1. True or False: Isoflurane may be the best inhalant anesthetic agent to be used in rodent models of human traumatic brain injury.
A

True

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23
Q
  1. Cardioprotective effects of isoflurane can last how many days following the anesthetic episode in mice?
    a. 5 days
    b. 1 day
    c. 10 days
    d. 14 days
A

d

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about isoflurane?
    a. Gastrointestinal system is generally spared of side effects
    b. Isoflurane is only minimally metabolized by the liver
    c. Isoflurane can have both protective and deleterious effect on lungs
    d. Isoflurane should never be used for pregnant or neonatal rodents
A

d

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25
Q
  1. True or False: Isoflurane may have a hyperalgesic effect if the inhaled concentration becomes too low. Therefore all the painful procedures should be completed before lowering the dose of isoflurane.
A

True

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about halothane?
    a. Halothane is a potent bronchodilator
    b. Halothane has neuroprotective effects
    c. Of all the volatile inhalants, halothane has been shown to have the most d. extensive effects on the cardiopulmonary system during anesthesia
    e. all of the above
A

d

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27
Q
  1. True or False: Repeated anesthesia with halothane and sevoflurne produces a peripheral leukopenia and lymphopenia that lasts several days
A

True

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of using Sevoflurane?
    a. Slow induction
    b. Production of a nephrotoxic by-product called Compound A
    c. Slow recovery
    d. Deleterious effect on pulmonary system
A

b

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following anesthetic require highly specialized vaporizer due to its low boiling point
    a. Halothane
    b. Sevoflurane
    c. Desflurane
    d. Methoxy flurane
A

c

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most soluble volatile agent in the blood and brain, thus the most potent inhalant?
    a. Methoxyflurane
    b. Desflurane
    c. Isoflurane
    d. Enflurane
A

a

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31
Q
  1. True or False: Enflurane has lower margin of safety in rats compared to Isoflurane; therefore, the use of this inhalant in rodents is not recommended.
A

True

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding use of CO2 for anesthesia?
    a. It can be used for short-term procedures
    b. It is highly aversive to both mice and rats
    c. It has a wide margin between anesthesia and euthanasia
    d. It increases corticosterone release in rats
A

c

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding nitrous oxide?
    a. Low solubility in the blood
    b. Minimal cardiopulmonary depression
    c. It is seldom used in rodents
    d. Low toxicity
    e. Mostly used as a sole anesthetic agent for surgeries
A

e

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct about using xenon as anesthetic?
    a. Has profound neuroprotective effects due to NMDA antagonism
    b. Has cardioprotective effect
    c. A only
    d. Both a and b are correct
A

d

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35
Q
  1. True or False: Sevoflurane and isoflurane potentiate seizure and arrhythmia activity in rats given concurrent high doses of IV bupivicaine.
A

True

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following routes IS NOT recommended for the injectable anesthetics because the induction of anesthesia is prolonged and variable on onset?
    a. IM
    b. IP
    c. SC
    d. IV
A

c

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about ketamine?
    a. Ketamine is a noncompetitive NMDA receptor antagonist
    b. It has an analgesic property
    c. It produces adequate muscle relaxation
    d. Salivation is increased, but laryngeal and pharyngeal reflexes are retained.
    e. Occasional production of apneustic ventilation
    f. Ability to produce a cataleptic state characterized by CNS excitement rather than depression
A

c

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about Xylazine?
    a. Produces sedation and relaxation
    b. May elicit significant tachycardia and sinoarterial
    c. Sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines
    d. It has analgesic property
    e. Increases peripheral vascular resistance
A

b, causes bradycardia, it is atropine sensitive

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs IS NOT a xylazine antagonist?
    a. Yohimbine
    b. Tolazoline
    c. Flumazenil
    d. Atipamezole
    e. idazoxan
A

c

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40
Q
  1. Adverse side effect of ketamine/xylazine includes:
    a. Hypothermia up to 4ºC over 60 minutes of anesthesia
    b. Ocular lesions
    c. Muscle necrosis following IM injections
    d. All of the above
A

d

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about Medetomidine?
    It is an alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist
    Medetomidine specificity for alpha-2 adrenoreceptor is lower than xylazine
    Medetomidine has fewer side effects
    Atipamezole can be used for reversal
A

b, Meditomidine has 10X more specificity for alpha-2 adrenoreceptor than xylazine

