amboss 7/7 Flashcards
1
Q
what causes cystercicosis
A
T. solium eggs
2
Q
where are T solium eggs transmitted to humans
A
fecal oral route from ingestion of undercooked pork
3
Q
what is the usual course of Guillain-barre
A
30% require mechanical ventilation, majority recover completely and 5% die because of acute complications
4
Q
what is the treatment for botulism
A
human derived immunoglobulin
5
Q
what is the treatment for GBS
A
plasmapheresis is an option
6
Q
what is the presentation of CMV retinitis
A
most commonly found in AIDS patients with CD4 <50. pizza pie appearance on fundoscopic exam, due to the red and white lesions. causes retinal detachment.
7
Q
what is the initial treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome
A
volar splinting. local triamcinolone injections are the next step. surgical decompression is also an option.
8
Q
what is radial nerve compression presentation
A
this is Saturday night palsy. when there is lack of sensation and wrist drop due to radial nerve compression from sleeping on a park bench.
9
Q
what is the mechanism of treatments for myasthenia gravis
A
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
10
Q
what are the Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.
A
physostigmine and rivastigmine
11
Q
what is atropine the treatment for atropine OD
A
antimuscarinic physostigmine and rivastigmine
12
Q
what is the treatment of choice for an immunocompromised individual with suspected meningitis
A
empiric treatment is vancomycin, ampicillin, cefepime
13
Q
what is the treatment of choice for someone with a high suspicion of strep pneumonia meningitis AND NOT IMMUNOCOMPROMISED
A
empiric treatment is vancomycin, ampicillin, cefepime and dexamethasone.
14
Q
what is the treatment of choice for herpes encephalitis
A
IV acyclovir
15
Q
what is the presentation of herpes encephalitis
A
typically characterized by a prodromal phase (fever, headache) followed by acute or subacute encephalopathy with symptoms of focal neurological deficits (such as the paresis exhibited by the patient), seizures, altered mental status, and behavioral changes.
16
Q
when is tetanus vaccination required for PEP
A
if the vaccine was given 5 or more years prior
17
Q
what is the protocol for 1st time rabies PEP
A
rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin.
18
Q
what is the protocol for 2nd time rabies PEP
A
rabies vaccine only
19
Q
do we give tetanus for animal bites
A
yes, if the bite occurred 5 or more years after the last vaccination
20
Q
what is the diagnosis for someone that has weakness of the hand when grasping objects, has numbness and tingling and pain that wakes them up night. elevating the hand above the head reproduces the symptoms
A
carpel tunnel syndrome
21
Q
what is the diagnostic test of choice for carpal tunnel
A
nerve conduction studies
22
Q
when you are unsure of someones immunization status what is the proper tetanus PEP
A
they must be given active immunization and if the wound is dirty or extensive must be given TIG
however, if the wound is minor or clean, then Tdap/DTaP is used depending on age
23
Q
when is DTaP used
A
this is the primary prophylaxis agent and given to children as PEP under the age of 7
24
Q
what is the treatment for cluster headache
A
oxygen therapy is effective in treating 80% of clusters
25
what is the presentation of cluster headache
severe unilateral headache, lacrimation. stabbing/burning pain. flushing, rhinorrhea, nasal congestion. occurs in clusters
26
what are the triggers for cluster headache
alcohol, insomnia, nitrates, bright lights
27
who gets a cluster headache
men are three times more likely 20-40 years of age
28
what is the presentation of rabies
drooling, tense muscles, combativeness
29
what is the presnetation of HSV-1 conjunctivitis
unilateral conjuctivitis with watery discharge and vesicles
30
what is the treatment for HSV1 conjunctivitis
self-limiting and usually resolves in 2 weeks.
