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step II > amboss 6/28 > Flashcards

amboss 6/28 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the treatment for a pilonidal cyst

A

incision and drainage. the wounds are typically packed with gauze and healing occurs by secondary closure

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2
Q

what is the typical presentation of pilonidal cyst

A

obese, sedentary men with deep gluteal cleft and excessive body hair

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3
Q

what is the presentation of rubella

A

The typical exanthem of rubella is preceded by a prodromal phase in which the patient presents with postauricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy, symptoms of a common cold, and in some cases a maculopapular enanthem on the soft palate (Forchheimer sign). Patients subsequently develop a non-confluent, pink maculopapular rash beginning at the head (often behind the ears) and spreading to the trunk and extremities. The palms and soles are usually spared by the exanthem.

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4
Q

what is the cause of angioedema from ACEi

A

inhibition of bradykinin breakdown. presents with swelling of the face and the lips and eyes

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5
Q

what is the presentation of roseola infantum

A

also known as exanthem subitum, is a disease caused by the human herpesvirus 6 that primarily affects infants and young children. It is characterized by a 3-day high fever (causing a tonic-clonic febrile seizure in this child) that ends abruptly (“3-day fever”) and is immediately followed by a blanching, maculopapular, nonpruritic rash. The rash appears mainly on the trunk but may spread to the face and extremities. It is commonly associated with cervical, postauricular, and/or occipital lymphadenopathy.

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6
Q

what is the cause of bullous impetigo

A

staph aureus

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7
Q

what is the cause of nonbullous impetigo

A

staph aureus or strep pyogenes

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8
Q

what is the treatment for impetigo

A

topical mupirocin

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9
Q

what is the treatment for actinomyces if the person has sensitivity to penicillin

A

doxycycline

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10
Q

what must be done if a pregnant mother has a child with fifth disease and why

A

serology on the mother to see she has immunity to parvovirus. If she becomes infected then she will need close monitoring as Parvo can cause fetal hydrops

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11
Q

what are the first Line therapies for pinworm infection

A

albendazole or pyrantel pamoate

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12
Q

what is the treatment for pinworm in a pregnant woman

A

reassurance and supportive measures such as strict cleanliness until the third trimester or after birth and then

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13
Q

what is the presentation of bullous impetigo

A

The rash is typically comprised of flaccid and superficial bullae, which may rupture and leave thin brown crusts. Lateral traction causes sloughing of the skin, which indicates a positive Nikolsky sign.

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14
Q

what is the treatment for bullous impetigo

A

Bullous impetigo is treated with first-generation cephalosporins such as cephalexin.

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15
Q

what is the treatment for cutaneous larva migrans

A

oral ivermectin or albendazole. this just relieves symptoms most of the time the infections are self-limiting and do not require treatment resolving within 2 months

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16
Q

what is eczema herepeticum

A

symptoms (fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy) and his rash indicate eczema herpeticum, a cutaneous manifestation of herpes infection (usually HSV-1 or HSV-2). This condition is associated with pre-existing skin conditions, most often atopic dermatitis. Eczema herpeticum is considered a dermatological emergency because the rash on the patient’s shoulder can disseminate rapidly.

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17
Q

eczema herepeticum treatment

A

Treatment with oral or IV acyclovir should be initiated as soon as possible

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18
Q

what is the most common cause of erysipelas and lymphangitis

A

strep pyogenes

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19
Q

what is the treatment for head lice infection

A

topical permethrin

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20
Q

what is the treatment for tinea capitis

A

oral griseofulvin

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21
Q

what lesions does papilloma virus cause

A

cauliflour-like

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22
Q

what lesions does pox virus cause

A

skin colored, round, with a dimpled center

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23
Q

what type of virus causes molluscum

A

poxvirus

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24
Q

what is the treatment for bartonella infection and why

A

azithromycin because it reduces the lymphadenopathy

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25
Q

what is the typical course for cat scratch disease

A

limited course that resolves on its own

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26
Q

what is the best way to diagnose pityriasis versicolor

A

through KOH prep –meatballs and spaghetti appearance

27
Q

what is the treatment for veriscolor

A

topical selenium sulfide. shampoo or a lotion

28
Q

what is the causative organism for versicolor

A

malassezia furfur

29
Q

what is the treatment of choice for someone with erysipelas with systemic symptoms

A

IV cefazolin

alternatively penicillin

30
Q

what is the strongest predisposing factor for cellulitis

A

tinea pedis

31
Q

what are the indications for inpatient IV acyclovir for herpes zoster

A

immunocompromised patients, involving several dermatomes, or if it becomes disseminated

32
Q

what is the treatment for jarisch-herxheimer reaction

A

supportive like NSAIDs

33
Q

what is second line treatment for scarlet fever/tonsillopharyngitis

A

azithromycin

34
Q

what is a rare complication of measles infection

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

35
Q

what is the presentation of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

A

It usually develops at least 7 years after the initial infection with measles and is characterized by dementia, myoclonus, and epilepsy, leading to coma and death.

