Anti-bacterial Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of beta lactam antibacterial agents

A

inhibits transpeptidation reaction that cross-links the linear peptidoglycan chain of the cell all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DOC for syphilis, streptococcal, pneumococcal, meningococcal, , G+ bacilli, sipirochete infection

A

Penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

antistaphylococcal or known as

A

Isoxazolyl Penicillin (Methicillin, Oxacillin, Nafcillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antimicrobial coverage of extended spectrum Penicillin (Ampicillin and Amoxicillin

A

HELPSE

H. Influenzae
E. coli
L. monocytogenes
Proteus mirabilis
Salmonella sp
Enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

First Gen has coverage for Gram + and little Gram -. what are these gram negative organism that is covered

A

P.Ec.K
Psedumonas
Enterobacter
Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Diseases associated with Pseudomonas:

A

PSEUDOMONAS

Pneumonia
Sepsis
Ecthyma gangrenosum
UTI
DM
Mucopolysaccharidoses - Cystic and fibrosis
Osteomyelitis
Nosocomial infection - HAP and VAP
Skin Infection - burns and hot tub folliculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cephalosporin: Bactericidal or Bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All Cephalosporin have renal excretion, except:

A

Cefoperazone and Ceftriaxone (3G)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

microbes covered by 2G cephalosporin?

A

HEN PEcK

H. influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria spp

P. mirabilis
Ec. coli
K. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DOC for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone and Cefixime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3G cephalosporin with anti-pseudomonal property:

A

Cefoperazone - Ceftazidime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carbapenem active against Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter, except:

A

Ertapenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A drug describe as the silver bullet –> design for gram negative rods?

A

Aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MOA of Clavulanic Acid?

A

Inhibits inactivation of Penicillins by bacterial beta lactamase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Use of Vancomycin?

A

Serious infection: MRSA, sepsis, endocarditis, meningitis, Pseudomembranous colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Common side effect of Vancomycin?

A

Red man syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors:

A

AT CELLS

Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines

Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Lincosamides
Linezolid
Streptogramins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

All bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors are Bacteriostatic, except:

A

Aminoglycosides - Streptogramins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Common side effect of Chloramphenicol?

A

Gray baby syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MOA of Tetracycline?

A

Binds to 30s ribosomal subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drugs under class Macrolide?

A

Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Telithromycin
Roxithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

All macrolide inhibit CYP450, except

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Class of Clindamycin?

A

Lincosamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Drug that is against anaerobic infection ABOVE the diaphragm:

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Drug that is against anaerobic infection BELOW the diaphragm:
Metronidazole
26
Most vestibulotoxic and nephrotoxic aminoglycosides?
Gentamicin and Tobramycin
27
Most Ototoxic Aminoglycoside
Kanamycin - Amikacin
28
DOC for Toxoplasmosis
Sulfadiazine-Pyrimethamine
29
MOA of Quinolones
Interferes in the bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) in gram - and Topoisomerase IV in gram \+
30
1G of Quinolones and its coverage
Nalidixic acid - Cinoxacin - Rosoxacin - Oxolinic acid UTI
31
2G of Quinolones and its coverage
Ciprofloxacin - Ofloxacin - Norfloxacin - Lomefloxacin - Enoxacin Gram -, gram + cocci, Mycoplasma, Gonococci
32
3G Quinolones and its coverage
Levofloxacin, Gemi, Moxi, Spar, Grepa, Gati, Pazu, Tosu, Balo Streptococci and Enterococci
33
4G of Quinolones and its coverage
Trovafloxacin, Alatro, Pruli, Clina Anaerobes
34
Generation of Quinolones that are known as Respiratory Quinolones
3G
35
Elimination of Quinolones is via kidney by tubular secretion, except
Moxifloxacin
36
Effect of 3G Quinolones in Cardio
prolongs QT (3G and 4G)
37
DOC for Amoebiasis, Giardiasis, Pseudomembranous colitis
Metronidazole
38
Which among the first line drugs of anti-mycobateria has a sterilizing agent?
Pyrazinamide
39
which among anti-TB drugs has the most hepatotoxic effect?
Pyrazinamide > Rifampin > Isoniazid
40
Drug that is most active against M. leprae
Dapsone
41
A Drug that prevents the neurotoxicity of Isoniazid?
Co-administering Pyridoxine (VIt B6)
42
Antifungal drugs that can be used in Fungal Meningitis?
Flucytosine. Amphotericin B cannot cross BBB.
43
Only Generation with ANAEROBE coverage
2 GEn
44
what are 2G cephalosporins that covers Anaerobes
CEFAMYCIN - Teta-Meta-Fox CefoTETAn CefoMETAzole CeFOXitine
45
Organisms that is covered by 3G cephalosporin
HENPEcK + SSS Serratia Salmonella Shigella
46
Penicillin rash is mediated by what hypersensitivity?
Delayed type Hypersensitivity (T cell mediated) occurs 72hrs
47
Best substitute for Allergic to Penicillin
Macrolide
48
Cephalosporin Beta lactam is attached to Dihydrothiazine ring =
7-aminocephalosporanic acid (7-ACA)
49
What is the Cyclic ring in beta lactam antibotics
Amide Cyclic Ring
50
Penicillin is attached to THIAZOLIDINE ring =
6-aminopenicillanic acid (6-APA)
51
most potent Ureidopenicillin
Piperacillin
52
Management for HA-MRSA
Vancomycin IV
53
Management for CA-MRSA
Clindamycin
54
type of drug interaction of beta lactam + beta lactam inhibitor
Potentiation
55
Carbapenem with Best coverage for Pseudomonas
Doripenem
56
DOC for ESBL infection
Carbapenem
57
Most epileptogenic Carbapenem
Imipenem
58
Ampicillin + Sulbactam
Sultamicillin
59
Amoxicillin + Clavulunic Acid
Co-amoxiclav
60
All beta lactamase inhibitor are parenteral,except:
Co-amoxiclav (oral)
61
2G with good activity against B. fragilis
Cefotetan Cefoxitin
62
Drug interaction of Ampicillin and Aminoglycoside
Synergistic
63
ALL 3G have penetrate BBB except
Cefoperazone Cefixime
64
3G with VERYGOOD CNS penetration
Ceftriaxone
65
3G with most active against Penicillin resistant S. pneumoniae
Ceftriaxone Cefotaxime
66
Drug that inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase in forming Tetrahydrofolic acid in Nucleic acid synthesis
Trimethoprim MTX
67
Target site of Vancomycin:
D-Ala-D-Ala terminus
68
DOC of Pseudomembranous colitis in Local setting
Metronidazole
69
Antibiotic with Cationic dtergent
Polymyxin B and Polymyxin E - reserved for MDR organism
70
All protein synthesis inhibitor are BACTERIOSTATIC, except:
Aminoglycoside (cidal)
71
ALL Aminoglycoside is given parenterally, except:
Neomycin - topical, oral
72
Drug for the management of Sternothrophomas maltophilia, Burkdolderia cepacia, P. jirovecii, T. gondi
Co-trimoxazole/ TMP-SMX
73
Quinolones that cover Anaerobic
Moxifloxacin (3G)
74
Quinolones that cover Pseudomonas
Ciprofloxacin (2G) Levofloxacin (3G)
75
All Quinolones can cause Hyperglycemia, except
Gatifloxacin -- hypoglycemia
76
Long acting Tetracycline
DoMino Doxycycline Minocycline
77
All Macrolide exhibit Time-dependent, except
Azithromycin
78
metabolic pathway in detoxifying Chloramphenicol
Glucoronidation reaction (phase II) enzyme: UDP-glucoronyl transferase
79
Drugs for MRSA and VRSA
LInezolid
80
-Mycin is derived from
Streptomyces
81
- micin is derived from
Micromniospora
82
All tetracycline is excreted in the bile and urine, except
Doxycycline -- biliary only
83
tetracycline + dairy products, divalent cations, Fe Ca, Mg, Al =
CHELATION/ Complex Formation
84
Drug that inhibits Dihydropteroate synthase in Nucleic acid synthesis
Sulfonamide
85
Sulfa drugs are C/I in patients with what biochemical disorder
G6PD deficiency --- hemolytic anemia
86
Commonly seen S/E in Metronidazole
Furry tongue Dry mouth Metallic taste GI irritation
87
Resistance of Rifampicin is cause by the mutation
mutation rpoB gene MC type of resistance in TB
88
ALL 1st line drug of TB are BACTERICIDAL, except
Ethambutol
89
TB Drugs with Sterilizing activity
Rifampicin Pyrazinamide
90
Antifungal with WIDEST antifungal spectrum
Polyene Amphoterecin B
91
ALL NRTIs needs phosphorylation prior to action, except
Tenofovir
92
Mode of release of Enveloped virueses
Exocytosis
93
Mode of release of Naked virueses
Cell lysis
94
DOC for malaria in pregnant patients
Quinidine
95
it causes Blackwater fever, Cinchonism
96
it causes Blackwater fever, Cinchonism
Quinine [C], Quinidine Gluconate
97
DOC for uncomplicated falciparum malaria in the Philippines
Artemether-Lumefantrine (Co-Artem)
98
DOC for asymptomatic cyst carriers of E.histolytica
Diloxanide, Furoate
99
DOC for Cryptosporidiosis
Nitazoxanide