31
what is the gold standard for diagnosing HSV1 conjunctivits
cell culture
32
what is therapy for HSV1conjuvitis and who gets it
immunocompromised and children.
| topical, oral or IV acyclovir
33
what is the treatment for postherpetic neuralgia
TCAs
34
what is a contraindication to TCA treatment in post herpetic neuralgia
MI, cardiac dysfunction, arrhythmias
35
what is a risk of ethmoidal or maxillary sinusitis
orbital cellulitis
36
diagnosis of pain and swelling of the eyelids with pain on movement of the extra ocular muscles
orbital cellulitis
37
diagnosis of pain and swelling of the eyelids with NO pain on movement of the extra ocular muscles
preseptal cellulitis
38
what is the PEP for neisseria meningitides
rifampin for close contacts.
39
what is the treatment of cerebral toxoplasmosis
pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, leucovorin (folic acid)
40
what is the presentation of cerebral toxoplasmosis
Cerebral toxoplasmosis is a common AIDS-defining condition that presents with fever, impaired vigilance, and seizures. Multiple ring-enhancing lesions that involve the basal ganglia on neuroimaging are also strongly indicative of cerebral toxoplasmosis in an immunocompromised patient with CD4 count < 100/mm3.
41
which herpes is more likely to cause meningitis
HSV 2
42
which herpes is more likely to cause encephalitis
HSV1
43
what are the most common causes of viral meningitis
enteroviruses such as the coxsackie viruses
44
what is the proper diagnostic procedure for mastoididits
CT scan
45
what is the treatment for mastoididits
vancomycin; tympanostomy and possibly mastoidectomy
46
what is the treatment of choice for someone with acute otitis media and a penicillin allergy
macrolides such as azithromycin
47
what is the treatment for GBS
IVIG
48
are steroids used for GBS
NO. they are associated with worse outcomes
49
what is the treatment of primary brain lymphoma
high-dose methotrexate is the treatment of choice
50
what are the alternatives to treatment for primary lymphoma of the brain
first line is methotrexate.
| temozolamide and cytarabine are alternative
51
what is empiric treatment for infant (<1 month) bacterial meningitis
ampicillin, gentamicin and cefotaxime
52
why is ceftriaxone contraindicated in infants
| what alternative therapies are used
high risk of biliary slugging and kernicterus
| cefotaxime, ceftazadime
53
what is the presentation of trachoma conjunctivitis
Trachoma initially presents as follicular conjunctivitis and then progresses to a mixed papillary and follicular conjunctivitis, as seen in this case. The patient's corneal haziness with neovascularization is called pannus and is a classic presentation of active trachoma.
54
what is the presentation of hydroxchloroquine/chloroquine blindness
irreversible retinopathy with the key feature of bullseye maculopathy.
55
what is the treatment for chloroquine retinopathy
discontinue
56
what is the presentation of methanol toxicity
Symptoms begin 12–24 hours after ingestion and can include perceived flashes of light, blurring of vision, abdominal pain, nausea, headache, and altered mental status. Methanol rarely causes the macular damage
57
what is the presentation of age related macular degeneration
leading cause of blindness in the US, commonly affects individuals > 55 years. Although it often presents with difficulty adapting to changes in lighting, it would typically cause central vision impairmentfundoscopy of patients would typically reveal small, discrete, yellowish-white spots (drusen) in the macula in the case of dry AMD (80% of cases) or proliferation of abnormal new blood vessels in the case of wet AMD (much less common)
58
Vitamin A deficiency blindness presentation
is a leading cause of blindness in developing countries, but it is rarely seen in developed countries. Vitamin A deficiency may cause night blindness, but it would typically present with keratomalacia and Bitot's spots.
59
what is a bitot spot and what is the cause
gray triangular patch on the conjunctiva.
60
conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by what
bacterial --staph aureus; strep pneumoniae, H flu
61
what is the treatment of choice for conjunctivitis
topical erythromycin
62
what is the treatment of choice for allergic conjunctivitis
ketotifen antihistamine drops
63
Brown-Sequard syndrome
Hemisection of the spinal cord. Common causes include penetrating trauma and demyelinating diseases (e.g., multiple sclerosis, transverse myelitis). Presents with ipsilateral loss of proprioception, tactile discrimination, and vibration sense due to dorsal column damage, ipsilateral flaccid paralysis due to corticospinal tract damage, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation due to spinothalamic tract damage.
