Asthma Flashcards

1
Q

Who discovered oxygen and in what year?

A

Joseph Priestly in 1772

He referred to it as dephlogisticated air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Oxygen deprivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is hypoxaemia?

A

Low levels of oxygen in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some causes of hypoxaemia?

A
  • Cardiac issues
  • Local/regional blood supply compromise
  • Shunt or venous admixture
  • Hypoventilation
  • Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does the oxygen dissociation curve represent?

A

The relationship between oxygen saturation and partial pressure of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the primary use of oxygen therapy?

A

To prevent hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the effects of high-pressure oxygen on respiration?

A
  • Causes respiratory depression
  • Reduces ability to exchange CO2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What maintains hypoxic drive in the body?

A

Carotid and aortic sinus receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is respiratory failure?

A

A syndrome where gas exchange fails in one or both means

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two types of respiratory failure?

A
  • Hypoxemic (Type I)
  • Hypercapnic (Type II)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What characterizes Type I respiratory failure?

A

Arterial PaCO2 < 60 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are common causes of Type I respiratory failure?

A
  • COPD
  • Pneumonia
  • Asthma
  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Pneumothorax
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What characterizes Type II respiratory failure?

A

Arterial PaCO2 > 50 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are common causes of Type II respiratory failure?

A
  • COPD
  • Severe Asthma
  • Drug overdose
  • Poisoning
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Polyneuropathy
  • Poliomyelitis
  • Primary muscle disorders
  • Obesity-hypoventilation syndrome
  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Tetanus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the recommended fractional oxygen concentration?

A

About 0.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the risks associated with oxygen therapy?

A
  • Oxygen toxicity
  • Carbon dioxide narcosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are key characteristics of asthma?

A
  • Recurrent
  • Exaggerated bronchoconstrictor responses
  • Inflammation of the airway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the genetic component associated with asthma?

A

Chromosome 17q21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes the immediate contraction of airway muscle in asthma?

A

Release of mediators from mast cells after allergen re-exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the mediators released during an asthma attack?

A
  • Histamine
  • Tryptase
  • Prostaglandin D2
  • Leukotrienes
  • Platelet activating factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What physiological changes occur in asthma?

A
  • Increased airway resistance
  • Rapid respiratory rate
  • Low arterial Pco2
22
Q

What is the purpose of the GINA 2014 asthma treatment algorithm?

A

To determine the patient’s asthma treatment regimen and level of control

23
Q

What are common drugs used in asthma treatment?

A
  • Anti-IgE antibodies
  • Cromolyn
  • Adrenaline and salbutamol
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Antihistamines
  • Leukotriene receptor antagonists
  • Theophylline
24
Q

What do adrenoceptor agonists do in asthma treatment?

A
  • Relax bronchial smooth muscle
  • Prevent secretion of mediator compounds
25
Q

What are methylxanthines and their effects?

A
  • Theophylline
  • Theobromine
  • Caffeine

They inhibit phosphodiesterase, increasing cAMP levels.

26
Q

What is the role of corticosteroids in asthma treatment?

A
  • Inhibit production of inflammatory cytokines
  • Reduce bronchial hyperactivity
  • Potentiate the action of β agonists
27
Q

What do leukotriene pathway inhibitors do?

A

Block the action of leukotrienes, which are involved in the inflammatory response

28
Q

What is the effect of disodium cromoglycate on mast cells?

A

Inhibits mast cell degranulation

Disodium cromoglycate alters the functions of delayed sodium channels and inhibits cell activation.

29
Q

What are leukotrienes elaborated from?

A

The action of 5-lipoxygenase on arachidonic acid

30
Q

What is LTB4 known for?

A

It is a powerful neutrophil chemoattractant involved in asthma

31
Q

Name two LTD4 receptor antagonists.

A
  • Zafirlukast
  • Montelukast
32
Q

What is the role of omalizumab?

A

Targets the portion of IgE that binds to its receptor without provoking IgE to action

33
Q

True or False: Omalizumab can be used in all patients.

A

False

Its use is restricted to patients with allergic sensitization.

34
Q

What is the main rescue treatment for acute asthma?

A

Rapid-acting β-agonist via a rescue inhaler

35
Q

What are the side effects of inhaled corticosteroids?

A

Thrush

36
Q

Fill in the blank: Zileuton acts at the _______ receptor.

A

CysLT1

37
Q

What is the primary action of long-acting β-agonists?

A

Act for up to 12 hours

38
Q

What are the potential toxicities of β-agonists?

A
  • Lactic acidosis
  • Hypokalaemia
39
Q

What is theophylline classified as?

A

A methylxanthine

40
Q

What is the mechanism of action of methylxanthines?

A
  • Inhibit phosphodiesterase (PDE)
  • Inhibit cell surface receptors for adenosine
  • Enhance histone deacetylation
41
Q

What kind of agents are antimuscarinic agents?

A

Competitive antagonists of Ach at its receptor site

42
Q

Name two examples of antimuscarinic agents.

A
  • Ipratropium
  • Tiotropium
43
Q

What do glucocorticoids mediate?

A

Inhibition of inflammatory cytokines

44
Q

What are the effects of corticosteroids on the bronchial tree?

A

Inhibit infiltration by lymphocytes, mast cells, and eosinophils

45
Q

What are the two classifications of antitussives?

A
  • Opioids
  • Non-opioids
46
Q

What is the primary function of expectorants?

A

Enhances the secretion of sputum

47
Q

What are mucokinetics?

A

Bronchial secretion enhancers

48
Q

Name a contraindication for the use of antitussives.

A

Asthma

49
Q

What is the cough center located in?

A

The medulla

50
Q

What type of cough lasts more than 8 weeks?

A

Chronic

51
Q

What is the definition of an antitussive?

A

Cough suppressant

52
Q

What is the role of cough expectorants?

A

Enhances the secretion of sputum