Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Systemics- GI > Bacteria and some fungi > Flashcards

Bacteria and some fungi Flashcards

1
Q

General syndromes associated with salmonellosis

A

Enterocolitis
Sepsis
Abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Host adapted serotype and species affected

A

S. Dublin-cattle
S. Cholerasuis-swine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What enhances S. Cholerasuis infection?

A

Classical swine fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Non host adapted serotype and species affected

A

S. Typhimurium - most species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Extent of organism infiltration in localized enterocolitis; how do they disseminate?

A

Mucosa (intracellular in enterocytes) and lymph nodes; in macs or free in lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Virulence factor responsible for invasion; location in GI

A

Type III secretion system; ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Characteristic feature of salmonella

A

Flagella allow motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Feature of salmonella that allows for adherence

A

Fimbriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does salmonella irreversibly adhere to enterocytes?

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ultrastructural changes with salmonellosis

A

Large numbers of organisms in the lumen (within Salmonella containing vacuoles), along the surface of the brush border, and in enterocytes
Microvilli degeneration-loss of filamentous cores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Intracellular location of Salmonella; what cells are not infected?

A

Within membrane bound vacuoles in enterocytes, and macrophages in the lamina propria; crypt epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the lipopolysaccharide wall composed of in salmonella?

A

O-specific side chain, a core portion, and a lipid A portion (endotoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cause of diarrhea in salmonella

A

Active electrolyte secretion- Effector proteins from SPI1 (Salmonella pathogenicity island) induce secretory diarrhea by blocking chloride channel closure
Malabsorption due to reduced mucosal surface area
Inflammatory exudation (pseudo membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cause of enterocyte loss in salmonella

A

Invasion with bacteria and neutrophil recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common vascular lesion in salmonella

A

Mucosal venule thrombosis due to endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Salmonella causes what gross lesions in pigs; in cattle? in avian? In snakes?

A

Sepsis or enteritis with button ulcers- cholerasuis
Acute or chronic enterocolitis- typhimurium
Ulcerative enterocolitis- typhisuis
Cattle- fibrinous cholecystitis (S. dublin)
Avian- caseous ceal cores (S. pullorum)
Snakes- osteomyelitis (S. arizonae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is s typhimurium different from cholerasuis

A

Lesions are confined to colon, cecum, rectum
No button ulcers
No sepsis
Ulcerative proctitis and rectal stricture
Cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Horses are predisposed to salmonella if

A

Antibiotic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common salmonella serotype in horses; disease caused

A

S. Typhimurium;
Peracute sepsis- foals
Acute and chronic enteric- older horses, cecum and colon, button ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Two most common salmonella serotype in cattle

A

S. Typhimurium and S. Dublin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Emerging salmonella in cattle

A

S. Newport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If an affected cow is less than 1 week, its probably not salmonella, its __________

A

Colibacillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Salmonellosis in calves vs adults

A

Calves- febrile, dehydration, diarrhea
Adults- chronic diarrhea and wasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which serotype causes abortions and prolonged carrier state in cattle?

A

S. Dublin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In which species is salmonellosis rare, but severe

A

Sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Key histo in liver with salmonellosis

A

Paratyphoid nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clostridium perfringens type C is gram ____; Produces what toxins? features of toxins?

A

Positive; Alpha and beta; beta toxin is trypsin labile (only works in neonates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Key histo for C. perfringens type C

A

Acute hemorrhagic necrotizing enteritis, maybe with pseudomembranes and vasculitis,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clostridium colinum is gram _____; causes what disease? key histo?

A

Positive; Quail disease; Acute transmural ulcerative enteritis and necrotizing hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Clostridium septicum is gram _____; causes what disease in ruminants? In poultry? Produces what toxin?

A

Positive; Braxy; Gangrenous dermatitis Alpha toxin (pore forming cytolysin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Clostridium septicum is associated with ______ (season)

A

Cold weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Clostridium septicum key histo

A

Abomasal edema, emphysema, necrosis and hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum is gram _____; produces what toxin; key histo?