64
what does retinal parlor indicate
ischemia
65
what is Cushing's triad
hypertension, bradycardia and Bradycapnea
66
what % of patients with thymoma get MG
30%
67
what is the treatment of choice for a subarachnoid hemorrhage
surgical clipping or coiling
68
what is peripheral facial nerve palsy treated with
high dose steroids with taper
69
what do ependymomas within the 4th ventricle usually cause
cerebralspinal fluid outflow tract obstruction
70
what is given after subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent ischemia
calcium channel blockers
71
what is indicative of basilar skull fracture
bilateral periorbital ecchymoses with CSF leak
72
what is the difference between cervical disk prolapse and trauma-induced syringomyelia
cervical disk prolapse is usually unilateral
73
what is the treatment for septic cavernous sinus thrombosis
vancomycin, ceftriaxone, metronidazole
| the treatment is Long term because the bacteria can sequester in thrombi
74
what is a preventative for otitis externa
acetic acid or alcohol based ear drops after swimming activities
75
what is a method for reducing cerebral blood flow
hyperventilation
76
what side does motor weakness occur in brain herniation
the ipsilateral side which is contradictory
| this is called kernohan phenomenon
77
what is the typical presentation of creutzfeld Jacob
Rapidly progressing mental decline combined with myoclonus and mutism, as seen in this patient, are typical clinical findings in patients with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. The disease has a rapid course that often leads to death within 12 months.
78
what is the most common cause of hypopituitarism in children
craniopharyngioma
79
when are pituitary adenomas most common
30-60
80
what should be given with IV methylprednisolone
PPI to prevent gastritis and a LMWH for thrombophylaxis
81
what do we use to visualize the anterior chamber of the eye and for diagnosing angle-closure glaucoma
gonioscopy
82
what is the treatment for narcolepsy
modafinil; alternatives/additives are methylphenidate or amphetamines
83
what are the characteristics of narcolepsy
excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS). EDS along with cataplexy (tilting of the head and jaw dropping), hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis
84
what is a rare and serious SE of metaclopramide use
neuroleptic malignant syndrome
85
trochlear nerve damage does what to the eye
produces vertical diplopia or extreme upward gaze.
86
what muscle does the trachlear nerve innervate
superior oblique muscle
87
what tumors are associated with NF2
bilateral acoustic schwannoma and meningioma
88
what is the most common malignant brain tumor in children
medulloblastoma
89
when is the peak incidence of medullonblastom
3-5
90
where does medulloblastoma usually originate
in the cerebellum
91
what is thee most common complication of medulloblastoma
drop mets in the spine 40% of cases
92
what are the characteristics of transient global amnesia
repetitively asks questions about recent events (the “broken record” phenomenon) and her only cognitive impairment is in the delayed recall domain. Other cognitive functions are spared and neurological deficits are absent on physical exam. Episodes of transient global amnesia last approximately 6 hours but are never longer than 24 hours. They usually resolve with older memories returning first, and the capacity to retain new information gradually increases. After recovery, an amnesic gap remains.
93
what causes tardive dyskinesia
this is an extrapyramidal effect from over-antagonism of dopaminergic nigrostriatal pathway
94
what drugs are known for extrapyramidal symptoms
first gen antipsychotics
95
what is the diagnosis for chronic Guillain barre?
chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
96
what is the presentation of CIDP
ascending symmetric sensory and motor deficits that progress over a period greater than two months.
