Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

Name (3) forms of opiod receptors that are used by endogenous and exogenous opiods

A

Name (3) forms of opiod receptors that are used by endogenous and exogenous opiods
1. Mu
2. Delta
3. Kappa

All exogenous opiods activate MOR to produce analgesia

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2
Q

alpha, beta, and gamma endorphins (endogenous opiods) bind to _ receptors

A

alpha, beta, and gamma endorphins (endogenous opiods) bind to Mu receptors

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3
Q

Enkephalins (endogenous opiods) bind to _ receptors

A

Enkephalins (endogenous opiods) bind to delta receptors

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4
Q

Dynorphins (endogenous opiods) bind to _ receptors

A

Dynorphins (endogenous opiods) bind to kappa receptors

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5
Q

Codeine, morphine, hydrocodone, oxycodone, etc are examples of [class drugs]

A

Codeine, morphine, hydrocodone, oxycodone, tramadol, etc are examples of full MOR agonists
* MOR = mu opiod receptor

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6
Q

Buprenorphine and nalbuphine are exogenous opiods which are [drug class]

A

Buprenorphine and nalbuphine are exogenous opiods which are partial MOR agonists

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7
Q

Methylnaltrexone is a drug that acts as [drug class]

A

Methylnaltrexone is a drug that acts as peripherally acting MOR antagonist
* Other PAMORAs include alvimopan, naldemedine, naloxegol, pentazocine

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8
Q

_ and _ are two inverse agonists of MOR

A

Naloxone and Naltrexone are two inverse agonists of MOR

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9
Q

A drug from [drug category] or [drug category] class would be used for opioid reversal

A

A drug from neutral antagonist or inverse agonist class would be used for opioid reversal

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10
Q

Inverse MOR agonists are extremely effective becuase they inhibit _

A

Inverse MOR agonists are extremely effective becuase they inhibit basal MOR activity
* MOR receptors signal in the absence of agonist
* Drugs like naloxone can turn off the agonist-independent signaling and antagonize the natural agonist

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11
Q

Opiods _ the ascending pain pathways and _ descending modulatory pathways

A

Opiods inhibit the ascending pain pathways and stimulate descending modulatory pathways

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12
Q

Pre-synpatically, opioids act on _ channels

A

Pre-synpatically, opioids act on Ca2+ channels (inhibiting them)
* This inhibits NT release and transmission of ascending pain signal

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13
Q

Post-synaptically, opioids act on _ channels

A

Post-synaptically, opioids act on K channels (opening them) –> hyperpolarization
* * This inhibits NT release and transmission of ascending pain signal

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14
Q

Opiods act on the pre-synapse of modulatory pain neurons to _ the release of _ and turn on the modulation

A

Opiods act on the pre-synapse of modulatory pain neurons to inhibit the release of GABA and turn on the modulation
* They disinhibit the descending modulatory pathway

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15
Q

Opioids act on the _ synapse to essentially stimulate the descending modulatory pathway and induce analgesia

A

Opioids act on the presynapse to essentially stimulate the descending modulatory pathway and induce analgesia

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16
Q

The glucuronidated forms of many opioids have slower _ and longer _

A

The glucuronidated forms of many opioids have slower renal clearance and longer durations of action

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17
Q

[Opioid] gets converted into morphine

A

Codeine gets converted into morphine
* Morphine and its derivatives can be neurotoxic

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18
Q

All opioids can cause _ and _ as CNS toxicities

A

All opioids can cause sedation and respiratory depression as CNS toxicities
* This is ultimately what causes opioid overdose death

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19
Q

Because Mu receptors are found all throughout the GIT, opioids can cause [toxicity]

A

Because Mu receptors are found all throughout the GIT, opioids can cause constipation
* We inhibit neuron firing in the gut and slow GI motility

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20
Q

[Drug class] can be used to treat opioid induced constipation

A

Peripherally acting mu opioid receptor antagonist (PAMORAs) can be used to treat opioid induced constipation
* They do not cross the BBB to interfere with opioid analgesia