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42
Q
  1. True or False: Male mice are more resistant to the effect of ketamine/meditomidine combination)
A

False, reverse is true

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43
Q
  1. Which of the following drug can be used for diazepam (valium) reversal?
    a. Atipamizole
    b. Nalbuphine
    c. Yohimbine
    d. Flumazenil
A

d

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44
Q
  1. Ketaset plus is combination of ketamine with which of the following drugs?
    a. Butyrophenones
    b. Xylazine
    c. Diazepam
    d. Promazine
A

d

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following may be observed animals when combination of Ketamine/promazine used as anesthetic?
    a. Suppression of protective reflexes (coughing, swallowing)
    b. Produce only light anesthesia
    c. Hypothermia and hypotension
    d. All of the above
A

d

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46
Q
  1. Neuroleptic agents such as azperone, droperidol, haloperidol belong to which group of drugs?
    a. Butyophenones
    b. Phenothiazine
    c. Benzodiazipam
    d. opioids
A

a

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47
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding sodium pentobarbital?
    a. Minimal analgesic effect
    b. Mice and rats may experience initial hyperexcitability
    c. Assessment of pedal reflex is a poor indicator of anesthetic depth
    d. Broad margin of safety
    e. Male rats clear the drug more rapidly than females
A

d

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48
Q
  1. Which of the following is a long acting barbiturate?
    a. sodium pentobarbital
    b. pentobarbitone
    c. Thiobarbital (Inactin)
    d. Thiopental
A

c

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about Thiopental?
    a. Ultra short acting barbiturate
    b. Increases heart rate (depression of the vegal center)
    c. It is irritant (high pH)
    d. The best route for drug administration is IP route
    e. Causes significant respiratory depression
A

d, it is IV

50
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about propofol?
    a. May cause direct myocardial depression
    b. The open vial must be discarded within one month if unused.
    c. The major advantage of the propofol is the lack of residual effects following administration.
    d. Bolus injection may result in apnea and hypotension
A

b, The open vial must be discarded within 6 hours if unused

51
Q
  1. Which is the CORRECT statement regarding use of Tribromoethanol (Avertin) as anesthetic?
    a. Poor muscle relaxation
    b. High mortality
    c. It is a controlled substance
    d. Minimal cardiodepressive effect
    e. Pharmaceutical grade is currently available
A

d

52
Q
  1. What is the shelf life of the reconstituted Avertin solution?
    a. 2 weeks
    b. 1 month
    c. 6 months
    d. 3 months
A

a

53
Q
  1. Which of the following adverse reactions can be seen in animals caused by Avertin by-products?
    a. Fibrous adhesion in the abdominal cavity
    b. Local irritation
    c. Acute inflammatory changes
    d. All of the above
A

d

54
Q
  1. To avoid the potential for inflammatory peritoneal lesions secondary to Avertin toxic by-products and bacterial infection, which of the following should be done?
    a. Avertin should be dissolved only in tertiary amyl alcohol
    b. Filtration of solution
    c. Protect the vial from light
    d. All of the above
A

d

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT about telazol?
    a. It is the combination of a dissociative agent (tiletamine) and a muscle relaxant (Zolazepam)
    b. Tiletamine is more potent that ketamine
    c. It is a schedule II-controlled substance.
    d. Animals will maintain cough, swallowing, corneal and pedal reflexes under anesthesia
A

c, it is class III

56
Q
  1. True or False: Telzol is not recommended for solitary use in mice or hamsters due to difficulties in inducing anesthesia and narrow margin of safety.
A

