Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Introduction to Psychology FINAL > All Words > Flashcards

All Words Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards AP® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

Adaptations

A

In evolutionary theory, the physical characteristics, skills, or abilities that increase the chances of reproduction or survival and are therefore likely to be passed along to future generations. (page 13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Behaviorism

A

A psychological approach that emphasizes the role of environmental forces in producing observable behavior. (page 15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cognitive neuroscience

A

The study of the neural mechanisms underlying thought, learning, perception, language, and memory. (page 17)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Critical thinking

A

Systematically questioning and evaluating information using well-supported evidence. (page 5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Culture

A

The beliefs, values, rules, and customs that exist within a group of people who share a common language and environment. (page 10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Evolutionary theory

A

A theory presented by the naturalist Charles Darwin; it views the history of a species in terms of the inherited, adaptive value of physical characteristics, of mental activity, and of behavior. (page 13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Functionalism

A

An approach to psychology concerned with the adaptive purpose, or function, of mind and behavior. (page 13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gestalt theory

A

A theory based on the idea that the whole of personal experience is different from the sum of its constituent elements. (page 15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Humanistic psychology

A

This approach focuses on the basic goodness of people and how they become happier and more fulfilled. (page 16)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Introspection

A

A systematic examination of subjective mental experiences that requires people to inspect and report on the content of their thoughts. (page 12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mind/body problem

A

A fundamental psychological issue: Are mind and body separate and distinct, or is the mind simply the physical brain’s subjective experience? (page 10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Natural selection

A

In evolutionary theory, the idea that those who inherit characteristics that help them adapt to their particular environments have a selective advantage over those who do not. (page 13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nature/nurture debate

A

The arguments concerning whether psychological characteristics are biologically innate or acquired through education, experience, and culture. (page 10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Psychoanalysis

A

A method developed by Sigmund Freud that attempts to bring the contents of the unconscious into conscious awareness so that conflicts can be revealed. (page 14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Psychological science

A

The study, through research, of mind, brain, and behavior. (page 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Stream of consciousness

A

A phrase coined by William James to describe each person’s continuous series of ever-changing thoughts. (page 12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Structuralism

A

An approach to psychology based on the idea that conscious experience can be broken down into its basic underlying components. (page 12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Unconscious

A

The place where mental processes operate below the level of conscious awareness. (page 14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Term

A

Description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Acetylcholine (ACh)

A

The neurotransmitter responsible for motor control at the junction between nerves and muscles; it is also involved in mental processes such as learning, memory, sleeping, and dreaming. (page 78)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Action potential

A

The electrical signal that passes along the axon and subsequently causes the release of chemicals from the terminal buttons. (page 72)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

All-or-none principle

A

The principle that when a neuron fires, it fires with the same potency each time; a neuron either fires or not – it cannot partially fire, although the frequency of firing can vary. (page 75)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Amygdala

A

A brain structure that serves a vital role in learning to associate things with emotional responses and in processing emotional information. (page 86)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Autonomic nervous system (ANS)

A

A component of the peripheral nervous system; it transmits sensory signals and motor signals between the central nervous system and the body’s glands and internal organs. (page 98)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Axon

A

A long, narrow outgrowth of a neuron by which information is conducted from the cell body to the terminal buttons. (page 71)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Basal ganglia

A

A system of subcortical structures that are important for the planning and production of movement. (page 87)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Brain stem

A

An extension of the spinal cord; it houses structures that control functions associated with survival, such as heart rate, breathing, swallowing, vomiting, urination, and orgasm. (page 84)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Broca’s area

A

A small portion of the left frontal region of the brain, crucial for the production of language. (page 82)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cell body

A

The site in the neuron where information from thousands of other neurons is collected and integrated. (page 71)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Central nervous system (CNS)

A

The brain and the spinal cord. (page 70)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cerebellum

A

A large, convoluted protuberance at the back of the brain stem; it is essential for coordinated movement and balance. (page 84)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cerebral cortex

A

The outer layer of brain tissue, which forms the convoluted surface of the brain; the site of all thoughts, perceptions, and complex behaviors. (page 87)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Chromosomes

A

Structures within the cell body that are made up of DNA, segments of which comprise individual genes. (page 106)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Corpus callosum

A

A massive bridge of millions of axons that connects the hemispheres and allows information to flow between them. (page 87)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dendrites

A

Branchlike extensions of the neuron that detect information from other neurons. (page 71)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dizygotic twins

A

Also called fraternal twins; twin siblings that result from two separately fertilized eggs and therefore are no more similar genetically than non-twin siblings. (page 111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dominant gene

A

A gene that is expressed in the offspring whenever it is present. (page 108)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Dopamine

A

A monoamine neurotransmitter involved in motivation, reward, and motor control over voluntary movement. (page 79)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Electroencephalograph (EEG)

A

A device that measures electrical activity in the brain. (page 82)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Endocrine system

A

A communication system that uses hormones to influence thoughts, behaviors, and actions. (page 99)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Endorphins

A

Neurotransmitters involved in natural pain reduction and reward. (page 80)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Frontal lobes

A

Regions of the cerebral cortex – at the front of the brain – important for movement and higher-level psychological processes associated with the prefrontal cortex. (page 84)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)

A

An imaging technique used to examine changes in the activity of the working human brain by measuring changes in the blood’s oxygen levels. (page 84)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

GABA

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid; the primary inhibitory transmitter in the nervous system. (page 80)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Gene expression

A

Whether a particular gene is turned on or off. (page 106)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Genes

A

The units of heredity that help determine the characteristics of an organism. (page 106)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Genotype

A

The genetic constitution of an organism, determined at the moment of conception. (page 108)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Glutamate