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21
Q

Because opioids inhibit GABA release to turn on the descending modulatory pathway, they additionally induce [toxicity]

A

Because opioids inhibit GABA release to turn on the descending modulatory pathway, they additionally induce dopamine release
* Increase DA release into the nucleus accumbens via the mesolimbic pathway –> addiction

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22
Q

_ is a good drug option for patients with opioid addiction because its properties treat physical and psychological dependence

A

Buprenorphine is a good drug option for patients with opioid addiction because its properties treat physical and psychological dependence

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23
Q

Buprenorphine is (more/less) potent than a full MOR agonist

A

Buprenorphine is more potent than a full MOR agonist
* Although it is less effective, it is more potent so it outcompetes any full agonist that may be co-administered

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24
Q

NSAID works as an anti-inflammatory, non-opioid analgesic via [receptor action] and [downstream effect]

A

NSAID works as an anti-inflammatory, non-opioid analgesic via inhibiting COX-2 receptors and blocking prostaglandin synthesis
* Most are non-selective and block COX-1 and COX-2

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25
Q

_ and _ are the prostaglandins that mediate pain receptors

A

PGE2 and PGF2a are the prostaglandins that mediate pain receptors

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26
Q

? –> COX –> prostaglandins

A

Arachidonic acid –> COX –> prostaglandins

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27
Q

[COX receptor] is constitutive while [COX receptor] is induced

A

COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is induced
* Meaning COX-1 is always on in the background for homeostatic functions while COX-2 is only used for inflammatory functions when necessary (pain, fever, etc)

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28
Q

_ is the only “selective” NSAID on the market

A

Celecoxib is the only “selective” NSAID on the market
* Specific to COX-2

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29
Q

_ and _ are two important prostaglandins that act as vasodilators (especially important in the kidney)

A

PGE2 and PGI2 are two important prostaglandins that act as vasodilators (especially important in the kidney)

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30
Q

NSAIDs can lead to hypertension via [mechanism (hint kidneys)]

A

NSAIDs can lead to hypertension via reducing GFR –> decreasing Na+/ H2O excretion –> increased blood volume

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31
Q

COX-1 inhibition leads to [toxicity]

A

COX-1 inhibition leads to inhibition of gastric mucus production
* Increases risk of upper and lower GI bleeding

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32
Q

Non-aspirin NSAIDs may increase clotting risk due to preferential inhibition of [prostaglandin] synthesis (which normally inhibits platelet activation)

A

Non-aspirin NSAIDs may increase clotting risk due to preferential inhibition of PGI2 synthesis (which normally inhibits platelet activation)

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33
Q

Aspirin preferentially blocks [prostaglandin] which normally promotes platelet activation

A

Aspirin preferentially blocks thromboxane A2 which normally promotes platelet activation
* Therefore it can lower MI and stroke risk

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34
Q

_ is a possible toxicity of aspirin in children who have a viral infection

A

Reye’s syndrome is a possible toxicity of aspirin in children who have a viral infection
* This is why sick kids should take acetaminophen or ibuprofen instead

35
Q

Although celecoxib decreases anti COX-1 toxicities (GI upset), it carries an increased risk of _

A

Although celecoxib decreases anti COX-1 toxicities (GI upset), it carries an increased risk of MI

36
Q

Celecoxib increases MI risk via blocking [prostaglandin] preferentially

A

Celecoxib increases MI risk via blocking PGI2 preferentially

37
Q

_ is a COX-1/2 inhibitor that is not anti-inflammatory but is anti-pyretic

A

Acetaminophen is a COX-1/2 inhibitor that is not anti-inflammatory but is anti-pyretic
* It does act in the CNS and periphery

38
Q

One toxicity of acetaminophen (especially in alcoholics) is liver toxicity due to build up of [toxic metabolite]

A

One toxicity of acetaminophen (especially in alcoholics) is liver toxicity due to build up of NAPQI

