Alpacas Flashcards

The basics

1
Q

TPR

A
  • Temp: 37.5-38.9C
  • RR: 1-30brpm
  • HR: 60-90bpm
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2
Q

Points for distant observation/exam

A
  • Stand and walk with straight or slight dorsal curve to spine
  • excessive hunching: lameness or skeletal or abdominal pain
  • Respiratory pattern: even and without effort
  • Abdomen: full but not distended
    gaunt/tucked up: anorexia
  • Body contour: smooth, no lumps or bumps
  • Perineum: clean, no discharge
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3
Q

MM examination
(where? colour? crt? peripheral perfusion?)

A
  • Oral (Only when sedated), Vuvla, Ocular
  • Pale pink and moist
    CRT <2seconds
  • Peripheral perfusion: distal extremity temperature – ears, feet and legs
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4
Q

What can mm changes indicate?

A
  • toxaemia
  • cyanosis
  • jaundice
  • anaemia
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5
Q

MM changes indicating septicaemia

A
  • petechial haemorrhage +/- injected scleral blood vessels
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6
Q

What vaccination should alpacas receive?

A
  • clostridial
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7
Q

Clostridial vaccine course

A
  • primary vaccine: 2 injections 3-6w apart
  • annually
  • boosters before surgery if annual injection >6m and pregnant animals 4-6w before unpacking
  • give to cries that have good passive transfer at 2-3m/o
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8
Q

Examples of clostridial vaccines

A
  • lambivac
  • heptovac
  • bravoxin
  • covexin
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9
Q

GIT of alpacas

A
  • pseudo-ruminants
  • 3 compartments
    – C1, C2 (reticulum) & C3 (abomasum)
  • spiral colon
    – flat, single spiral
    – obstructions possible at the junction where the centripetal loop becomes centrifugal
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10
Q

Dentition of alpacas

A
  • growth stops after castration
  • incisors grow continuously and have an open pulp cavity
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11
Q

Why is tooth removal difficult?

A
  • deep, curved roots
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12
Q

GIT condition examples

A
  • mandibular abscess
  • osteomyelitis/lumpy jaw
  • hepatic lipidosis
  • megaoesophagus
  • gastric atony
  • d+
  • gastric ulceration
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13
Q

Mandibular abscess - which teeth are affected?

A
  • pre molars / 1st and 2nd molars
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14
Q

Mandibular abscess - CS

A
  • lateral swelling +/- draining tract
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15
Q

Mandibular abscess - tx

A
  • tooth extraction required
    – lateral incision over the teeth
    – split tooth
    – divergent roots, repel tooth into oral cavity
    – done under GA
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16
Q

Osteomyelitis/lumpy jaw - CS

A
  • drooling
  • weight loss
  • ill thrift
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17
Q

Osteomyelitis/lumpy jaw - diagnosis

A
  • radiographs/CT/MRI
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18
Q

Hepatic lipidosis - which animals?

A
  • all ages
  • esp pregnant and lactating females, and anorexic animals
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19
Q

Hepatic lipidosis - diagnosis

A
  • increased serum triglycerides and lipids
  • US changes in liver echogenicity
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20
Q

Hepatic lipidosis - tx

A
  • supportive tx e.g. fluids
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21
Q

Megaoesophagus - CS

A
  • Weight loss
  • Regurgitation
  • Hypersalivation
  • Frothing
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22
Q

Megaoesophagus - diagnosid

A
  • barium contrast study
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23
Q

Megaoesophagus - tx/management

A
  • diet changes
    – easy swallowing and feeding from an elevated surface
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24
Q

Gastric atony - CS

A
  • anorexia
  • loss in BCS
  • depression
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25
Q

Gastric atony - tx

A
  • fluids
  • if anorexic for 3-5d, death of bacteria and protozoa in C1&2 -> requires transfaunation
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26
Q

Causes of d+ in adults

A
  • feed changes
  • eosinophilic enteritis
  • eimeria
  • mycobacterium paratuberculosis
  • parasites
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27
Q

Is mycobacterium paratuberculosis in alpacas fatal?

A
  • yes
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28
Q

Causes of d+ in cria

A
  • milk scour
  • diet change
  • rotavirus
  • coronavirus
  • cryptosporidium
  • e.coli
  • eimeria (around weaning -> stress induced)
  • giardia
  • yersinia pseudotuberculosis
  • salmonella
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29
Q

Why can diet change in cria be a problem?

A
  • can lead to a blockage of the spiral colon and colic
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30
Q

D+ tx

A
  • fluids
  • electrolyte replacement
  • antibiotics
  • NSAIDs
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31
Q

Where in alpacas does gastric ulceration occur?