True

57
Q
  1. Neuroleptanalgesics consist of which of the following drug combinations?
    a. Opioid analgesic and a potent tranquilizer
    b. A hypnotic agent and a potent tranquilizer
    c. Barbiturate and a potent analgesic
    d. A dissociative and a potent analgesic
A

a

58
Q
  1. Which drug can be used to reverse the effect of fentanyl?
    a. Flumazenil
    b. Atipamezole
    c. Naloxone
    d. None of the above
A

c

59
Q
  1. True or False: Hypnorm/midazolam is recommended as the anesthetic choice for longitudinal studies of somatosensory-evoked potential (SEPs) in rats.
A

True

60
Q
  1. True or False: Hypnorm is commercially available in the USA
A

False

61
Q
  1. alpha-2 adrenergic agonists such as xylazine are commonly used to supplement which primary anesthetic in laboratory rodents?
    a. thiopental
    b. propofol
    c. ketamine
    d. fentanyl
A

c

62
Q
  1. True or False: xylazine provides analgesia.
A

True

63
Q
  1. Which combination is the most commonly used injectable combination for anesthesia of laboratory rodents?
    a. ketamine/medetomadine
    b. ketamine/xylazine
    c. ketamine/diazepam
    d. ketamine/acepromazine
A

b

64
Q
  1. The reversal agent for medetomadine is:
    a. yohimbine
    b. tolazoline
    c. atipamezole
    d. all of the above
A

c

65
Q
  1. Reversal agents for alpha-2 adrenergic agonists reverse all but which of the following drug effects?
    a. hypothermia
    b. bradycardia
    c. bradypnea
    d. polyuria
A

a

66
Q
  1. True or False: Xylazine has been documented to cause hyperglycemia in C57CL/6 mice.
A

True

67
Q
  1. Which is the most widely used phenothiazine tranquilizer in rodents?
A

Acepromazine

68
Q
  1. What is the major activity of benzodiazepines?
    a. Sedative
    b. Anticonvulsant
    c. Muscle relaxant
    d. b and c
A

d

69
Q
  1. True or False: Opioid analgesia is ineffective against visceral pain
A

False. Opioids are effective against visceral pain.

70
Q
  1. Which agent causes minimal depression of cardiac function and can therefore be used where cardiovascular parameters are under study?
    a. xylazine
    b. acepromazine
    c. morphine
    d. none of the above
A

c

71
Q
  1. What is the order potency for these opioids?:
    a. morphine > fentanyl > meperidine >oxymorphone
    b. oxymorphone > morphine > fentanyl > meperidine
    c. fentanyl > oxymorphone > morphine > meperidine
    d. fentanyl > oxymorphone > meperidine > morphine
A

c

72
Q
  1. True or False: The effects of morphine are species specific.
A

True

73
Q
  1. Which statement regarding buprenorphine is FALSE?
    a. Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist
    b. Buprenorphine has high affinity for the mu-opioid receptor
    c. Buprenorphine is rapid in onset and short in duration
    d. Buprenorphine may be used for pre-emptive analgesia
A

c

74
Q
  1. Which of the following agents is a pure competitive agonist to opioids?
    a. Nalorphine hydrochloride
    b. Naloxone hydrochloride
    c. Levallorphan tartrate
    d. none of the above
A

b

75
Q
  1. What are the two most useful injectable anesthetics for local or regional anesthesia in rodents?
A

lidocaine and bupivacaine

76
Q
  1. True or False: Of the two common local anesthetics, bupivacaine has a faster onset and shorter duration of action than lidocaine
A

False. Bupivacaine has a slower onset and longer duration of action

77
Q
  1. True or False: In most institutions, the use of paralyzing agents requires specific written justification in the animal care and use protocol.
A

True

78
Q
  1. Which statement regarding inactin is FALSE:
    a. Inactin is a barbiturate
    b. Inactin cannot be used with ketamine
    c. Inactin is a sedative
    d. Inactin is a hypnotic
A

b

79
Q
  1. Alpha chloralose is transformed into trichloroethanol, which is the same active compound that is transformed from which other anesthetic:
    a. Urethane
    b. Inactin
    c. Ether
    d. Chloral hydrate
A

d

80
Q
  1. True or False: Alpha chloralase anesthesia results in a loss of consciousness but an increase in reflex activity.
A