A

Negative; leukocidin; necrosis with filamentous bacteria in liver, rumen, larynx (calf diphtheria), pododermatitis, necrotic rhinitis (bullnose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does fusobacterium cause in NHPs?

A

Necrotizing stomatitis (Noma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The only gram negative clostridium is ____________. How is it different from other gram negative bacteria?

A

Clostridium piliforme; no LPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What disease does C. piliforme cause?

A

Tyzzer’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What animal is particularly susceptible to Tyzzer’s

A

Mongolian gerbil, and DBA/2 mouse strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the classic lesion in rats with tyzzer’s

A

Megaloileitis

38
Q

What is the classic triad of systems affected by Tyzzer’s?

A

Heart, Liver, Intestines

39
Q

Key histo with Tyzzer’s

A

Multifocal random necrosis
Intracellular haystacks in enterocytes and hepatocytes

40
Q

Shigella flexneri/dysenteriae are gram ____________ rods; _______ makes dysentariae most pathogenic

A

Negative; Shiga toxin

41
Q

What virulence factors does S. flexneri have? Virulence factor of all species?

A

Cytotoxin
Enterotoxin; Type III secretion system

42
Q

What organ in what species is classically affected by Shigella? Key histo?

A

Large intestine of NHPs; Necrotizing colitis with pseudomembranes over Peyer’s patches with crypt herniation

43
Q

Alternative presentation in NHPs without colitis

A

Oral/gingival necrosis

44
Q

How to differentiate Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis from other mycobacteria species? (microbio)

A

IS900 insertion sequence phenotype

45
Q

Virulence factors for MAP

A

Lipid rich cell wall
Peroxidase
Man-LAM receptor
M2 macrophage response (multibacillary)

46
Q

Where is MAP usually? Why?

A

Ileocecal junction; highest concentration of iron

47
Q

Key histo for MAP

A

Transmural granulomatous enteritis and lymphangitis

48
Q

What does Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex cause?

A

Avian mycobacteriosis- granulomas in coelom, intestines, liver, spleen

49
Q

Avian mycobacteriosis virulence factors

A

Mycolic acid cell wall
Nramp genes

50
Q

Frequent associated lesion with mycobacterium avium

A

Amyloidosis

51
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica is a gram _______ bacillus; key feature

A

Gram negative; colony forming

52
Q

Y enterolitica and pseudotuberculosis both cause

A

Enteritis and sepsis (can’t differentiate)

53
Q

Yersinia virulence factors

A

Type III Secretion system
Yops (mess with actin)
Invasion of M cells

54
Q

Chlamydia psittaci is a gram ________ bacteria; key histo

A

Gram negative; Fibrinous serositis, liver/spleen necrosis and granulomas; inclusion body-like colonies of bacteria

55
Q

Infectious form and replicative form?

A

Elementary bodies infectious
Reticulate bodies metabolically active replicative

56
Q

Enterotoxigenic E.Coli (ETEC) is gram ________; causes what?

A

Gram negative; neonatal diarrhea

57
Q

ETEC causes disease by ______________; where is it?

A

Stimulates secretory diarrhea via enterotoxins; in mucus layer covering surface of villi (don’t damage enterocytes)

58
Q

Virulence factors of ETEC?

A

Fimbriae or Pili- attach to enterocytes
Enterotoxins, heat labile (LT- cAMP) and heat stable (ST- STa, STb, EAST1)

59
Q

Francisella tularensis is a gram _________; vectors?

A

Gram negative; tick (dermacentor or amblyomma) and arthropod

60
Q

Francisella key histo

A

Lytic necrosis of kidney, liver, spleen, LN

61
Q

Enterpathogenic E.Coli (EPEC) causes what? Key histo

A

Attaching-effacing E.coli; Bacteria on mucosal surface with enterocyte damage (villus atrophy, etc.)

62
Q

EPEC is worse if it produces what? What is it then called?

A

Shiga toxin aka verotoxin (cytotoxins); STEC or EHEC

63
Q

What three things has STEC been associated with in greyhounds?

A

Dysentery, hemolytic uremic syndrome, and cutaneous edema/ulceration

64
Q

What causes edema disease in pigs? Classic lesion?