A
  • C3 & proximal duodenum
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32
Q

CS of gastric ulceration

A
  • anorexia
  • colic
  • bruxism
  • depression
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33
Q

Gastric ulceration tx

A
  • IV pantoprazole or omeprazole to increase C3 pH
  • +/- blood transfusion
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34
Q

Tx of vitamin D deficiency - when and what with?

A
  • oral paste
  • injectable
  • young animals:
    –3 doses: November, January, March
  • all ages
    – November
  • pregnant females
    – 2 doses: January & November
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35
Q

How to improve bonding after unpacking

A
  • minimal handling
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36
Q

What should the weight gain of a cria be at 1 month old?

A
  • double birth weight
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37
Q

Navel dipping routine post-unpacking

A
  • navel dipping daily with chlorhexidine until dry
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38
Q

Cria TPR + weight

A
  • weight 7-11kg
  • HR 60-100bpm
  • RR 30brpm
  • temp 37.8
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39
Q

How much colostrum should cries ingest within 12-24h?

A
  • 10-15% BWT (ideally within 12h)
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40
Q

What IgG (g/dl) would indicate FPT at 18-24h?

A
  • <5.5g/dl
41
Q

Tx of FPT

A
  • 1 unit of plasma (300ml) taken from an older vaccinated male from the same herd if possible
42
Q

CS of FPT

A
  • dull and depressed
  • unable to stand
  • no suckle reflex
  • hypothermia
  • septicaemia
  • d+
43
Q

Congenital abnormalities examples

A
  • choanal atresia
  • umbilical hernia
  • VSD
  • segmental aplasia
  • atresia ani/coli
  • syndactyly/polydactyly
  • angular limb deformities
  • prematurity
  • wry nose/face
  • blue eyed deafness
  • juvenile cataracts
  • blocked nasolacrimal ducts
  • tail defects
44
Q

Examples of female congenital urogenital abnormalities

A
  • uterus unicornis
  • hypoplastic ovaries
  • double cervices
  • segmental aplasia of vagina/uterus
  • clitoral hypertrophy
  • unilateral kidney / no kidneys
45
Q

Examples of male congenital urogenital abnormalities

A
  • hypospadias
  • retained testicles
  • testicular hypoplasia
  • persistent frenulum
  • ectopic testicles
  • corkscrew penis
46
Q

Which is the most common congenital abnormality? Describe it

A

Choanal atresia
- uni or bilateral
- partial or complete blockage
- fatal as obligate nasal breather
- respiratory distress, esp at nursing

47
Q

Examples of angular limb deformities

A
  • valgus/varus
  • arthrogryposis
  • tendon laxity
48
Q

CS of prematurity

A
  • domed head
  • floppy ears
  • excess foot periople
  • silky fur
  • failure to stand
  • poor suckle reflex
  • FPT
49
Q

Wry nose/face

A
  • <5 degree or >60 degree lateral deviation of the maxilla
  • mandible may able be affected
50
Q

Pre-op considerations for castration

A
  • clostridial vaccination
  • starve for 12h (regurgitation risk)
  • AB: penicillin
  • NSAIDs
  • LA into testicle after sedation
51
Q

Sedation for castration

A
  • triple stun IM
    – xylazine 0.3-0.5mg/kg
    – butorphanol 0.05-01mg/kg
    – ketamine 3-5mg/kg
52
Q

Closed castration technique

A
  • Sterile clip and prep
  • 2 -3 cm incision over testicle parallel to median raphe on caudal ventral aspect of scrotum
  • Break down ligament using sterile swabs
  • Keep tunic closed
  • Break down ligament with swabs and remove any fascia
  • Three clamp method
  • Transfixation and encircling suture
  • Emasculation of spermatic cord
  • Check for heamorrhage
  • Leave scrotum open
  • Ensure no soft tissue is protruding from incision
  • Topical antibiotics and fly treatment when required
53
Q

CS of endoparasites

A
  • d+
  • ill thrift
  • anaemia
  • malaise
  • death
54
Q

Endoparasites examples

A
  • nematodirus
  • haemonchus
  • liver fluke
  • coccidiosis
  • lung worm
  • cryptosporidium
55
Q

What does liver fluke affect?

A
  • the bile ducts
56
Q

Liver fluke

A

= fasciola hepatica

57
Q

Liver fluke shedding

A
  • in faeces at 10-12d but not always seen
58
Q

CS of liver fluke

A
  • ill thrift
  • poor growth
  • death
59
Q

Liver fluke diagnosis/biochem

A
  • increased serum bile acids >25mcmol/l
  • ALP >121U/l
  • AST >235U/l
60
Q

Why with liver fluke must you vaccinate for clostridial dz?