39
Q

All local anesthetics work via [mechanism]

A

All local anesthetics work via inhibition of Na+ channels

40
Q

Local anesthetics come in either [chemical form] or [chemical form]

A

Local anesthetics come in either amide or ester form

41
Q

Procaine, chloroprocaine, cocaine, and tetracaine are all [structure] local anesthetics

A

Procaine, chloroprocaine, cocaine, and tetracaine are all esters (local anesthetics)

42
Q

Articaine, lidocaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine, etidocaine, levobupivacaine, ropivacaine are all [structure] local anesthetics

A

Articaine, lidocaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine, etidocaine, levobupivacaine, ropivacaine are all amides
* Alll amide drugs have “i” early in their name

43
Q

All local anesthetics are [acid/base status]

A

All local anesthetics are weak bases

44
Q

The fewer the VG Na+ channels the easier the axonal action potential is blocked, such as in _ axons

A

The fewer the VG Na+ channels the easier the axonal action potential is blocked, such as in myelinated axons
* Small, myelinated axons are easiest to block

45
Q

[Drugs] must enter the neuron in order to access the Na+ channel from within

A

Local anesthetics must enter the neuron in order to access the Na+ channel from within

46
Q

Only _ form of the local anesthetic can pass through the plasma membrane

A

Only the uncharged, hydrophobic form of the local anesthetic can pass through the plasma membrane

47
Q

Areas of infection can have _ pH, making local anesthetic _

A

Areas of infection can have low (acidic) pH, making local anesthetic slower to onset

48
Q

Hydrophobic drugs are (more/less) potent

A

Hydrophobic drugs are more potent

49
Q

Hydrophobic drugs have (shorter/longer) durations

A

Hydrophobic drugs have longer durations

50
Q

Hydrophobic drugs have (shorter/longer) onset times

A

Hydrophobic drugs have longer onset times
* Due to binding to extracellular proteins

51
Q

Local anesthetics must be in _ form to bind Na+ channel

A

Local anesthetics must be in hydrophilic form to bind Na+ channel

52
Q

Which is more sensitive to local anesthetics, small unmyelinated or large myelinated?

A

small unmyelinated
small myelinated > small unmyelinated > large myelinated > large unmyelinated

53
Q

Neurons that rapidly fire are (more/less) sensitive to local anesthetics

A

Neurons that rapidly fire are more sensitive to local anesthetics
* ie nociceptors

54
Q

_ can be adminstered with local anesthetics in order to decrease clearance, bleeding, systemic effects

A

Epinephrine can be adminstered with local anesthetics in order to decrease clearance, bleeding, systemic effects
* Helps to keep the effect local

55
Q

_ can treat local anesthetic overdose

A

IV lipid emulsion can treat local anesthetic overdose
* To redistribute to muscle and liver

56
Q

Most general anesthetics (inhaled and IV) work by [mechanism]

A

Most general anesthetics (inhaled and IV) work by potentiating GABA-A receptors
* Ex: nitrous oxide, isoflurane, etomidate, propofol, thiopental
* Be careful, they are not agonists, they work indirectly as potentiators

57
Q

Drugs that potentiate GABA-A action promote _

A

Drugs that potentiate GABA-A action promote Cl- influx –> hyperpolarization –> reduced neuronal firing –> unconsciousness

58
Q

The potency of inhaled general anesthetics has to do with the drug’s [characteristic]

A

The potency of inhaled general anesthetics has to do with the drug’s hydrophobicity

59
Q

In general, inhaled anesthetics are not cleared by the liver, they are cleared just by _

A

In general, inhaled anesthetics are not cleared by the liver, they are cleared just by exhalation

60
Q

The MAC represents the _

A

The MAC represents the concentration of inhaled drug in the alveoli that produces a lack of response to surgical stimulation in 50% of patients