True

81
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding urethane is TRUE:
    a. Urethane may not be used for long duration anesthesia
    b. Urethane is rapidly metabolized
    c. Urethane causes liver damage and pulmonary edema
    d. Urethane is noncarcenogenic
A

c

82
Q
  1. True or False: Ether is seldom used anymore because it is explosive and is a respiratory irritant
A

True

83
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding choral hydrate is FALSE:
    a. Chloral hydrate is one of the first anesthetics used in veterinary medicine

b. Chloral hydrate has a wide margin of safety
c. Chloral hydrate is a gastric irritant
d. Chloral hydrate is a good hypnotic with minimal analgesic properties

A

b

84
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding Saffan is TRUE?
    a. It is approved for use in the United States
    b. It can be given repeatedly
    c. Its is composed of the steroids alphaxolone-alphadolone
    d. b and c
A

d

85
Q
  1. What are two primary concerns in the use of neuromuscular blocking agents?
A

verification of analgesia, ventilation

86
Q
  1. Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents compete with acetylcholine at postsynaptic receptors. What is an example of this type of agent?
    a. succinylcholine
    b. atracurium
    c. vecuronium
    d. b and c
A

d

87
Q
  1. Neostigmine and physostigmine act to reverse the effects of which agents?
    a. nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
    b. depolarizing neuromuscular agents
    c. opioids
    d. none of the above
A

a

88
Q
  1. True or False: Respiratory depression is seen more in kappa opioid receptor agonists than in mu and delta opioid receptor agonists.
A

False. Respiratory depression is seen more in mu- and delta-agonists.

89
Q
  1. Which statement regarding morphine is TRUE?
    a. morphine is a mu-agonist
    b. morphine is long-acting
    c. morphine is less likely to cause ileus in rats than mice
    d. mice do not develop tolerance to morphine
A

a

90
Q
  1. Buprenorphine relieves many types of pain. Which type is it generally LESS effective against?
    a. neuropathic
    b. thermal
    c. inflammatory
    d. mechanically-induced
A

d

91
Q
  1. Rats exhibit a dose-dependent response to the tail-flick test when buprenorphine is administered up to the maximum effective dose of:
    a. 10 mg/kg
    b. 0.2 mg/kg
    c. 2.5 mg/kg
    d. 1 mg/kg
A

c

92
Q
  1. Which agent may produce acute variations in circulating sex hormones in the rat when administered parenterally?
    a. buprenorphine
    b. fentanyl
    c. tramadol
    d. all of the above
A

d

93
Q
  1. True or False: Opioids that are mixed kappa-agonists and mu-antagonists can be used to reverse mu-agonists but still provide analgesia in cases of severe pain.
A

False. This applies to cases of minor pain only.

94
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a major action of acetaminophen?
    a. anti-pyrexic
    b. analgesic
    c. anti-inflammatory
    d. they are all major actions of the drug
A

c

95
Q
  1. Ibuprofen, carprofen and naproxen all belong to which group of NSAIDs?
A

propionic acid derivatives

96
Q
  1. Ibuprofen exhibits synergistic analgesic effects with which agent EXCEPT:
    a. hydrocodone
    b. oxycodone
    c. fentanyl
    d. caffeine
A

c

97
Q
  1. Which statement regarding dipyrone is FALSE?
    a. Dipyrone has been shown to relieve inflammatory and visceral pain.
    b. Tolerance to dipyrone develops with repeated dosing.
    c. Dipyrone seems to be associated with the COX pathway.
    d. Dipyrone is recommended for adjuvant-induced arthritis models.
A

c

98
Q
  1. Which pathway do celecoxib and parecoxib specifically inhibit?
A

COX-2

99
Q
  1. True or False: Celecoxib is highly effective for preemptive analgesia.
A

True

100
Q
  1. Meloxicam is INeffective as an analgesic for which type of pain?
    a. inflammatory
    b. visceral distention
    c. neuropathic
    d. none of the above
A

b

101
Q
  1. What is the primary mechanism of indomethacin?
    a. specific COX-2 inhibition
    b. specific COX-1 inhibition
    c. opioid receptor agonism
    d. nonselective COX-1/COX-2 inhibition
A

d

102
Q
  1. Dexamethasone provides significant pain relief from which type of pain?
    a. inflammatory
    b. mechanical
    c. neuropathic
    d. a and b
A

a

103
Q
  1. True or False: Both continuous and bolus administration of morphine results in significant immune alteration in rats.
A

False. Chronic continuous administration of morphine in rats results in no significant immune alteration.

