Amboss 7/1 Flashcards

1
Q

patellar dislocation with osteochondral fragment requires what

A

arthroscopic repair

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2
Q

what is first line therapy for hyperkalemia with signs of cardiac toxicity

A

calcium gluconate for cardiac membrane stability

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3
Q

what is expected in crush injuries

A

hyperkalemia, rhabdomyolysis

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4
Q

what is a common therapy for fibromyalgia

A

TCAs

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5
Q

what is the underlying pathophysiology of pagets disease

A

increased rate of bone remodeling, there is a hereditary component

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6
Q

what is the presentation of pagets

A

most people are asymptomatic. Bone pain characterizes the late stages of disease
The pelvis, skull, vertebral column, and long bones of the lower extremities are the most commonly affected sites .

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7
Q

what are the radiographic findings of pagets

A

While osteolytic bone lesions may be seen earlier in the course of the disease, late disease is dominated by sclerotic bone with cortical thickening, and microfissures and fractures are also common.
MIXED LYTIC AND SCLEROTIC LESIONS is the most likely finding

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8
Q

what are the labs for pagets

A

normal PTH, calcium and phosphate. elevated alk phos.

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9
Q

what neurological symptoms are found in pagets

A

sensorineural hearing loss

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10
Q

what are the labs for osteoporosis

A

mildly elevated alk phos. all other parameters normal

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11
Q

what is the cause of lateral epicondylitis

A

repetitive forearm supination/pronation with the elbow nearly fully extended. also repetitive wrist extension

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12
Q

what is the presentation of osteopetrosis

A

usually from birth with an age of onset from infancy to adulthood. elevated calcium and pancytopenia.
there is usually upward gaze palsy

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13
Q

what is first line treatment for osteoarthritis pain management

A

NSAIDs

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14
Q

symptoms characteristic of osteoarthritis (OA):

A

joint pain that worsens with ambulation/weight bearing, joint stiffness < 30 minutes after prolonged immobility, decreased range of motion (due to osteophytes), palpable crepitus of both knees, genu varum (due to medial cartilage loss), and nodules on the DIP (Heberden’s nodes) and PIP (Bouchard’s nodes).

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15
Q

what is first line therapy for rheumatoid arthritis

A

methotrexate is a DMARD and the first line longterm therapy for moderate to severe RA

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16
Q

should DMARDs be given early in disease

A

yes. because damage occurs early in RA.

17
Q

what are the benefits of methotrexate for RA

A

it is cheap, highly effective and well-tolerated.

18
Q

is methotrexate given during acute RA attacks

A

no. glucorticoids and NSAIDs are used as bridging therapy

19
Q

what is the typical SE of methotrexate and what drug should be given to prevent it

A

myelosuppression.

leucovorin (folic acid)

20
Q

what are some other features of RA

A

rheumatoid nodules which are subcutaneous nodules and felty syndrome

21
Q

what is felty syndrome

A

hepatosplenomegaly with pancytopenia

22
Q

what is the most specific lab test for RA

A

anti-CCP antibodies

23
Q

what is the treatment for an acute RA flare

A

prednisone

24
Q

what is one of the most common causes of bakers cyst

A

rheumatoid arthritis

25
Q

what are the treatments of choice for ankylosing spondylitis

A

NSAIDs and TNF inhibitors such as etanerecept

26
Q

X-ray findings of RA typically include

A

joint space narrowing, erosions of the cartilage and bone, and generalized demineralization.

27
Q

what is the strongest predisposing factor for a bakers cyst

A

traumatic synovium or meniscal tear.

inflammation of the synovium stimulates synovial fluid generation

28
Q

what nerve provides sensation to the medial thigh

A

obturator

29
Q

what nerve provides sensation to the anteromedial thigh

A

femoral

30
Q

what are anti-Jo-1

A

dermatomyositis and polymyositis

31
Q

what are the antibodies found in dermatomyositis and polymyositis

A

anti-Jo-1; Anti-Mi-2;

32
Q

what are anti-histone antibodies indicative of

A

drug induced lupus

33
Q

what are anti-Ro and La antibodies indicative of

A

sjrogens

34
Q

Anti-Scl-70 antibodies (anti-topoisomerase)

A

are associated with systemic sclerosis (SSc), especially with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis.

35
Q

what is the presentation of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

short stature, convexity of thoracic spine, curvature of the tibias, increased mobility of the joints, hearing loss, easy bruisability, blue sclera

36
Q

what is one way to reduce gouty flares

A

reduce purine rich foods, such as fish

37
Q

what is erbs palsy

A

damage to the upper truck of the brachial plexus and is the most common neonatal brachial plexus injury