97
what is the treatment for CIDP
IVIg, plasmapheresis, and/or glucocorticoids)
98
what is found in 10-25% of patients with CIDP that can aid in the diagnosis
anti-GM1 antibodies
99
what is the difference between conus medullaris and cauda equina
Conus medullaris syndrome typically manifests with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. Bladder and bowel dysfunction within hours of the injury, hyperreflexia of the ankles, symmetric lower extremity weakness, and back pain are all consistent with this diagnosis.
asymmetric muscle weakness, decreased reflexes, and saddle anesthesia due to damage of the lower motor neurons, which is not consistent with this patient's symmetric muscle weakness and hyperreflexia. In addition, bowel and bladder dysfunction are late findings of CES and would not be expected within hours of injury. Lastly, because of nerve root compression, the pain usually radiates along the sensory distribuftion of the nerves affected.
100
what is the diagnostic test of choice for epidural spinal abscess
MRI
101
where is DHEA-S produced
in the adrenal glands
102
what is the cause of low LH/FSH in a thin woman that works out all the time
functional hypothalamic amenorrhea or hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
103
what is the treatment for functional hypothalamic amenorrhea
The most important aspect of treatment is normalization of energy balance, and this patient should be counseled on making both dietary and exercise regimen changes to increase her BMI.
can also use GnRH to stimulate Lh./FSH
104
is the progesterone IUD good for emergency contraception
no
105
can patients with a metal allergy/metal alloy allergy have copper IUD
no
106
what is the best choice for emergency contraception
copper IUD
107
what is the best choice for emergency contraception iff copper IUD cannot be used
ulipristal acetate
108
how much time do you have to administer ulipristal acetate for successful hinderance of pregnancy
within 5 days
109
what hormones are elevated in PCOS
LH/FSH/testosterone
110
what is anovulation and how does it present
this is normal within the first 2 years of menarche. girls can go several months without having a cycle. The LH and FSH levels will be low.
111
can risperidone change mestrual cycles
yes. there should be elevated prolactin with risperidone treatment
112
what is the first thing that is done when menopause is suspected
measure TSH t rule out hyperthyroidism f
113
what is the next step after finding a high grade intraepithelial lesion on pap smear
colposcopy with endcervical sampling or LEEP
114
when is LEEP used instead of colposcopy
25 or greater
115
when is colposcopy used
35 or over
116
what is the presentation of menopause/primary ovarian failure
low estrogen, increased FSH and Lh due to loss of inhibition from estrogen
there will be an increased FSH to LH ratio
117
what is the next step with blood tinged nipple discharge
subareolar ultrasound
118
what is atrophic vaginitis
thinning of the vaginal mucosa which leads to tissue inflammation.
119
what are the signs and symptoms of atrophic vaginitis/thinning of the vaginal mucosa
decreased vulvovaginal secretions and sensation of vulvovaginal dryness, loss of vaginal elasticity and rugal folds, a decreased labial fat pad, vaginal discharge, and recurrent urinary tract infections.
120
what is the most common cause of delirium
electrolyte abnormalities
121
what are the first steps in assessing delirium
CBC, serum glucose, electrolytes and urinalysis
122
what are the main symptoms of delirium
acute onset (hours to days), alteration in the level of awareness and attention. also can include illusions, hallucinations, reversal of sleep-wake cycle, emotional lability, deficits in memory, agitation and combativeness. the severity tends to fluctuates throughout the day
123
what is the treatment for episodic tension headache
acetaminophen
124
what is episodic tension headache vs.chronci
episodic tension headache, which is defined as 1–14 episodes of headache per month. chronic is more often
occurring at least 15 days per month for more than 3 months
125
what is the treatment for chronic tension headache
amitriptyline
126
what are lifestyle modifications for tension headache
exercise, sleep, avoiding stress
127
what does CSF analysis for CJD return
increased levels of 14-3-3
128
what is a cholesteatoma and how does it present
unilateral hearing loss, otorrhea, tinnitus, vertigo and a past history of multiple ear infection with a pearly white mass.
chronic otitis media in which keratinizing squamous epithelium grows from the tympanic membrane or the auditory canal into the middle ear mucosa. Can be congenital or acquired later in life.