A

STEC (enterotoxemia); Mesocolonic edema

65
Q

Lawsonia intracellularis is a gram __________, _________ bacteria; stain used; region of GI targeted

A

Gram negative, curved; Silver stain (warthin-starry); terminal ileum

66
Q

What species (4) are affected by Lawsonia?

A

Swine, hamsters, ferrets, horse

67
Q

Three forms of Lawsonia in pigs

A

Porcine proliferative enteropathy (post-weaning)
Necrotic enteritis
Proliferative hemorrhagic enteropathy (young adults)

68
Q

Which species gets hypoproteinemia with Lawsonia? What other form of disease do they get?

A

Horse; Phlegmonous gastritis (confined to submucosa)

69
Q

Classic gross lesion with Lawsonia (although can look different)

A

Cerebriform thickening

70
Q

Key histo with Lawsonia

A

Bacteria in apical cytoplasm, crypt epithelial proliferation (adenomatosis), loss of goblet cells

71
Q

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae causes what disease? Is a gram ___________ ___________; stain used

A

Swine dysentery; gram negative spirochete; Warthin starry

72
Q

Region of GI affected by brachyspira; What is chemotactic for brachyspira?

A

Colon/cecum; mucin

73
Q

What is associated with swine dysentery?

A

Increased MUC2 and MUC5AC
Decreased MUC4 and TGF beta

74
Q

Key histo with brachyspira? How is this different from Lawsonia?

A

Mucohemorrhagic colitis; goblet cell hyperplasia instead of loss

75
Q

Helicobacter mustelae is a gram ______ ____________; Stain?

A

Gram negative curved, spiral bacillus; Warthin starry

76
Q

What is helicobacter associated with in mice?

A

Typhlocolitis; A strain mice- hepatocellular tumors

77
Q

What is helicobacter associated with in ferrets?

A

Gastritis; Gastric adenocarcinoma

78
Q

What organism causes bacillary hemoglobinuria? What parasite is it associated with?

A

Clostridium haemolyticum; Fasciola hepatica migration

79
Q

Clostridium haemolyticum is a gram __________; virulence factor

A

Gram positive; hemolytic beta toxin (phospholipase C) destroys cell membranes of hepatocytes and erythrocytes

80
Q

Key histo with Clostridium haemolyticum

A

Large, well demarcated hepatic necrosis surrounded by hyperemic zone with single or chains of bacilli at margins

81
Q

What causes mycotic rumenitis?

A

Mucoromycetes (mucor, rhizopus, absidia)

82
Q

Key histo with mycotic rumenitis?

A

Angioinvasion, necrotizing vasculitis, infarction, thrombosis
Pauciseptate, thin-walled, non-parallel, non-dichotomous branching hyphae with bulbous dilations

83
Q

Prototheca are _________________

A

Unicellular endosporulating alga

84
Q

What does prototheca cause in cows? Dogs? Cats?

A

Cows- mastitis
Dogs- GI or disseminated
Cats- Cutaneous

85
Q

Predisposed breeds for prototheca

A

Boxer and collies

86
Q

Key histo for prototheca

A

Sporangia with internal septations and endospores; hemorrhagic ulcerative enterocolitis

87
Q

Pythium is an ___________

A

Oomycete (no chitin in cell wall)

88
Q

What does pythium cause in dogs? Horses?

A

Dog- GI disease
Horse- cutaneous disease (Kunkers)

89
Q

Key histo with pythium

A

Poorly staining, poorly septate hyphae with non-parallel cell walls; eosinophilic and granulomatous inflammation

90
Q

Candida albicans is a ____________; causes ___________; targets what?

A

Dimorphic fungus; causes thrush; targets keratinized epithelium

91
Q

Key histo with candida

A

Yeast, hyphae, AND pseudohyphae in fibrinonecrotic membranes

92
Q

Macrorhabdus ornithogaster is a __________; associated with what?

A

Rod-shaped yeast; Proventricular adenocarcinoma in budgies

93
Q

Macrorhabdus key histo

A

Rod-shaped, matchstick arrangement

Systemics- GI (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions