Anti-bacterial Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of beta lactam antibacterial agents

A

inhibits transpeptidation reaction that cross-links the linear peptidoglycan chain of the cell all

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2
Q

DOC for syphilis, streptococcal, pneumococcal, meningococcal, , G+ bacilli, sipirochete infection

A

Penicillins

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3
Q

antistaphylococcal or known as

A

Isoxazolyl Penicillin (Methicillin, Oxacillin, Nafcillin)

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4
Q

Antimicrobial coverage of extended spectrum Penicillin (Ampicillin and Amoxicillin

A

HELPSE

H. Influenzae
E. coli
L. monocytogenes
Proteus mirabilis
Salmonella sp
Enterococci

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5
Q

First Gen has coverage for Gram + and little Gram -. what are these gram negative organism that is covered

A

P.Ec.K
Psedumonas
Enterobacter
Klebsiella

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6
Q

Diseases associated with Pseudomonas:

A

PSEUDOMONAS

Pneumonia
Sepsis
Ecthyma gangrenosum
UTI
DM
Mucopolysaccharidoses - Cystic and fibrosis
Osteomyelitis
Nosocomial infection - HAP and VAP
Skin Infection - burns and hot tub folliculitis

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7
Q

Cephalosporin: Bactericidal or Bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal

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8
Q

All Cephalosporin have renal excretion, except:

A

Cefoperazone and Ceftriaxone (3G)

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9
Q

microbes covered by 2G cephalosporin?

A

HEN PEcK

H. influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria spp

P. mirabilis
Ec. coli
K. pneumoniae

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10
Q

DOC for gonorrhea?

A

Ceftriaxone and Cefixime

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11
Q

3G cephalosporin with anti-pseudomonal property:

A

Cefoperazone - Ceftazidime

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12
Q

Carbapenem active against Pseudomonas and Acinetobacter, except:

A

Ertapenem

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13
Q

A drug describe as the silver bullet –> design for gram negative rods?

A

Aztreonam

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14
Q

MOA of Clavulanic Acid?

A

Inhibits inactivation of Penicillins by bacterial beta lactamase

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15
Q

Use of Vancomycin?

A

Serious infection: MRSA, sepsis, endocarditis, meningitis, Pseudomembranous colitis

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16
Q

Common side effect of Vancomycin?

A

Red man syndrome

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17
Q

Bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors:

A

AT CELLS

Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines

Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Lincosamides
Linezolid
Streptogramins

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18
Q

All bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors are Bacteriostatic, except:

A

Aminoglycosides - Streptogramins

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19
Q

Common side effect of Chloramphenicol?

A

Gray baby syndrome

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20
Q

MOA of Tetracycline?

A

Binds to 30s ribosomal subunit

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21
Q

Drugs under class Macrolide?

A

Azithromycin
Erythromycin
Clarithromycin
Telithromycin
Roxithromycin

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22
Q

All macrolide inhibit CYP450, except

A

Azithromycin

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23
Q

Class of Clindamycin?

A

Lincosamides

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24
Q

Drug that is against anaerobic infection ABOVE the diaphragm:

A

Clindamycin

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25
Q

Drug that is against anaerobic infection BELOW the diaphragm:

A

Metronidazole

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26
Q

Most vestibulotoxic and nephrotoxic aminoglycosides?

A

Gentamicin and Tobramycin

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27
Q

Most Ototoxic Aminoglycoside

A

Kanamycin - Amikacin

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28
Q

DOC for Toxoplasmosis

A

Sulfadiazine-Pyrimethamine

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29
Q

MOA of Quinolones

A

Interferes in the bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting Topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) in gram - and Topoisomerase IV in gram +

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30
Q

1G of Quinolones and its coverage

A

Nalidixic acid - Cinoxacin - Rosoxacin - Oxolinic acid
UTI

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31
Q

2G of Quinolones and its coverage

A

Ciprofloxacin - Ofloxacin - Norfloxacin - Lomefloxacin - Enoxacin
Gram -, gram + cocci, Mycoplasma, Gonococci

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32
Q

3G Quinolones and its coverage

A

Levofloxacin, Gemi, Moxi, Spar, Grepa, Gati, Pazu, Tosu, Balo
Streptococci and Enterococci

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33
Q

4G of Quinolones and its coverage

A

Trovafloxacin, Alatro, Pruli, Clina
Anaerobes

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34
Q

Generation of Quinolones that are known as Respiratory Quinolones

A

3G

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35
Q

Elimination of Quinolones is via kidney by tubular secretion, except

A

Moxifloxacin

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36
Q

Effect of 3G Quinolones in Cardio

A

prolongs QT (3G and 4G)

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37
Q

DOC for Amoebiasis, Giardiasis, Pseudomembranous colitis

A

Metronidazole

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38
Q

Which among the first line drugs of anti-mycobateria has a sterilizing agent?

A

Pyrazinamide

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39
Q

which among anti-TB drugs has the most hepatotoxic effect?

A

Pyrazinamide > Rifampin > Isoniazid

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40
Q

Drug that is most active against M. leprae

A

Dapsone

41
Q

A Drug that prevents the neurotoxicity of Isoniazid?

A

Co-administering Pyridoxine (VIt B6)

42
Q

Antifungal drugs that can be used in Fungal Meningitis?

A

Flucytosine.
Amphotericin B cannot cross BBB.