A

The primary excitatory transmitter in the nervous system. (page 80)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Gonads

A

The main endocrine glands involved in sexual behavior: in males, the testes; in females, the ovaries. (page 100)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Heredity

A

Transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring through genes. (page 113)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Heritability

A

A statistical estimate of the extent to which variation in a trait within a population is due to genetics. (page 113)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Hippocampus

A

A brain structure that is associated with the formation of memories. (page 86)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hormones

A

Chemical substances, released from endocrine glands, that travel through the bloodstream to targeted tissues; the tissues are subsequently influenced by the hormones. (page 99)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hypothalamus

A

A brain structure that is involved in the regulation of bodily functions, including body temperature, body rhythms, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels; it also influences our basic motivated behaviors. (page 86)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

A method of brain imaging that uses a powerful magnetic field to produce high-quality images of the brain. (page 83)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Monozygotic twins

A

Also called identical twins; twin siblings that result from one zygote splitting in two and therefore share the same genes. (page 111)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Myelin sheath

A

A fatty material, made up of glial cells, that insulates some axons to allow for faster movement of electrical impulses along the axon. (page 74)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Neurons

A

The basic units of the nervous system; cells that receive, integrate, and transmit information in the nervous system. They operate through electrical impulses, communicate with other neurons through chemical signals, and form neural networks. (page 70)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

Chemical substances that transmit signals from one neuron to another. (page 75)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

Small gaps of exposed axon, between the segments of myelin sheath, where action potentials take place. (page 74)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Norepinephrine

A

A monoamine neurotransmitter involved in states of arousal and attention. (page 79)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Occipital lobes

A

Regions of the cerebral cortex – at the back of the brain – important for vision. (page 88)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Parasympathetic division

A

A division of the autonomic nervous system; it returns the body to its resting state. (page 99)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Parietal lobes

A

Regions of the cerebral cortex – in front of the occipital lobes and behind the frontal lobes – important for the sense of touch and for attention to the environment. (page 88)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

A

All nerve cells in the body that are not part of the central nervous system. The peripheral nervous system includes the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. (page 70)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Phenotype

A

Observable physical characteristics, which result from both genetic and environmental influences. (page 108)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pituitary gland

A

A gland located at the base of the hypothalamus; it sends hormonal signals to other endocrine glands, controlling their release of hormones. (page 99)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Plasticity

A

A property of the brain that allows it to change as a result of experience or injury. (page 101)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET)

A

A method of brain imaging that assesses metabolic activity by using a radioactive substance injected into the bloodstream. (page 83)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Prefrontal cortex

A

The frontmost portion of the frontal lobes, especially prominent in humans; important for attention, working memory, decision making, appropriate social behavior, and personality. (page 90)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Receptors

A

In neurons, specialized protein molecules on the postsynaptic membrane; neurotransmitters bind to these molecules after passing across the synapse. (page 76)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Recessive gene

A

A gene that is expressed only when it is matched with a similar gene from the other parent. (page 108)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Resting membrane potential

A

The electrical charge of a neuron when it is not active. (page 72)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Reuptake

A

The process whereby a neurotransmitter is taken back into the presynaptic terminal buttons, thereby stopping its activity. (page 77)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Serotonin

A

A monoamine neurotransmitter important for a wide range of psychological activity, including emotional states, impulse control, and dreaming. (page 79)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Somatic nervous system (SNS)

A

A component of the peripheral nervous system; it transmits sensory signals and motor signals between the central nervous system and the skin, muscles, and joints. (page 97)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Split brain

A

A condition that occurs when the corpus callosum is surgically cut and the two hemispheres of the brain do not receive information directly from each other. (page 92)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Sympathetic division

A

A division of the autonomic nervous system; it prepares the body for action. (page 98)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Synapse

A

The gap between the terminal buttons of a “sending” neuron and the dendrites of a “receiving” neuron; the site at which chemical communication occurs between neurons. (page 72)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Temporal lobes

A

Regions of the cerebral cortex – below the parietal lobes and in front of the occipital lobes – important for processing auditory information, for memory, and for object and face perception. (page 90)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Terminal buttons

A

At the ends of axons, small nodules that release chemical signals from the neuron into the synapse. (page 72)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Thalamus

A

The gateway to the brain; it receives almost all incoming sensory information before that information reaches the cortex. (page 86)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

A

The use of strong magnets to briefly interrupt normal brain activity as a way to study brain regions. (page 84)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Term

A

Description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Activation-synthesis theory

A

A theory of dreaming; this theory proposes that the brain tries to make sense of random brain activity that occurs during sleep by synthesizing the activity with stored memories. (page 140)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Addiction

A

Drug use that remains compulsive despite its negative consequences. (page 148)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Change blindness

A

A failure to notice large changes in one’s environment. (page 129)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Circadian rhythms

A

Biological patterns that occur at regular intervals as a function of time of day. (page 133)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Consciousness

A

One’s subjective experience of the world, resulting from brain activity. (page 122)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Dreams

A

Products of an altered state of consciousness in which images and fantasies are confused with reality. (page 139)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Hypnosis

A

A social interaction during which a person, responding to suggestions, experiences changes in memory, perception, and/or voluntary action. (page 143)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Insomnia

A

A disorder characterized by an inability to sleep that causes significant problems in daily living. (page 135)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Meditation

A

A mental procedure that focuses attention on an external object or on a sense of awareness. (page 145)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Narcolepsy

A

A sleep disorder in which people experience excessive sleepiness during normal waking hours, sometimes going limp and collapsing. (page 136)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea

A

A disorder in which a person, while asleep, stops breathing because his or her throat closes; the condition results in frequent awakenings during the night. (page 136)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

REM sleep

A

The stage of sleep marked by rapid eye movements, paralysis of motor systems, and dreaming. (page 135)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Subliminal perception

A

The processing of information by sensory systems without conscious awareness. (page 132)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Traumatic brain injury (TBI)

A

Impairments in mental functioning caused by a blow to or very sharp movement of the head. (page 124)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Term

A

Description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Absolute threshold

A

The minimum intensity of stimulation that must occur before you experience a sensation. (page 167)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Audition

A

Hearing; the sense of sound perception. (page 188)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Binocular depth cues

A

Cues of depth perception that arise from the fact that people have two eyes. (page 182)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Binocular disparity

A

A depth cue; because of the distance between the two eyes, each eye receives a slightly different retinal image. (page 182)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Bottom-up processing

A

Perception based on the physical features of the stimulus. (page 164)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Cones

A

Retinal cells that respond to higher levels of light and result in color perception. (page 173)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Convergence

A

A cue of binocular depth perception; when a person views a nearby object, the eye muscles turn the eyes inward. (page 183)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Difference threshold

A

The minimum amount of change required for a person to detect a difference between two stimuli. (page 168)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Eardrum

A

A thin membrane that marks the beginning of the middle ear; sound waves cause it to vibrate. (page 189)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Fovea

A

The center of the retina, where cones are densely packed. (page 173)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Gustation

A

The sense of taste. (page 194)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Haptic sense

A

The sense of touch. (page 199)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Kinesthetic sense

A

Perception of the positions in space and movements of our bodies and our limbs. (page 199)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Monocular depth cues

A

Cues of depth perception that are available to each eye alone. (page 182)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Object constancy

A

Correctly perceiving objects as constant in their shape, size, color, and lightness, despite raw sensory data that could mislead perception. (page 186)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Olfaction

A

The sense of smell. (page 197)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Olfactory bulb

A

The brain center for smell, located below the frontal lobes. (page 198)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Olfactory epithelium

A

A thin layer of tissue, within the nasal cavity, that contains the receptors for smell. (page 197)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Perception

A

The processing, organization, and interpretation of sensory signals. (page 164)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Place coding

A

A mechanism for encoding high-frequency auditory stimuli in which the frequency of the sound wave is encoded by the location of the hair cells along the basilar membrane. (page 192)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Retina

A

The thin inner surface of the back of the eyeball; it contains the sensory receptors that transduce light into neural signals. (page 173)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Rods

A

Retinal cells that respond to low levels of light and result in black-and-white perception. (page 173)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Sensation

A

The detection of external stimuli and the transmission of this information to the brain. (page 164)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Sensory adaptation

A

A decrease in sensitivity to a constant level of stimulation. (page 169)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Signal detection theory (SDT)

A

A theory of perception based on the idea that the detection of a stimulus requires a judgment – it is not an all-or-nothing process. (page 168)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Sound wave

A

A pattern of changes in air pressure during a period of time; it produces the percept of a sound. (page 188)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Taste buds

A

Sensory organs in the mouth that contain the receptors for taste. (page 194)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Temporal coding

A

A mechanism for encoding low-frequency auditory stimuli in which the firing rates of cochlear hair cells match the frequency of the sound wave. (page 192)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Top-down processing

A

How knowledge, expectations, or past experiences shape the interpretation of sensory information. (page 164)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Transduction

A

The process by which sensory stimuli are converted to signals the brain can interpret. (page 165)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Vestibular sense

A

Perception of balance determined by receptors in the inner ear. (page 189)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Term

A

Description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Acquisition

A

The gradual formation of an association between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli. (page 214)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Associative learning

A

Linking two stimuli, or events, that occur together. (page 209)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Behavior modification

A

The use of operant-conditioning techniques to eliminate unwanted behaviors and replace them with desirable ones. (page 233)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Classical conditioning (Pavlovian conditioning)

A

A type of associative learning in which a neutral stimulus comes to elicit a response when it is associated with a stimulus that already produces that response. (page 210)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Cognitive map

A

A visual/spatial mental representation of an environment. (page 236)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Conditioned response (CR)

A

A response to a conditioned stimulus; a response that has been learned. (page 212)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Conditioned stimulus (CS)

A

A stimulus that elicits a response only after learning has taken place. (page 212)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Continuous reinforcement

A

A type of learning in which behavior is reinforced each time it occurs. (page 230)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Extinction

A

A process in which the conditioned response is weakened when the conditioned stimulus is repeated without the unconditioned stimulus. (page 216)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Fear conditioning

A

A type of classical conditioning that turns neutral stimuli into feared stimuli. (page 221)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Habituation

A

A decrease in behavioral response after repeated exposure to a stimulus. (page 209)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Latent learning

A

Learning that takes place in the absence of reinforcement. (page 237)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Law of effect

A

Thorndike’s general theory of learning: Any behavior that leads to a “satisfying state of affairs” is likely to occur again, and any behavior that leads to an “annoying state of affairs” is less likely to occur again. (page 225)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Learning

A

A relatively enduring change in behavior, resulting from experience. (page 208)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Mirror neurons

A

Neurons in the brain that are activated when one observes another individual engage in an action and when one performs a similar action. (page 244)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Modeling

A

The imitation of observed behavior. (page 239)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Negative punishment

A

The removal of a stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior’s recurring. (page 231)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Negative reinforcement

A

The removal of an unpleasant stimulus to increase the probability of a behavior’s being repeated. (page 229)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Nonassociative learning

A

Responding after repeated exposure to a single stimulus, or event. (page 209)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Observational learning

