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NURS 3150 (patho) > Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function > Flashcards

Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function Flashcards

1
Q

_____: break in the continuity of a bone due to external forces

A

fracture

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2
Q

_______ severity: bone is broken all the way through

A

complete

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3
Q

______ severity: bone is damaged but still in one piece

A

incomplete

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4
Q

_____ severity: skin is intact

A

closed (simple)

(can be complete or incomplete)

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5
Q

_______ severity: skin is broken

A

open (compound)

(can be complete or incomplete)

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6
Q

______ fracture: bone breaks into more than two fragments

A

comminuted

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7
Q

______ fracture: fracture runs parallel to the long axis of the bone

A

linear

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8
Q

______ fracture: fracture of the shaft of the bone is slanted

A

oblique

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9
Q

______ fracture: encircles the bone; often sign of child abuse

A

spiral

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10
Q

______ fracture: straight across the bone

A

transverse

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11
Q

______ fracture: small crack in bone

A

greenstick

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12
Q

______ fracture: longitudinal force is applied to a bone; often with long-term obesity

A

bowing

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13
Q

______ fracture: break occurs at the site of a preexisting disease (ex. cancer, osteoporosis)

A

pathologic

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14
Q

______ fracture: repeated fatigue; often in athletes

A

stress

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15
Q

what are the three types of improper reduction or immobilization

A

nonunion, delayed union, malunion

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16
Q

______: failure of the bone ends to grow together

A

nonunion

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17
Q

_____: improper reduction that may occur more than 8 months after a fracture

A

delayed union

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18
Q

______: bone does not heal straight

A

malunion

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19
Q

______: temporary displacement of bone from its joint

A

dislocation

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20
Q

_______: contact between the bones in the joint only partially lost

A

subluxation

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21
Q

what is the treatment for dislocation and subluxation

A

reduction and immobilization for 2-6 weeks followed by rehab exercises

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22
Q

how long do injuries to tendons and ligaments often take to heal

A

4-6 weeks or more

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23
Q

_____: tear or injury to a tendon

A

strain

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24
Q

______: tear to injury to a ligament

A

sprain

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25
Q

_______: complete separation of a tendon or ligament from its bony attachment

A

avulsion

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26
Q

clinical manifestations of a tendon or ligament injury

A
  • sharp, local pain often accompanied by swelling and changes in tendon or ligament contour
  • may occur with dislocation or subluxation of bones
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27
Q

_____: inflammation of a tendon

A

tendinitis

28
Q

_____: inflammation of a bursa

A

bursitis

29
Q

where are bursa located

A

near tendons, muscles, and bony prominences

(filled with synovial fluid)

30
Q

what is bursitis caused by

A

repeated trauma

31
Q

____ bursitis is caused by wound infection

A

septic

32
Q

_______: inflammation of a tendon where it attaches to a bone

A

epicondylitis

33
Q

_____: tennis elbow

A

lateral epicondylitis

34
Q

________: golfer’s elbow

A

medial epicondylitis

35
Q

_______: life-threatening complication of severe muscle trauma with muscle cell loss

A

rhabdomyolysis

(life threatening - crush syndromes vs crush injuries)

(limb threatening - compartment syndrome; one area of trauma)

36
Q

rhabdomyolysis is the rapid breakdown of muscle that causes the release of what

A

the release of intracellular contents and myoglobin into extracellular space and bloodstream

37
Q

clinical manifestations of rhabdomyolysis

A

classic triad = muscle pain, weakness, dark urine (from myoglobin)

37
Q

_______: is porous, poorly mineralized bone

A

osteoporosis

38
Q

clinical manifestations of osteoporosis

A
  • bone deformity (most common)
  • pain, pathologic fractures, kyphosis, diminished height
38
Q

osteoporosis is a more than ____% loss of bone tissue

A

30%

39
Q

prevention of osteoporosis

A
  • regular moderate weightbearing exercises (walking)
  • increase calcium and magnesium intake (similar to during adolescence)
40
Q

______: “soft bones”

A

osteomalacia

(deficiency of vitamin D lowers the calcium absorption from the intestines)

41
Q

____: state of increased metabolic activity in bone; bone resorption and formation are excessive

A

paget disease

42
Q

paget disease does what to affected bones

A

enlarges and softens them

42
Q

what skeleton does paget disease most often affect

A

axial skeleton (skull, spine, chest, pelvis)

43
Q

________: infectious bone disease caused by Staphylococcus aureus

A

osteomyelitis

(spreads along the bone shaft or into the bone marrow)

44
Q

osteomyelitis results in what

A

bone death due to ischemia (lack of blood flow to bone)

45
Q

________: one of the most common forms of bone cancer; often occurs in patients with a history of exposure to radiation

A

osteosarcoma

46
Q

where is osteosarcoma most often found

A

in long bones

47
Q

_______: degenerative joint disease; inflammatory joint disease with loss of articular cartilage, sclerosis of underlying bone, formation of bone spurs (osteophytes)

A

osteoarthritis

48
Q

treatment of osteoarthritis

A

balanced diet, aerobic exercise, range-of-motion exercise, weight loss

(analgesic/antiinflammatory drug, rest of joints, cane, braces, walker, joint replacement)

49
Q

_______: arthritis; inflammatory damage or destruction in the synovial membrane or articular cartilage

A

inflammatory joint disease

50
Q

systemic signs of inflammation (inflammatory joint disease)

A

fever (infection), malaise, leukocytosis, anorexia, hyperfibrinogenemia

51
Q

_______: systemic autoimmune destruction to synovial membrane and joints

A

rheumatoid arthritis

52
Q

clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • systemic joint swelling, joint deformities, joint fluid with inflammatory exudate
  • systemic manifestations of inflammation
  • painful, tender, stiff joints
  • fever
  • fatigue
  • anorexia
53
Q

treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A

disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

54
Q

_________: chronic inflammatory joint disease of the spine or sacroiliac joints, causing stiffening and fusion of the peripheral joints

A

ankylosing spondylitis

55
Q

clinical manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis

A

low back pain, stiffness restricted motion
- kyphosis: loss of normal lumbar curvature

(chest pain/restricted chest movement)

56
Q

____: metabolic disorder that exhibits high levels of uric acid in the blood and other body fluids

A

gout

57
Q

name two causes of gout

A
  • purine synthesis or breakdown is accelerated (increased uric acid in body)
  • poor uric acid secretion in the kidneys
58
Q

clinical manifestations of gout

A

crystals deposit in connective tissues throughout the body

(joints: gouty arthritis; skin: small, visible nodules (tophi))

59
Q

treatments for gout

A
  • drink lots of fluids/ infuse fluids through IV
  • antigout medications
  • besrest
  • weight reduction
  • avoidance of alcohol and dietary changes
60
Q

______: chronic widespread joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and multiple tender points in body

A

fibromyalgia

61
Q

_____: applied to a primary muscle disorder that affects muscle strength, tone, bulk

A

myopathy

62
Q

what is the most common cause of toxic myopathies

A

alcohol abuse

63
Q

_____: rare benign tumor of striated muscle

A

rhabdomyoma

64
Q

____: highly malignant tumor of striated muscle

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

NURS 3150 (patho) (13 decks)

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