61
Q

The more hydrophobic the inhaled anesthetic, the _ the MAC

A

The more hydrophobic the inhaled anesthetic, the lower the MAC
* MAC = minimum alveolar concentration
* MAC and lipophilicity are inversely related

62
Q

The lower the MAC, the _ the potency

A

The lower the MAC, the higher the potency
* Low MAC = high L/G coefficient = most lipophilic = most potent

63
Q

The onset time has to do with the inhaled general anesthetic’s [characteristic]

A

The onset time has to do with the inhaled general anesthetic’s blood solubility
* Also called the blood/gas partition coefficient

64
Q

The potency has to do with the inhaled general anesthetic’s [characteristic]

A

The potency has to do with the inhaled general anesthetic’s lipophilicity/ L-G partition coefficient

65
Q

The IGA with the _ will have the fastest onset time

A

The IGA with the lowest blood solubility will have the fastest onset time
* Since you have to saturate the blood before it can spill over to the brain

66
Q

Less water-soluble drugs saturate the blood _

A

Less water-soluble drugs saturate the blood faster
* More water soluble drugs take longer and therefore have longer onset time

67
Q

_ general anesthetics have a higher risk of post-operative nausea/vomiting

A

Inhaled general anesthetics have a higher risk of post-operative nausea/vomiting
* It is less common with IV anesthetics

68
Q

_ is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia

69
Q

Dantrolene works to treat MH via [mechanism]

A

Dantrolene works to treat MH via inhibiting Ca2+ flow through the ryanodine receptor

70
Q

Propofol (IV) has a rapid recovery due to _

A

Propofol (IV) has a rapid recovery due to rapid redistribution to adipose tissue

71
Q

_ is a GA with a toxicity of decreased cortisol synthesis and adrenal crisis (especially in elderly patients)

A

Etomidate is a GA with a toxicity of decreased cortisol synthesis and adrenal crisis (especially in elderly patients)
* It blocks 11-dehydroxylase

72
Q

_ is a GA that works by glutamate antagonism

A

Ketamine is a GA that works by glutamate antagonism
* Blocks NMDA receptors

73
Q

Ketamine toxicity includes _ and _

A

Ketamine toxicity includes dissociative effects and psychotomimetic effects

74
Q

Dexmedetomidine is a GA with [mechanism]

A

Dexmedetomidine is a GA with alpha2 receptor agonist that activates the VLPO nucleus

75
Q

_ GA has maintains a relatively stable blood pressure and respiratory rate

A

Etomidate has maintains a relatively stable blood pressure and respiratory rate

76
Q

Ketamine can cause [BP]

A

Ketamine can cause hypertension
* Whereas most others can cause hypotension

77
Q

_ is a depolarizing NMJ Nm receptor inhibitor

A

Succinylcholine is a depolarizing NMJ Nm receptor inhibitor
* All of the others are non-depolarizing drugs, “-curium” and “-curonium”

78
Q

Non-depolarizing NMBA drugs work by [Moa]

A

Non-depolarizing NMBA drugs work by competitively blocking Ach binding and channel opening

79
Q

Succinylcholine works by [Moa]

A

Succinylcholine works by perisistently opening Nm channels and exhausting the muscle cell

80
Q

Because succinylcholine persistently depolarizes, it is associated with [toxicity]

A

Because succinylcholine persistently depolarizes, it is associated with hyperkalemia
* Also can lead to malignant hyperthermia in sensitive patients

81
Q

“-Curium” drugs undergo a non-enzymatic chemical breakdown which means it is still cleared effectively even in patients with _

A

“-Curium” drugs undergo a non-enzymatic chemical breakdown which means it is still cleared effectively even in patients with liver and renal insufficiency

82
Q

NMBAs can be reversed with [drug]

A

NMBAs can be reversed with neostigmine
* Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

83
Q

In addition to neostigmine, NMBAs should be reversed with _

A

In addition to neostigmine, NMBAs should be reversed with glycopyrrolate
* M2/M3 antagonist to prevent parasympathetic toxicities