A

Acquiring or changing a behavior after exposure to another individual performing that behavior. (page 209)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Operant conditioning (instrumental conditioning)

A

A learning process in which the consequences of an action determine the likelihood that it will be performed in the future. (page 224)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Partial reinforcement

A

A type of learning in which behavior is reinforced intermittently. (page 230)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Partial-reinforcement extinction effect

A

The greater persistence of behavior under partial reinforcement than under continuous reinforcement. (page 231)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Phobia

A

An acquired fear that is out of proportion to the real threat of an object or of a situation. (page 221)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Positive punishment

A

The administration of a stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior’s recurring. (page 231)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Positive reinforcement

A

The administration of a stimulus to increase the probability of a behavior’s being repeated. (page 229)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Reinforcer

A

A stimulus that follows a response and increases the likelihood that the response will be repeated. (page 226)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Rescorla-Wagner model

A

A cognitive model of classical conditioning; it holds that learning is determined by the extent to which a US is unexpected or surprising. (page 218)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Sensitization

A

An increase in behavioral response after exposure to a stimulus. (page 210)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Shaping

A

A process of operant conditioning; it involves reinforcing behaviors that are increasingly similar to the desired behavior. (page 227)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

A process in which a previously extinguished conditioned response reemerges after the presentation of the conditioned stimulus. (page 216)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Stimulus discrimination

A

A differentiation between two similar stimuli when only one of them is consistently associated with the unconditioned stimulus. (page 215)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Stimulus generalization

A

Learning that occurs when stimuli that are similar but not identical to the conditioned stimulus produce the conditioned response. (page 215)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Unconditioned response (UR)

A

A response that does not have to be learned, such as a reflex. (page 212)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Unconditioned stimulus (US)

A

A stimulus that elicits a response, such as a reflex, without any prior learning. (page 212)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Vicarious learning

A

Learning the consequences of an action by watching others being rewarded or punished for performing the action. (page 241)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Term

A

Description

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Absentmindedness

A

The inattentive or shallow encoding of events. (page 275)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Amnesia

A

A deficit in long-term memory – resulting from disease, brain injury, or psychological trauma – in which the individual loses the ability to retrieve vast quantities of information. (page 276)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

A condition in which people lose the ability to form new memories. (page 276)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Blocking

A

The temporary inability to remember something. (page 274)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Chunking

A

Organizing information into meaningful units to make it easier to remember. (page 259)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Consolidation

A

The neural process by which encoded information becomes stored in memory. (page 250)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Cryptomnesia

A

A type of misattribution that occurs when a person thinks he has come up with a new idea, yet has only retrieved a stored idea and failed to attribute the idea to its proper source. (page 280)

176
Q

Declarative memory

A

The cognitive information retrieved from explicit memory; knowledge that can be declared. (page 271)

177
Q

Encoding

A

The processing of information so that it can be stored. (page 250)

178
Q

Encoding specificity principle

A

The idea that any stimulus that is encoded along with an experience can later trigger a memory of the experience. (page 266)

179
Q

Episodic memory

A

Memory for one’s personal past experiences. (page 272)

180
Q

Explicit memory

A

The system underlying conscious memories. (page 271)

181
Q

Flashbulb memories

A

Vivid episodic memories for the circumstances in which people first learned of a surprising and consequential or emotionally arousing event. (page 279)

182
Q

Implicit memory

A

The system underlying unconscious memories. (page 271)

183
Q

Long-term memory

A

The relatively permanent storage of information. (page 260)

184
Q

Long-term potentiation (LTP)

A

Strengthening of a synaptic connection, making the postsynaptic neurons more easily activated by presynaptic neurons. (page 252)

185
Q

Memory

A

The nervous system’s capacity to retain and retrieve skills and knowledge. (page 250)

186
Q

Memory bias

A

The changing of memories over time so that they become consistent with current beliefs or attitudes. (page 278)

187
Q

Mnemonics

A

Learning aids or strategies that improve recall through the use of retrieval cues. (page 267)

188
Q

Persistence

A

The continual recurrence of unwanted memories. (page 277)

189
Q

Proactive interference

A

Interference that occurs when prior information inhibits the ability to remember new information. (page 274)

190
Q

Procedural memory

A

A type of implicit memory that involves motor skills, habits, and other behaviors. (page 272)

191
Q

Prospective memory

A

Remembering to do something at some future time. (page 267)

192
Q

Reconsolidation

A

Neural processes involved when memories are recalled and then stored again for retrieval. (page 250)

193
Q

Retrieval

A

The act of recalling or remembering stored information when it is needed. (page 250)

194
Q

Retrieval cue

A

Any stimulus that increases memory recall. (page 266)

195
Q

Retroactive interference

A

Interference that occurs when new information inhibits the ability to remember old information. (page 274)

196
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

A condition in which people lose past memories, such as memories for events, facts, people, or even personal information. (page 276)

197
Q

Schemas

A

Cognitive structures in long-term memory that help us perceive, organize, process, and use information. (page 263)

198
Q

Semantic memory

A

Memory for knowledge of facts independent of personal experience. (page 272)

199
Q

Sensory memory

A

A memory system that very briefly stores sensory information in close to its original sensory form. (page 256)

200
Q

Serial position effect

A

The idea that the ability to recall items from a list depends on the order of presentation, with items presented early or late in the list remembered better than those in the middle. (page 260)

201
Q

Short-term memory

A

A memory storage system that briefly holds a limited amount of information in awareness. (page 258)

202
Q

Source amnesia

A

A type of misattribution that occurs when a person has a memory for an event but cannot remember where he or she encountered the information. (page 280)

