Antimicrobial Chemotherapy- commonly used agents and side effects Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the trends in activity through the cephalosporins generations?

A

Gram negative activity- increases through generations
Gram positive activity- decreases through generations

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2
Q

Give characteristics of quinolones?

A

This group provides virtually the only possibility for
oral therapy in the treatment of pseudomonas infections.
wide spectrum of action
active against nearly all Gram negative organisms including pseudomonas

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3
Q

What is the most commonly used quinolone and what is it used for?

A

Levofloxacin
Activity against streptococci is generally poor, levofloxacin is active against pneumococci and the organisms causing atypical pneumonia.

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4
Q

What is metronidazole and give characteristics?

A

nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
effective towards gram positive and gram negative bacteria

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5
Q

What is fusidic acid and give characteristics?

A

protein synthesis inhibitor
Used only as an anti-staphylococcal drug.
Stap. aureus can develop resistance very readily to this agent.
It should always be used in combination with other anti-staphylococcal drugs (i.e. flucloxacillin).

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6
Q

What are tetracyclines and give characteristics?

A

Broad spectrum agents which inhibit bacterial protein synthesis and have a few limited applications nowadays.
Useful for some genital tract (chlamydia) and
respiratory tract infection (e.g. psittacosis, Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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7
Q

What is Clindamycin and give characteristics?

A

The only lincosamide antibiotic in common use and has good activity against Gram-positive organisms such as staphylococci and streptococci.
It also has good activity against anaerobes
The advantages of clindamycin are that it has very good
tissue penetration – e.g. into bone – and can be taken orally.

The disadvantage is that it is a common cause of pseudo-membranous colitis.

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8
Q

What agents ARE ONLY used in the treatment of UTI (cystitis)?

A

nalidixic acid (Quinolone)- Urinary antiseptic with activity only against Gram-negative aerobes (coliform) organisms.
Completely excreted in urine, the only indication for its use is coliform urinary tract infections.

Nitrofurantoin (Quinolone)- It is effective against most Gram-negative organisms.
(with the exception of Proteus and Pseudomonas spp.)
Also effective against some Gram-positive organisms.

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9
Q

What agents cause allergic reactions?

A

allergic reactions from any antimicrobial: commonly associated with the β-lactam.
True penicillin hypersensitivity is rare.
Approx. 10% of truly penicillin allergic patients also allergic to cephalosporins.

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10
Q

What is anaphylactic shock and how does it develop?

A

Immediate hypersensitivity
(parenteral administration of the antibiotic).
IgE mediated occurs within minutes of administration.
Itching, urticaria, nausea, vomiting, wheezing and shock.
Laryngeal oedema may prove fatal unless the airway is cleared.

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11
Q

Describe delayed hypersensitivity?

A

Hours or days to develop:
immune complex or cell mediated mechanism.
Rashes, fever, serum sickness and erythema nodosum may also occur.
Rashes are usually maculopapular and restricted to the skin.

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12
Q

What is stevens-johnson syndrome?

A

severe and sometimes fatal
hypersensitivity linked to the sulphonamides (skin and mucous membranes are involved).

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13
Q

Common gastrointestinal effects?

A

nausea and vomiting

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14
Q

What is diarrhoea associated with?

A

Diarrhoea associated with toxin production by Clostridium difficile.

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15
Q

Describe C.diff?

A

C. difficile anaerobic Gram-positive bacillus asymptomatic in the GI tract, overgrow normal flora during antibiotic therapy and produces toxins.
Relapses are common, further courses of treatment may be required.
C. difficile is a spore forming organism,
hand hygiene is particularly important for all healthcare staff.

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16
Q

What can C.diff lead to?

A

Mild form associated diarrhoea (CDAD) or
infection (CDI) life threatening condition pseudomembranous colitis.
Diagnosis done by detection of toxin in the stool by enzyme immunoassay (EIA).

17
Q

What can you treat C.diff with?

A

Treatment with oral metronidazole
or oral vancomycin
(not absorbed from the GI tract, only circumstance in which the oral form is used).

18
Q

What are the four Cs that from prolonged use could lead to C.diff?

A

cephalosporins, ciprofloxacin, clindamycin and co-amoxiclav.

19
Q

What causes thrush?

A

Therapy with penicillins or cephalosporins,
may be complicated by overgrowth of the yeast Candida albicans,
resulting in oral and/or vaginal candidiasis, also known as ‘thrush’.

20
Q

Why is liver toxicity vital to be avoided?

A

most drug metabolism happens in liver

21
Q

What drugs are associated with hepatoxicity?

A

Tetracycline and the anti-tuberculous drugs isoniazid (INH)
and rifampicin have been associated with such hepatotoxicity.

22
Q

Why are kidneys important in terms of drugs?

A

The kidney is the most important route of drug excretion.

23
Q

When is nephrotoxicity common?

A

Nephrotoxicity is dose related more common in patients
with pre-existing renal disease.
Nephrotoxicity is usually reversible but may be permanent

24
Q

When is renal toxicity common?

A

Most common with the aminoglycoside group
(e.g. gentamicin, netilmicin and amikacin) or with vancomycin.

Levels of these antibiotics in the blood should be regularly monitored.

25
Q

When is ototoxicity (ears related) most seen?

A

This is most often seen following aminoglycoside or vancomycin use.

26
Q

What antibiotic administration could lead to Optic Neuropathy?

A

Ethambutol (an anti-tuberculous drug) associated with dose related optic nerve damage. Regular monitoring of optic nerve function during therapy is recommended.

27
Q

What antibiotic administration could lead to Peripheral neuropathy?

A

Metronidazole and nitrofurantoin produce reversible peripheral
neuropathy of uncertain mechanism. The anti-tuberculous drug isoniazid acts by competitive inhibition with pyridoxine (vitamin B6), may induce peripheral neuropathy.

28
Q

What are Encephalopathy and convulsions most likely due to?

A

High dose penicillin and cephalosporin or
(if the dose is not reduced in the presence of renal impairment).

29
Q

What causes neutropenia?

A

Toxic effect on the bone marrow resulting in selective depression of one cell line

30
Q

What causes pancytopenia?

A

unselective depression of all bone marrow elements

31
Q

What causes folate deficiency?

A

co-trimoxazole (sulphonamide and trimethoprim) act by competitive inhibition of folic acid synthesis in both bacteria and mammalian cells.

32
Q

What does folate deficiency lead to?

A

The resulting folate deficiency lead to megaloblastic anaemia after prolonged therapy.

33
Q

What can Anti MRSA agent linezolid cause?

A

Anti MRSA agent linezolid also causes bone marrow suppression and may lower platelet counts.