basic principles Flashcards

1
Q

name a number of classic P450 inducers

A
quinidine
barbs,
st johns wart
phenytoin
rifampin 
griseovulvin
carbamezapine
chronic ETOH
croticosteroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

name a number of inhibitors

A
HIV protease inhibitor (ritonavir)
isoniazid
sulfonamides
cimetidine
ketoconazole
grape fruit juice
omeprazole
chloremphenicol
macrolides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do neonates have reduced activity of

A

glucuronidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what do CYP450 require

A

oxygen for oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

genetic variations in what give drug induced-SLE

A

slow acetylation!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what path of metabolism does chloremphenicol use

A

glucuronidation thats why babies get gray baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what path of metabolism does hydralazine use

A

acetylation. this is why it can cause SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the equation for loading dose

A

Vd X Cp/F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the equation for maintenance dose

A

Cl X Cp/F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the equation for Vd

A

dose/[drug]p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the equation for the half-life

A

t1/2 = 0.7 X Vd/Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the antidote for salicylate

A

sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

antidote for irreversible anticholinesterase

A

atropine and PAM-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

anticholinergics antidote

A

physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

beta blockers antidote

A

glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

digitalis antidote

A

digibind, electrolyte stabilize (k+), lidocaine and mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

antidote for Iron

A

deferoxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lead antidote

A

ca-EDTA, dimercaperol, succimer, penicillamnine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

arsenic, gold, mercury

A

dimercaprol, succimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

copper

A

penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cyanide

A

nitrite, hydroxcobalamin, thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

methemaglobin

A

methylene blue, vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

antidote for TCA

A

sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

tPA/sterptokinase antidote

A

aminocaproic acid

25
Q

theophylline antidote

A

beta-blockers

26
Q

what can cause atropine-like symptoms

A

TCA and antihistamines

27
Q

what causes dilated cardiomyopathy

A

doxirubicin and daunorubcin

28
Q

what can cause coronary vasospasm

A

cocaine, sumatriptan

29
Q

cutaneous flushing

A

vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, ca-channel blockers,

30
Q

torsades

A

class III (sotalol) and class I (quinidine),

31
Q

what do we treat torsades

A

magnesium

32
Q

what drugs cause agranulocytosis

A

clozapine, carbamazepine, colchicine, PTU, methimazole, dapsone

33
Q

aplastic anemia

A

chloremphenacol, benzene, NSAIDs, felbamate, quinine, phenytoin

34
Q

gray baby

A

chlorempenicol

35
Q

G6PD hemolytic anemia

A

isoniazid, sulfa drugs, aspirin, ibuprofen, nitrofurantoin, primaquin

36
Q

megaloblastic anemia

A

methotrexate, sulfa drugs. phenytoin.

37
Q

thrombosis

A

contraceptives

38
Q

pumonary fibrosis

A

bleomycin, amiodarone, busulfan

39
Q

hepatitis

A

isoniazid

40
Q

cholestatic hepatitis

A

macrolides (a and c)

41
Q

hepatic necrosis

A

halothane, valproic, acetaminophen,

42
Q

pseudomembranous colitis

A

clindomycin, ampicillin, cephalosporins

43
Q

pancreatitis

A

azothioprine, sulfonymides, valproic, corticosteroids, sulindac, tetracyclin,

44
Q

gynecomastia

A

spironolactone, digitalis, cimetidine, alcohol, estrogens, ketoconazole

45
Q

hypothyroidism

A

lithium, amiodarone

46
Q

gingival hyperplasia

A

phenytoin

47
Q

gout

A

furosemide, thiazides

48
Q

osteoporosis

A

corticosteroids, heparin

49
Q

photosensitivity

A

sulfonamides, amiodarone, tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones

50
Q

SJS

A

sulfa drugs, penicillin, carbamazepine, allopurinol

51
Q

SLE

A

hydralazine, isoniazid, procainamide, phenytoin

52
Q

tendon rupture

A

quinolones

53
Q

diabetes insipidus

A

lithium and domeclocyline

54
Q

seizures

A

bupropion (bulimics), imipenem, INH, penicillin at high doses

55
Q

parkinson-like syndrome

A

haloperidol, chlopromazine, reserpine, metoclopramide

56
Q

disulfiram reaction

A

metronidazole, procarbazine, sulfonylureas, cephalosporins.

57
Q

what are symptoms of sulfa allergy

A

pruritic rash, fever, SJS, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, uritcaria

58
Q

what drugs cause the sulfadrug allergy

A

sulfonamide antibiotics, TMP-SMX, acetazolamide, furosemide, thiazides, sulfasalazine, celecoxib, probenacid