104
Q
  1. True or False: Fentanyl has been shown to have greater effects on the immune system than buprenorphine.
A

True

105
Q
  1. Which of the following agents has the potential for use in inflammation studies, where the alleviation of pain might be achieved without alteration of the inflammatory cascade?
    a. dipyrone
    b. carprofen
    c. acetaminophen
    d. a and c
A

d

106
Q
  1. Which publication stipulates that for experiments involving late-term rodent fetuses after their removal from mothers euthanized without anesthesia, guidelines for anesthesia and analgesia in neonates should be followed?
A

The Guidelines for the Care and Use of Mammals in Neuroscience and Behavioral Research.

107
Q
  1. What is the most common method of anesthesia in neonatal altricial rodents?
    a. isoflurane inhalation
    b. halothane inhalation
    c. hypothermia
    d. ketamine
A

c

108
Q
  1. True or False: Exposure to stressful or painful stimuli as a neonate can alter a rodent’s nociception later in life.
A

True

109
Q
  1. What statement regarding anesthesia in rodents is FALSE?
    a. Mortality has been shown to decrease significantly in mice receiving saline prior to recovery
    b. Hypothermia is likely the most important cause of anesthetic mortality in mice
    c. Weight loss is typically seen during anesthetic and recovery periods
    d. none of the above
A

d

110
Q
  1. Rodents other than laboratory rats and mice are covered by the Animal Welfare Act. Which USDA Policy requires that these animals receive appropriate relief to potentially painful or distressful procedures?
    a. Policy 3
    b. Policy 11
    c. Policy 8
    d. Policy 13
A

b

111
Q
  1. True or False: The guinea pig is one of the most difficult laboratory animal species to intubate due to its tongue anatomy.
A

True

112
Q
  1. Which of the following agents has been found to be completely INeffective as an analgesic in the guinea pig?
    a. meloxicam
    b. naproxen
    c. telazol
    d. none of the above
A

c

113
Q
  1. Ketamine/xylazine administered prior to inhalation anesthesia can prevent what problem in guinea pigs?
    a. hypothermia
    b. breath-holding
    c. hyperthermia
    d. bradycardia
A

b

114
Q
  1. Which inhalant anesthetic has been shown to be hepatotoxic in some guinea pig strains?
    a. isoflurane
    b. sevoflurane
    c. halothane
    d. methoxyflurane
A

c

115
Q
  1. Which NSAID is ototoxic in guinea pigs at relatively low doses?
    a. naproxen
    b. meloxicam
    c. aspirin
    d. indomethacin
A

c

116
Q
  1. Which agent has NOT been shown to be a safe and effective parenteral anesthetic in Syrian hamsters?
    a. chloral hydrate
    b. xylazine
    c. ketamine
    d. Telazol
A

a

117
Q
  1. True or False: Phodopus species typically require higher doses of ketamine than other hamsters.
A

False. Phodopus species are more sensitive to ketamine.

118
Q
  1. What complication has been shown to occur in many hamsters injected IM with various anesthetics?
    a. severe respiratory depression
    b. muscle necrosis
    c. poor absorption and minimal resulting anesthesia
    d. all of the above
A

b

119
Q
  1. Low doses of morphine have been shown to result in what behavioral effect in hamsters?
    a. increased male sexual activity
    b. decreased male sexual activity
    c. increased female sexual response
    d. decreased female sexual response
A

d

120
Q
  1. Meperidine and morphine have been implicated in increased aggressive behavior in what rodent species?
    a. woodchuck
    b. gerbil
    c. Richardson’s ground squirrel
    d. naked mole rat
A

d

Mice (20 decks)

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