129
what is cubital tunnel sydnrome
In occupations that involve hammering and lifting heavy objects, such as carpentry, the ulnar nerve can be compressed proximally within the cubital tunnel (cubital tunnel syndrome) as a result of repetitive elbow flexion, which decreases the volume of the cubital tunnel. Decreased pinch strength occurs as a result of weakness of the adductor pollicis muscle, which appears as the Froment sign.
130
what is the guyon tunnel
this is the medial aspect of the wrist and contains the ulnar nerve and artery.
131
what is guyon tunnel syndrome
Compression of the ulnar nerve within the Guyon canal (ulnar tunnel syndrome) can also result in decreased pinch strength (due to adductor pollicis weakness) as well as sensory deficits or paresthesias over the little finger and, in some cases, the palmar surface of the medial aspect of the hand. However, the dorsal surface of the hand would be spared because the dorsal surface of the medial aspect of the hand is usually innervated by the dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve, which arises more proximally in the forearm.
132
what is the difference between guyon tunnel and cubital tunnel syndrome
in cubital tunnel there will dorsal hand paresthesia
133
what is one of the main differences between conus medullaris and cauda equine
equina is asymmetric differences in strength
134
what causes lateral medullary syndrome/wallenberg sydnrome
infarct of the PICA
135
what is the presentation of Wallenberg
dizziness (vestibular nucleus), ipsilateral ataxia (inferior cerebellar peduncle), impaired pain and temperature sensations in the ipsilateral side of the face (inferior part of the trigeminal nerve nucleus) and contralateral side of the body (spinothalamic tract), ipsilateral Horner's syndrome as suggested by ptosis and miosis (descending sympathetic fibers), and dysphonia (hoarseness) with an ipsilaterally impaired gag reflex (nucleus ambiguus). Rapid nystagmus and miosis result in blurry vision.
136
how to remember Wallenberg syndrome
how to PIC-A Horse
137
otitis media with effusion can do what
mild hearing loss and speech delay.
138
what is the treatment for OME
usually resolves on its own. However, when a child is becoming language delayed, prompt surgical intervention is required. tubes will equalize the pressure in the ears and allow for drainage of the fluid
139
what is PCA syndrome
contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, as seen in this patient. As the PCA also supplies the thalamus, patients often have thalamic syndrome and report contralateral sensory abnormalities such as numbness or paresthesia in the limbs, trunk, or chest, as seen in this patient with numbness of the right leg. Patients with left-sided PCA strokes, as is the case here, present with alexia without agraphia or anomic aphasia (due to ischemic damage to the splenium of the corpus callosum, which carries visual information from the visual cortex to Broca's and Wernicke's areas).
140
what is the treatment for neuroleptic syndrome
danrtrolene, bromocryptine or amantadine though there is little evidence that they work
benzo are also given to reduce the psychomotor agitation
141
what is the treatment for ALS
riluzole which can only slow the deterioration
142
absence of deep tendon reflexes in an elderly person is
NORMAL
143
what is the presentation of pyogenic brain abscess
usually from dental caries. as the abscess grows it will cause ICP and papilledema. the patient will show signs of meningeal inflammation. there will be fver
144
what is the mainstay of Alzheimers treatments and what is an adjuvant therapy
donepezil and and memantine
145
what is Lewy body dementia
characterized by dementia with visual hallucinations and parkinsonism (e.g., tremor, rigidity).
146
what is the cause of NPH
decreased reabsorption of CSF from the arachnoid villi
147
what is the preferred method for imaging an infants brain/head
ultrasound
148
what is the presentation of brain abscess
ring enhancing lesion, history of infections (ear infections), seizure, fever
149
what is the treatment for brain abscess
immediate sterotactic drainage
150
what is the most common cause of chronic ataxia in patients with alcohol use disorder
cerebellar ataxia
151
how do you confirm IIH
lumbar puncture
152
what is the treatment for IIH
azectazolamide
153
what is the cause of intention tremor
cerebellar demyelination
154
what is the presentation of open-angle glaucoma
slowly progressive increase in intraocular pressure causes optic nerve atrophy. there is increased cup to disk ratio
155
what are thee treatments for open-angle galucoma
Topical prostaglandins such as latanoprost are the first-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma. They lower intraocular pressure by improving the drainage of aqueous humor. Side effects include increased pigmentation of the iris, elongated eyelashes, and burning/stinging during instillation.