36
Q

what is the treatment for measles virus

A

vitamin A

37
Q

what is the presentation of parvovirus in an adult

A

mild URI symptoms, followed by poly-, symmetrical arthritis. rash may be present or absent (lacy macular)

38
Q

what is the presentation of disseminated gonococcal

A

Clinical triad (arthritis-dermatitis syndrome)
Polyarthralgias: migratory, asymmetric arthritis that may become purulent
Tenosynovitis: simultaneous inflammation of several tendons (e.g., fingers, toes, wrist, ankle)
Dermatitis: vesicular, pustular, or maculopapular lesions, possibly with a necrotic or hemorrhagic center
Most commonly distributed on the trunk, extremities (sometimes involving the palms and soles)
Typically < 10 lesions that have a transient course (subside in 3–4 days)

39
Q

what is an epidermoid cyst

A

a firm, mobile, slow-growing nodule that arises from the epidermis. Common locations for epidermoid cysts include the neck, face, head, back, and genital area. These lesions can be distinguished from those arising below the epidermis, as the overlying skin cannot be pinched.

40
Q

Dermatofibromas are

A

small, skin-colored growths that most commonly develop on the lower extremities. Because dermatofibromas arise from the dermis, the epidermis overlying the lesion is pinchable and produces a central dimple (Fitzpatrick sign). Since the skin overlying this patient’s nodule cannot be pinched, it is not likely to be a dermatofibroma.

41
Q

Lipomas are

A

painless, slow-growing, mobile nodules that are more rubbery in consistency rather than firm (they are made of mature fat cells). Unlike this patient’s nodule, lipomas do not arise from the cutaneous layers; the overlying skin can be pinched.

42
Q

what is the treatment of a circumferential third degree burn that is causing impaired perfusion

A

escharotomy

43
Q

what is the surface area of the anterior surfaces of the upper extremities

A

4.5%

44
Q

what is the surface area of the chest

A

9%

45
Q

what is the surface area of the abdomen

A

9%

46
Q

what is the surface area of the anterior lower extremities

A

9%

47
Q

what should be considered in someone with a chronic non healing ulcer with chronic venous insufficiency

A

marjolin ulcer. cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma

48
Q

when must a sentinel lymph node study be conducted for superficial spreading melanoma

A

when the lesion is greater than 1.mm

49
Q

what is the treatment of choice for superficial spreading melanoma

A

1-2cm safety margins excision with or without sentinel lymph node study

50
Q

what can be given to immunocompromised patients with chickenpox

A

acyclovir they should recieve within 24 hours to reduce the duration and the severity of disease

51
Q

what must be done before mohs surgery on basal cell carcinoma

A

excisional biopsy to confirm

52
Q

pyoderma gangrenosum

A

In a patient with a history of Crohn’s disease, skin lesions could be an extra-intestinal manifestation of the systemic disease. A history of a small lesion which grew in size to become ulcerated and necrotic makes pyoderma gangrenosum most likely. It typically presents on the extensor side of the lower limbs.

53
Q

what is the presentation of herpangina and what is it

A

vesiculopapular lesions on the posterior oropharynx with systemic symptoms
caused by coxsackie virus

54
Q

what causes herpangina

A

coxsackie A hand foot and mouth

55
Q

when is a tetanus shot indicated

A

every 10 years or when there is injury and the injury occurred greater than 5 years after a tetanus and if the wound is dirty or looks contaminated

56
Q

what is the treatment for mild rosacea

A

topical metronidazole

57
Q

what is the treatment for moderate to severe rosacea

A

systemic doxycycline

58
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

can be caused by captopril and would present with cutaneous blisters. However, the blisters are typically tense and occur symmetrically, with a predilection for intertriginous areas. Moreover, a prodromal phase that is characterized by pruritus and papules/urticarial lesions/skin excoriations would occur, the Nikolsky sign would be negative, and mucous membranes (especially those of the genitalia) would typically be spared.

59
Q

what is the treatment for acute dacryocystitis

A

amoxicillin-clavulnate; warm compresses and NSAIDs

60
Q

where does squamous cell carcinoma most likely occur the upper or lower lip

A

lower lip

61
Q

what is the treatment for a diabetic ulcer that has sloughing and callusing

A

sharp tool debridement

62
Q

what is the treatment for a cat bite

A

empiric treatment with amoxicillin clavulanate prophylaxis

63
Q

what can skin condition can be caused by warfarin treatment and what causes it

A

skin necrosis from protein C deficiency

64
Q

what is the treatment of warfarin skin necrosis

A

protein C concentrate

step II (22 decks)

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