43
Q

Only Generation with ANAEROBE coverage

A

2 GEn

44
Q

what are 2G cephalosporins that covers Anaerobes

A

CEFAMYCIN - Teta-Meta-Fox
CefoTETAn
CefoMETAzole
CeFOXitine

45
Q

Organisms that is covered by 3G cephalosporin

A

HENPEcK + SSS

Serratia
Salmonella
Shigella

46
Q

Penicillin rash is mediated by what hypersensitivity?

A

Delayed type Hypersensitivity (T cell mediated)
occurs 72hrs

47
Q

Best substitute for Allergic to Penicillin

A

Macrolide

48
Q

Cephalosporin Beta lactam is attached to Dihydrothiazine ring =

A

7-aminocephalosporanic acid (7-ACA)

49
Q

What is the Cyclic ring in beta lactam antibotics

A

Amide Cyclic Ring

50
Q

Penicillin is attached to THIAZOLIDINE ring =

A

6-aminopenicillanic acid (6-APA)

51
Q

most potent Ureidopenicillin

A

Piperacillin

52
Q

Management for HA-MRSA

A

Vancomycin IV

53
Q

Management for CA-MRSA

A

Clindamycin

54
Q

type of drug interaction of beta lactam + beta lactam inhibitor

A

Potentiation

55
Q

Carbapenem with Best coverage for Pseudomonas

A

Doripenem

56
Q

DOC for ESBL infection

A

Carbapenem

57
Q

Most epileptogenic Carbapenem

A

Imipenem

58
Q

Ampicillin + Sulbactam

A

Sultamicillin

59
Q

Amoxicillin + Clavulunic Acid

A

Co-amoxiclav

60
Q

All beta lactamase inhibitor are parenteral,except:

A

Co-amoxiclav (oral)

61
Q

2G with good activity against B. fragilis

A

Cefotetan
Cefoxitin

62
Q

Drug interaction of Ampicillin and Aminoglycoside

A

Synergistic

63
Q

ALL 3G have penetrate BBB except

A

Cefoperazone
Cefixime

64
Q

3G with VERYGOOD CNS penetration

A

Ceftriaxone

65
Q

3G with most active against Penicillin resistant S. pneumoniae

A

Ceftriaxone
Cefotaxime

66
Q

Drug that inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase in forming Tetrahydrofolic acid in Nucleic acid synthesis

A

Trimethoprim
MTX

67
Q

Target site of Vancomycin:

A

D-Ala-D-Ala terminus

68
Q

DOC of Pseudomembranous colitis in Local setting

A

Metronidazole

69
Q

Antibiotic with Cationic dtergent

A

Polymyxin B and Polymyxin E - reserved for MDR organism

70
Q

All protein synthesis inhibitor are BACTERIOSTATIC, except:

A

Aminoglycoside (cidal)

71
Q

ALL Aminoglycoside is given parenterally, except:

A

Neomycin - topical, oral

72
Q

Drug for the management of Sternothrophomas maltophilia, Burkdolderia cepacia, P. jirovecii, T. gondi

A

Co-trimoxazole/ TMP-SMX

73
Q

Quinolones that cover Anaerobic

A

Moxifloxacin (3G)

74
Q

Quinolones that cover Pseudomonas

A

Ciprofloxacin (2G)
Levofloxacin (3G)

75
Q

All Quinolones can cause Hyperglycemia, except

A

Gatifloxacin – hypoglycemia

76
Q

Long acting Tetracycline

A

DoMino
Doxycycline
Minocycline

77
Q

All Macrolide exhibit Time-dependent, except

A

Azithromycin

78
Q

metabolic pathway in detoxifying Chloramphenicol

A

Glucoronidation reaction (phase II)
enzyme: UDP-glucoronyl transferase

79
Q

Drugs for MRSA and VRSA

A

LInezolid

80
Q

-Mycin is derived from

A

Streptomyces

81
Q
  • micin is derived from
A

Micromniospora

82
Q

All tetracycline is excreted in the bile and urine, except

A

Doxycycline – biliary only

83
Q

tetracycline + dairy products, divalent cations, Fe Ca, Mg, Al =

A

CHELATION/ Complex Formation

84
Q

Drug that inhibits Dihydropteroate synthase in Nucleic acid synthesis

A

Sulfonamide

85
Q

Sulfa drugs are C/I in patients with what biochemical disorder

A

G6PD deficiency — hemolytic anemia

86
Q

Commonly seen S/E in Metronidazole

A

Furry tongue
Dry mouth
Metallic taste
GI irritation

87
Q

Resistance of Rifampicin is cause by the mutation

A

mutation rpoB gene
MC type of resistance in TB

88
Q

ALL 1st line drug of TB are BACTERICIDAL, except

A

Ethambutol

89
Q

TB Drugs with Sterilizing activity

A

Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide

90
Q

Antifungal with WIDEST antifungal spectrum

A

Polyene
Amphoterecin B

91
Q

ALL NRTIs needs phosphorylation prior to action, except

A

Tenofovir

92
Q

Mode of release of Enveloped virueses

A

Exocytosis

93
Q

Mode of release of Naked virueses

A

Cell lysis

94
Q

DOC for malaria in pregnant patients

A

Quinidine

95
Q

it causes Blackwater fever, Cinchonism

A
96
Q

it causes Blackwater fever, Cinchonism

A

Quinine [C], Quinidine Gluconate

97
Q

DOC for uncomplicated falciparum malaria in the
Philippines

A

Artemether-Lumefantrine (Co-Artem)

98
Q

DOC for asymptomatic cyst carriers of E.histolytica

A

Diloxanide, Furoate

99
Q

DOC for Cryptosporidiosis

A

Nitazoxanide