156
what are the alternative treatments for open angle glaucoma
topical timolol or beta blockers
157
Typical symptoms caused by cerebellar tumors include
gait ataxia, truncal ataxia, dysarthria, nystagmus, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, and pronator drift.
158
what drug is used to treat acute angle-closure glaucoma
topical pilocarpine
159
what drug is contraindicated in acute angle closure glaucoma
epinephrine
160
what is the treatment for spinal epidural hematoma s
immediate surgical decompression
161
what are the signs of supranuclear palsy
Midbrain atrophy with an intact pons (hummingbird sign) is seen in patients with progressive supranuclear palsy. Atrophy of structures in the tectum of the midbrain (e.g., the superior colliculus) results in vertical gaze palsy, the hallmark of PSP, or, less commonly, complete external ophthalmoparesis. Patients with PSP often have postural instability, which leads to gait impairment and frequent falls. Furthermore, frontal lobe dysfunction manifests with behavioral changes (e.g., apathy, disinhibition, impaired reasoning). Patients usually also present with signs of parkinsonism (e.g., bradykinesia, rigor) and may develop features of pseudobulbar palsy such as dysarthria and dysphagia, as seen in this patient.
162
Status epilepticus can cause potentially irreversible tissue damage of the CNS, resulting in
cortical laminar necrosis (CLN), which is often characterized by permanent neurological deficits.
163
what does pronator drift indicate
upper motor neuron lesion
164
what is the definition of orthostatic hypotension
drop in systolic of 20 or more or a drop in diastolic 10 or more
165
what are the defining features of suprnuclear palsy
disinhibition and vertical gaze palsy
166
what is long term prevention of migraine
propanolol
167
what are the treatments for migraines
NSAIDs are first line followed by sumatriptans and ergotamine as abortives.
168
do you ever combine sumatriptans and ergotamine
no. this can cause stroke.
169
what can be used as monotherapy for migraines with nausea and vomiting
antiemetics such as prochlorperazine
170
what is first line therapy for children with migrainwe
NSDAIDs or tyleno.
171
what do you do for a child with migraine if acetaminophen fails
give NSAID in addition
172
what is the risk of treatment for MS with natalizumab
PML you idiot
173
what is the likely cause of isolated ocular nerve palsy
uncontrolled diabetes causing mononeuropathy
174
what is an accompanying feature of oculomotor nerve palsy (eye is down and out)
ptosis because the levator palpebrae is innervated by the oculomotor nerve
175
is physostigmine used for MG
no. doesnt cross the BBB
176
what is the next step for someone with MG
CT scan of the chest top rule out thymoma
177
what is treatment of choice for MG
pyridostigmine; can give steroids
178
should people with MG get thymectomy
yes, can be beneficial even for people without thymoma
179
which MG patients shouldn't get thymoma
MuSK-associated patients
180
what is the treatment for brain mets
surgical resection
181
what is the presentation of myotonic dystrophy
Abduction of the thumb followed by slow relaxation upon percussion indicates myotonia. Myotonia in a 9-year-old boy with muscle aches and weakness in the distal muscles (hand and/or foot), face, as well as extraocular muscles is highly suggestive of type 1 myotonic dystrophy. Reduced fetal temporalis and pterygoid muscle growth results in a high-arched palate. About 50% of patients with myotonic dystrophy have some degree of cognitive impairment.