203
Q

Source misattribution

A

Memory distortion that occurs when people misremember the time, place, person, or circumstances involved with a memory. (page 280)

204
Q

Storage

A

The retention of encoded representations. (page 250)

205
Q

Suggestibility

A

The development of biased memories from misleading information. (page 281)

206
Q

Working memory

A

An active processing system that keeps different types of information available for current use. (page 258)

207
Q

Term

A

Description

208
Q

Affective forecasting

A

The tendency for people to overestimate how events will make them feel in the future. (page 301)

209
Q

Analogical representations

A

Mental representations that have some of the physical characteristics of objects; they are analogous to the objects. (page 290)

210
Q

Anchoring

A

The tendency, in making judgments, to rely on the first piece of information encountered or information that comes most quickly to mind. (page 298)

211
Q

Aphasia

A

A language disorder that results in deficits in language comprehension and production. (page 312)

212
Q

Availability heuristic

A

Making a decision based on the answer that most easily comes to mind. (page 299)

213
Q

Cognition

A

The mental activity that includes thinking and the understandings that result from thinking. (page 290)

214
Q

Concept

A

A category, or class, of related items; it consists of mental representations of those items. (page 291)

215
Q

Crystallized intelligence

A

Intelligence that reflects both the knowledge acquired through experience and the ability to use that knowledge. (page 322)

216
Q

Decision making

A

Attempting to select the best alternative from among several options. (page 297)

217
Q

Deep structure

A

In language, the implicit meanings of sentences. (page 316)

218
Q

Emotional intelligence (EI)

A

A form of social intelligence that emphasizes the abilities to manage, recognize, and understand emotions and use emotions to guide appropriate thought and action. (page 324)

219
Q

Exemplar model

A

A way of thinking about concepts: All members of a category are examples (exemplars); together they form the concept and determine category membership. (page 292)

220
Q

Fluid intelligence

A

Intelligence that reflects the ability to process information, understand relationships, and think logically, particularly in novel or complex circumstances. (page 322)

221
Q

Framing

A

In decision making, the tendency to emphasize the potential losses or potential gains from at least one alternative. (page 299)

222
Q

Functional fixedness

A

In problem solving, having fixed ideas about the typical functions of objects. (page 305)

223
Q

General intelligence (g)

A

The idea that one general factor underlies intelligence. (page 322)

224
Q

Heuristics

A

Shortcuts (rules of thumb or informal guidelines) used to reduce the amount of thinking that is needed to make decisions. (page 297)

225
Q

Insight

A

(1) The sudden realization of a solution to a problem. (2) The goal of psychoanalysis; a client’s awareness of his own unconscious psychological processes and how these processes affect daily functioning. (page 306)

226
Q

Intelligence

A

The ability to use knowledge to reason, make decisions, make sense of events, solve problems, understand complex ideas, learn quickly, and adapt to environmental challenges. (page 319)

227
Q

Intelligence quotient (IQ)

A

An index of intelligence computed by dividing a child’s estimated mental age by the child’s chronological age, then multiplying this number by 100. (page 321)

228
Q

Language

A

A system of communication using sounds and symbols according to grammatical rules. (page 310)

229
Q

Linguistic relativity theory

A

The claim that language determines thought. (page 313)

230
Q

Mental age

A

An assessment of a child’s intellectual standing compared with that of same-age peers; determined by comparing the child’s test score with the average score for children of each chronological age. (page 321)

231
Q

Mental sets

A

Problem-solving strategies that have worked in the past. (page 304)

232
Q

Morphemes

A

The smallest language units that have meaning, including suffixes and prefixes. (page 310)

233
Q

Phonemes

A

The basic sounds of speech, the building blocks of language. (page 311)

234
Q

Phonics

A

A method of teaching reading in English that focuses on the association between letters and their phonemes. (page 318)

235
Q

Problem solving

A

Finding a way around an obstacle to reach a goal. (page 297)

236
Q

Prototype model

A

A way of thinking about concepts: Within each category, there is a best example – a prototype – for that category. (page 291)

237
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

Placing a person or an object in a category if that person or object is similar to one’s prototype for that category. (page 299)

238
Q

Restructuring

A

A new way of thinking about a problem that aids its solution. (page 304)

239
Q

Script

A

A schema that directs behavior over time within a situation. (page 295)

240
Q

Somatic markers

A

Bodily reactions that arise from the emotional evaluation of an action’s consequences. (page 301)

241
Q

Stereotypes

A

Cognitive schemas that allow for easy, fast processing of information about people based on their membership in certain groups. (page 294)

242
Q

Stereotype threat

A

Apprehension about confirming negative stereotypes related to one’s own group. (page 331)

243
Q

Surface structure

A

In language, the sound and order of words. (page 316)

244
Q

Symbolic representations

A

Abstract mental representations that do not correspond to the physical features of objects or ideas. (page 290)

245
Q

Telegraphic speech

A

The tendency for toddlers to speak using rudimentary sentences that are missing words and grammatical markings but follow a logical syntax and convey a wealth of meaning. (page 315)

246
Q

Thinking

A

The mental manipulation of representations of knowledge about the world. (page 290)

247
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

An area of the left hemisphere where the temporal and parietal lobes meet, involved in speech comprehension. (page 312)

248
Q

Whole language

A

A method of teaching reading in English that emphasizes learning the meanings of words and understanding how words are connected in sentences. (page 318)

249
Q

Term

A

Description

250
Q

Accommodation

A

The process by which a new scheme is created or an existing scheme is drastically altered to include new information that otherwise would not fit into the scheme. (page 354)

251
Q

Assimilation

A

The process by which new information is placed into an existing scheme. (page 354)