A
  • increased risk of blacks disease (C. novyi)
61
Q

Dermatological conditions

A
  • copper deficiency
  • dorsal nasal alopecia
  • zinc responsive dermatosis
  • munge
62
Q

CS & tx of copper defieicny

A
  • depigmentation of fibre
  • wire texture
  • poor growth
  • predisposed to dz
  • dietary supplementation required
63
Q

CS of dorsal nasal alopecia

A
  • dermatitis on bridge of nose
  • scaled, hyperpigmentation, thickened
64
Q

Dorsal nasal alopecia- other name

A
  • dark nose syndrome
65
Q

Which colour is dorsal nasal alopecia seen in?

A
  • dark coloured animals
66
Q

Cause of dorsal nasal alopecia

A
  • burrowing mites
67
Q

Diagnosis of dorsal nasal alopecia

A
  • skin scrapes
  • biopsy
68
Q

Tx of dorsal nasal alopecia

A
  • parasite tx +/- steroids (topical or systemic)
69
Q

Zinc responsive dermatosis - what is it?

A
  • idiopathic hyperkeratosis
70
Q

Zinc responsive dermatosis - age affected?

A
  • any age
71
Q

Zinc responsive dermatosis - CS

A
  • non-pruritic papule with tightly adherent crust
  • less densely haired areas on perineum, ventral abdomen, inguinal region, medial thighs, axilla, medial forearms, face
72
Q

Zinc responsive dermatosis - diagnosis

A
  • skin biopsy
73
Q

Zinc responsive dermatosis - tx

A
  • oral zinc sulphate
  • topical zinc shampoos
74
Q

Munge - CS

A
  • severe dermatitis
    – heavy, adherent, hyperketatotic crusts
  • paranasal/perioral regions
75
Q

Munge tx

A
  • tx secondary bacterial infection +/- mange
76
Q

Munge - ddx

A
  • viral contagious pustular dermatitis
  • dermatophilosis
  • dermatophytosis
  • bacterial dermatitis
  • immune-mediated dz
77
Q

Ectoparasites

A
  • Sarcoptes
  • Psoroptes
  • Chorioptes
  • Demodex
  • Biting Damalinia breviceps
  • Sucking Microthoracius cameli
  • ticks
78
Q

CS of ectoparasites

A
  • alopecia
  • hyperkeratosis
  • scaling
  • pruritis
79
Q

Ectoparasites ddx

A
  • zinc deficiency
80
Q

Ectoparasites - diagnosis

A
  • skin biopsies
  • sellotape test (for D. breviceps & M. cameli)
81
Q

Sarcoptes, Psoroptes, Chorioptes, Demodex - tx

A
  • ivermectin repeated q14d IM/SC
    – not oral
82
Q

D. breviceps tx

A
  • topical pyrethrin
83
Q

M. cameli tx

A
  • Ivermectin
84
Q

CS of ticks

A
  • tick paralysis
  • inner ear issues leading to Horners syndrome +/- encephalic death
85
Q

TB types

A
  • mycobacterium pinnipedii
  • mycobacterium bovis
  • mycobacterium microti
86
Q

CS of TB

A
  • lethargy
  • anorexia
  • weight loss
  • coughing
  • resp signs mild to severe
  • sudden death
87
Q

Is TB zoonotic?

A
  • yes
88
Q

TB testing

A
  • blood test
  • PM: granulomas in lungs and lymph nodes, acid fast bacilli
89
Q

Mycoplasma haemolamae - CS

A
  • mild-fatal anaemia
90
Q

Mycoplasma haemolamae - diagnosis

A
  • PCR or blood smear
91
Q

Mycoplasma haemolamae - tx

A
  • oxytetracycline
  • +/- blood transfusion
92
Q

Placement of jugular catheters

A
  • RHS of neck
  • high up or low down
  • LA for placement
  • 16-18G for adults
93
Q

Injection sites

A
  • IM: rump, cranial neck
  • SC: axilla, cranial to scapula
94
Q

MSK conditions

A
  • lameness
  • fractures
95
Q

Lameness - CS

A
  • NWB
  • +/- vocalisation
96
Q

Minor injuries causing lameness

A
  • sprains
  • ligament damage
97
Q

Lameness tx

A
  • NSAIDs and rest
98
Q

Common fracture sites

A
  • limbs
  • spine
99
Q

Fracture tx

A
  • NSAIDs
  • referral
    – can use pins, plats and screws (but signalment and weight dependent)