182
what is focal to bilateral tonic-clonic seizure
formerly called partial with secondary generalization. this begins in one focal area and then spreads to the general hemispheres. they often begin with aura
183
will Parkinson's show increased or decreased amplitude on foot tapping
decreased
184
where are medulloblastomas usually located
at the midline of the cerebellum at the roof of the fourth ventricle
185
pylocytic astrocytomas prognosis
good after resection
186
what is a treatment for Parkinson for patients that are younger than 65 for initial monotherapy
trihexyphnidyl -an anticholinergic
| dopamine agonists are the treatment of choice
187
what is the presentation of friedrichs ataxia
It affects multiple spinal cord tracts, causing muscle weakness and impaired coordination of all limbs. A staggering gait in childhood is the resulting main symptom. Other features include skeletal abnormalities, cardiomyopathy, and diabetes.
188
what causes F ataxia
An autosomal recessive disorder involving trinucleotide repeat expansion in the frataxin that leads to progressive neurodegeneration.
GAA repeats
189
what are the SE of amantidine
livedo reticularis and peripheral edema
190
what is the treatment of choice for relapsing remitting MS
interferon B
191
what are the other first line medications for MS (relapsing(
glatiramer acetate, dimethyl fumarate, teriflunomide, and fingolimod.
192
what is peroneal neuropathy
the most common peripheral nerve lesion of the lower extremity. due to peroneal compression. foot drop. due to the peroneal nerve wrapping around the head of the fibula
193
what does a CT scan show of vascular dementia
hypodense periventricular lesions
194
what is a medication to treat chorea in huntingtons
tetrabenazine
195
what is a treatment for vascular dementia
cognitive training
196
what is the difference between PML and HIV encephalopathy
HIV encep will have periventricular white matter lesions and cortical atrophy.
PML will be more superficial white matter
197
what is the presentation of lithium toxicity
nausea, vomiting, dry mucous membranes, tremor.
198
what is the treatment for lithium tox
hemodialysis
199
presentation of serotonin syndrome and treatment
hypertension, tremor, diaphoresis, hyperthermia, clonus, hyperrelexia, tachycardia; cyproheptadine
200
what is intranuclear ophthalmoplegia
demyelination of the medial longitudinal fasciculus.
| This is when there is limited adduction of the eyes causing contralateral nystagmus
201
what is the most common cause of INO
MS
202
what is the MRI findings for cerebral palsy
periventricular leukomalacia
203
what is the presentation and treatment for allergic rhinitis
conjunctival erythema and watery discharge, prominent itchiness. NO lymphadenopathy
oral cetrizine
204
what is the presentation and treatment of adenovirus conjunctivitis
Inflammation of the conjunctiva and, possibly, the cornea (keratitis), most commonly caused by adenovirus. FOLICLES on slit lamp. Conjunctival erythema (pink eye) is accompanied by pruritus, and edema. Extra-ocular manifestations commonly include mild fever and preauricular lymphadenopathy. A distinguishing feature is the development of symptoms in one eye with rapid migration to the other eye
treatment is supportive cold compresses and artificial tears
205
what is the presentation and treatment for herpes simplex kerittis
unilateral conjunctivitis accompanied by a foreign body sensation. The classic finding on ocular examination is linearly branching corneal ulcers (dendritic ulcers).
treat with oral acyclovir
206
bacterial conjunctivitis presentation and treatment
which presents with erythematous conjunctiva, purulent discharge, upper lid papillae on slit-lamp examination, and possibly fever and lymphadenopathy.
treat with topical moxifloxacin/erythromycin
207
what is the current recommendation for mild concussion
observation and refrain from contact sports for one week
208
what is klumpke palsy
when there is brachial nerve damage during birthing and the ipsilateral hand shows no grasp reflex
209
what is the presentation of superior gluteal nerve inquiry
trendelenberg gait -the contralateral hip will sag
210
if someone is on benzos and you give Flumazenil what can happen
you can send them into withdrawal and cause seizres
211
what is the difference between hordeleum and chalazon
chalazons are not painful and are classically chronic and typically NOT purulent
212
what is the presentation of bacterial kerititisd
contact lens wearing patient presents with unilateral eye pain, impaired vision and eye discharge. Together with a round corneal infiltrate and a hypopyon, this is highly suggestive of severe bacterial keratitis.
213
what is the topical treatment for bacterial kerititis
ofloxacin