252
Q

Attachment

A

A strong, intimate, emotional connection between people that persists over time and across circumstances. (page 347)

253
Q

Concrete operational stage

A

The third stage in Piaget’s theory of cognitive development; during this stage, children begin to think about and understand logical operations, and they are no longer fooled by appearances. (page 355)

254
Q

Conventional level

A

Middle stage of moral development; at this level, strict adherence to societal rules and the approval of others determine what is moral. (page 362)

255
Q

Developmental psychology

A

The study of changes, over the life span, in physiology, cognition, emotion, and social behavior. (page 338)

256
Q

Dynamic systems theory

A

The view that development is a self-organizing process, in which new forms of behavior emerge through consistent interactions between a biological being and cultural and environmental contexts. (page 343)

257
Q

Formal operational stage

A

The final stage in Piaget’s theory of cognitive development; in this stage, people can think abstractly, and they can formulate and test hypotheses through deductive logic. (page 356)

258
Q

Gender identity

A

One’s sense of being male or female. (page 366)

259
Q

Gender role

A

A behavior that is typically associated with being male or female. (page 366)

260
Q

Infantile amnesia

A

The inability to remember events from early childhood. (page 346)

261
Q

Insecure attachment

A

The attachment style for a minority of infants; the infant may exhibit insecure attachment through various behaviors, such as avoiding contact with the caregiver, or by alternating between approach and avoidance behaviors. (page 351)

262
Q

Object permanence

A

The understanding that an object continues to exist even when it cannot be seen. (page 354)

263
Q

Postconventional level

A

Highest stage of moral development; at this level, decisions about morality depend on abstract principles and the value of all life. (page 362)

264
Q

Preconventional level

A

Earliest level of moral development; at this level, self-interest and event outcomes determine what is moral. (page 362)

265
Q

Preoperational stage

A

The second stage in Piaget’s theory of cognitive development; during this stage, children think symbolically about objects, but they reason based on intuition and superficial appearance rather than logic. (page 355)

266
Q

Puberty

A

The beginning of adolescence, marked by the onset of sexual maturity and thus the ability to reproduce. (page 363)

267
Q

Secure attachment

A

The attachment style for a majority of infants; the infant is confident enough to play in an unfamiliar environment as long as the caregiver is present and is readily comforted by the caregiver during times of distress. (page 350)

268
Q

Sensorimotor stage

A

The first stage in Piaget’s theory of cognitive development; during this stage, infants acquire information about the world through their senses and motor skills. Reflexive responses develop into more deliberate actions through the development and refinement of schemes. (page 354)

269
Q

Social intuitionist model

A

The idea that moral judgments reflect people’s initial and automatic emotional responses. (page 362)

270
Q

Socioemotional selectivity theory

A

As people grow older, they view time as limited and therefore shift their focus to meaningful events, experiences, and goals. (page 376)

271
Q

Synaptic pruning

A

The synaptic connections in the brain that are used are preserved, whereas those that are not used decay and disappear. (page 339)

272
Q

Teratogens

A

Agents that harm the embryo or fetus. (page 340)

273
Q

Theory of mind

A

The ability to understand that other people have mental states that influence their behavior. (page 360)

274
Q

Term

A

Description

275
Q

Agoraphobia

A

An anxiety disorder marked by fear of being in situations in which escape may be difficult or impossible. (page 576)

276
Q

Antisocial personality disorder (APD)

A

A personality disorder in which people engage in socially undesirable behavior, are hedonistic and impulsive, and lack empathy. (page 599)

277
Q

Anxiety disorders

A

Psychological disorders characterized by excessive fear and anxiety in the absence of true danger. (page 574)

278
Q

Assessment

A

In psychology, examination of a person’s cognitive, behavioral, or emotional functioning to diagnose possible psychological disorders. (page 567)

279
Q

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

A

A disorder characterized by restlessness, inattentiveness, and impulsivity. (page 608)

280
Q

Autism spectrum disorder

A

A developmental disorder characterized by deficits in social interaction, by impaired communication, and by restricted interests. (page 604)

281
Q

Bipolar I disorder

A

A disorder characterized by extremely elevated moods during manic episodes and, frequently, depressive episodes as well. (page 583)

282
Q

Bipolar II disorder

A

A disorder characterized by alternating periods of extremely depressed and mildly elevated moods. (page 583)

283
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

A personality disorder characterized by disturbances in identity, in affect, and in impulse control. (page 597)

284
Q

Cognitive-behavioral approach

A

A diagnostic model that views psychopathology as the result of learned, maladaptive thoughts and beliefs. (page 570)

285
Q

Delusions

A

False beliefs based on incorrect inferences about reality. (page 590)

286
Q

Diathesis-stress model

A

A diagnostic model that proposes that a disorder may develop when an underlying vulnerability is coupled with a precipitating event. (page 568)

287
Q

Disorganized behavior

A

Acting in strange or unusual ways, including strange movement of limbs, bizarre speech, and inappropriate self-care, such as failing to dress properly or bathe. (page 592)

288
Q

Disorganized speech

A

Speaking in an incoherent fashion that involves frequently changing topics and saying strange or inappropriate things. (page 591)

289
Q

Dissociative disorders

A

Disorders that involve disruptions of identity, of memory, or of conscious awareness. (page 586)

290
Q

Dissociative identity disorder (DID)

A

The occurrence of two or more distinct identities in the same individual. (page 587)

291
Q

Etiology

A

Factors that contribute to the development of a disorder. (page 562)

292
Q

Family systems model

A

A diagnostic model that considers problems within an individual as indicating problems within the family. (page 570)

293
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

A diffuse state of constant anxiety not associated with any specific object or event. (page 575)

294
Q

Hallucinations

A

False sensory perceptions that are experienced without an external source. (page 591)

295
Q

Learned helplessness

A

A cognitive model of depression in which people feel unable to control events in their lives. (page 582)

296
Q

Major depressive disorder

A

A disorder characterized by severe negative moods or a lack of interest in normally pleasurable activities. (page 579)

297
Q

Negative symptoms

A

Symptoms of schizophrenia that are marked by deficits in functioning, such as apathy, lack of emotion, and slowed speech and movement. (592)

298
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

A

A disorder characterized by frequent intrusive thoughts and compulsive actions. (page 577)

299
Q

Panic disorder

A

An anxiety disorder that consists of sudden, overwhelming attacks of terror. (page 576)

300
Q

Persistent depressive disorder

A

A form of depression that is not severe enough to be diagnosed as major depressive disorder. (page 580)

301
Q

Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A

A disorder that involves frequent nightmares, intrusive thoughts, and flashbacks related to an earlier trauma. (page 579)

302
Q

Psychopathology

A

Sickness or disorder of the mind; psychological disorder. (page 562)

303
Q

Research Domain Criteria (RDoC)

A

A method that defines basic aspects of functioning and considers them across multiple levels of analysis, from genes to brain systems to behavior. (page 566)

304
Q

Schizophrenia

A

A psychological disorder characterized by alterations in thoughts, in perceptions, or in consciousness, resulting in psychosis. (page 589)

305
Q

Sociocultural model

A

A diagnostic model that views psychopathology as the result of the interaction between individuals and their cultures. (page 570)

306
Q

Term

A

Description

307
Q

Behavioral approach system (BAS)

A

The brain system involved in the pursuit of incentives or rewards. (page 531)

308
Q

Behavioral inhibition system (BIS)

A

The brain system that is sensitive to punishment and therefore inhibits behavior that might lead to danger or pain. (page 531)

309
Q

Defense mechanisms

A

Unconscious mental strategies that the mind uses to protect itself from anxiety. (page 523)

310
Q

Ego

A

In psychodynamic theory, the component of personality that tries to satisfy the wishes of the id while being responsive to the dictates of the superego. (page 523)

311
Q

Five-factor theory

A

The idea that personality can be described using five factors: openness to experience, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. (page 528)

312
Q

Humanistic approaches

A

Approaches to studying personality that emphasize how people seek to fulfill their potential through greater self-understanding. (page 526)

313
Q

Id

A

In psychodynamic theory, the component of personality that is completely submerged in the unconscious and operates according to the pleasure principle. (page 522)

314
Q

Idiographic approaches

A

Person-centered approaches to assessing personality; they focus on individual lives and how various characteristics are integrated into unique persons. (page 541)

315
Q

Interactionism

A

The theory that behavior is determined jointly by situations and underlying dispositions. (page 533)

316
Q

Locus of control

A

Personal beliefs about how much control people have over outcomes in their lives. (page 525)

317
Q

Nomothetic approaches

A

Approaches to assessing personality that focus on how common characteristics vary from person to person. (page 541)

318
Q

Personality

A

A person’s characteristic thoughts, emotional responses, and behaviors. (page 516)

319
Q

Personality trait

A

A pattern of thought, emotion, and behavior that is relatively consistent over time and across situations. (page 516)

320
Q

Projectivee measures

A

Personality tests that examine unconscious processes by having people interpret ambiguous stimuli. (page 541)

321
Q

Psychodynamic theory

A

The Freudian theory that unconscious forces determine behavior. (page 522)

322
Q

Psychosexual stages

A

According to Freud, developmental stages that correspond to distinct libidinal urges; progression through these stages profoundly affects personality. (page 524)

323
Q

Reciprocal determinism

A

The theory that how personality is expressed can be explained by the interaction of environment, person factors, and behavior itself. (page 526)

324
Q

Self-esteem

A

The evaluative aspect of the self-concept in which people feel worthy or unworthy. (page 549)

325
Q

Self-serving bias

A

The tendency for people to take personal credit for success but blame failure on external factors. (page 553)

326
Q

Situationism

A

The theory that behavior is determined more by situations than by personality traits. (page 532)

327
Q

Social comparison

A

The tendency for people to evaluate their own actions, abilities, and beliefs by contrasting them with other people’s. (page 553)

328
Q

Sociometer

A

An internal monitor of social acceptance or rejection. (page 550)

329
Q

Superego

A

In psychodynamic theory, the internalization of societal and parental standards of conduct. (page 523)

330
Q

Temperaments

A

Biologically based tendencies to feel or act in certain ways. (page 519)

331
Q

Trait approach

A

An approach to studying personality that focuses on how individuals differ in personality dispositions. (page 528)

332
Q

Term

A

Description

333
Q

Actor/observer discrepancy

A

People focus on situations to explain their own behavior while focusing on dispositions to explain other people’s behavior. (page 498)

334
Q

Aggression

A

Any behavior that involves the intention to harm another. (page 482)

335
Q

Altruism

A

Providing help when it is needed, without any apparent reward for doing so. (page 486)

336
Q

Attitudes

A

People’s evaluations of objects, of events, or of ideas. (page 490)

337
Q

Attributions

A

People’s explanations for why events or actions occur. (page 497)

338
Q

Bystander intervention effect

A

The failure to offer help by those who observe someone in need when other people are present. (page 487)

339
Q

Cognitive dissonance

A

An uncomfortable mental state resulting from a contradiction between two attitudes or between an attitude and a behavior. (page 493)

340
Q

Companionate love

A

A strong commitment based on friendship, trust, respect, and intimacy. (page 507)

341
Q

Compliance

A

The tendency to agree to do things requested by others. (page 478)

342
Q

Conformity

A

The altering of one’s behaviors and opinions to match those of other people or to match other people’s expectations. (page 475)

343
Q

Deindividuation

A

A state of reduced individuality, reduced self-awareness, and reduced attention to personal standards; this phenomenon may occur when people are part of a group. (page 474)

344
Q

Discrimination

A

The inappropriate and unjustified treatment of people as a result of prejudice. (page 500)

345
Q

Elaboration likelihood model

A

The idea that persuasive messages lead to attitude changes in either of two ways: via the central route or via the peripheral route. (page 495)

346
Q

Explicit attitudes

A

Attitudes that a person can report. (page 491)

347
Q

Fundamental attribution error

A

In explaining other people’s behavior, the tendency to overemphasize personality traits and underestimate situational factors. (page 497)

348
Q

Group polarization

A

The process by which initial attitudes of groups become more extreme over time. (page 474)

349
Q

Groupthink

A

The tendency of a group to make a bad decision as a result of preserving the group and maintaining its cohesiveness; especially likely when the group is under intense pressure, is facing external threats, and is biased in a particular direction. (page 475)

350
Q

Implicit attitudes

A

Attitudes that influence a person’s feelings and behavior at an unconscious level. (page 491)

351
Q

Inclusive fitness

A

An explanation for altruism that focuses on the adaptive benefit of transmitting genes, such as through kin selection, rather than focusing on individual survival. (page 486)

352
Q

Informational influence

A

The tendency for people to conform when they assume that the behavior of others represents the correct way to respond. (page 476)

353
Q

Ingroup favoritism

A

The tendency for people to evaluate favorably and privilege members of the ingroup more than members of the outgroup. (page 471)

354
Q

Mere exposure effect

A

The idea that greater exposure to a stimulus leads to greater liking for it. (page 490)

355
Q

Modern racism

A

Subtle forms of prejudice that coexist with the rejection of racist beliefs. (page 501)

356
Q

Nonverbal behavior

A

The facial expressions, gestures, mannerisms, and movements by which one communicates with others. (page 496)

357
Q

Normative influence

A

The tendency for people to conform in order to fit in with the group. (page 476)

358
Q

Obedience

A

When a person follows the orders of a person of authority. (page 480)

359
Q

Outgroup homogeneity effect

A

The tendency to view outgroup members as less varied than ingroup members. (page 471)

360
Q

Passionate love

A

A state of intense longing and desire. (page 507)

361
Q

Personal attributions

A

Explanations of people’s behavior that refer to their internal characteristics, such as abilities, traits, moods, or efforts. (page 497)

362
Q

Persuasion

A

The active and conscious effort to change an attitude through the transmission of a message. (page 494)

363
Q

Prejudice

A

Negative feelings, opinions, and beliefs associated with a stereotype. (page 500)

364
Q

Prosocial behaviors

A

Actions that tend to benefit others, such as doing favors or helping. (page 485)

365
Q

Situational attributions

A

Explanations of people’s behavior that refer to external events, such as the weather, luck, accidents, or other people’s actions. (page 497)

366
Q

Social facilitation

A

The idea that the presence of others generally enhances performance. (page 473)

367
Q

Social identity theory

A

The idea that ingroups consist of individuals who perceive themselves to be members of the same social category and experience pride through their group membership. (page 471)

368
Q

Social loafing

A

The tendency for people to work less hard in a group than when working alone. (page 475)

369
Q

Social norms

A

Expected standards of conduct, which influence behavior. (page 476)

370
Q

“what is beautiful is good” stereotype

A

The belief that attractive people are superior in most ways. (page 506)

371
Q

Term

A

Description

372
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A

An eating disorder characterized by excessive fear of becoming fat and therefore restricting energy intake to obtain a significantly low body weight. (page 439)

373
Q

Binge-eating disorder

A

An eating disorder characterized by binge eating that causes significant distress. (page 440)

374
Q

Biopsychosocial model

A

A model of health that integrates the effects of biological, behavioral, and social factors on health and illness. (page 430)

375
Q

Body mass index (BMI)

A

A ratio of body weight to height, used to measure obesity. (page 432)

376
Q

Buffering hypothesis

A

The idea that other people can provide direct emotional support in helping individuals cope with stressful events. (page 461)

377
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

An eating disorder characterized by the alternation of dieting, binge eating, and purging (self-induced vomiting). (page 440)

378
Q

Coping response

A

Any attempt made to avoid, escape from, or minimize a stressor. (page 447)

379
Q

Emotion-focused coping

A

A type of coping in which people try to prevent having an emotional response to a stressor. (page 457)

380
Q

Fight-or-flight response

A

The physiological preparedness of animals to deal with danger by either fighting or fleeing. (page 451)

381
Q

General adaptation syndrome

A

A consistent pattern of responses to stress that consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. (page 450)

382
Q

Health psychology

A

A field that integrates research on health and on psychology; it involves the application of psychological principles to promote health and well-being. (page 430)

383
Q

Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis

A

A body system involved in stress responses. (page 449)

384
Q

Immune system

A

The body’s mechanism for dealing with invading microorganisms, such as allergens, bacteria, and viruses. (page 452)

385
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Specialized white blood cells that make up the immune system; the three types are B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells. (page 453)

386
Q

Oxytocin

A

A hormone that is important for mothers in bonding to newborns and may encourage affiliation during social stress. (page 452)

387
Q

Primary appraisals

A

Part of the coping process that involves making decisions about whether a stimulus is stressful, benign, or irrelevant. (page 457)

388
Q

Problem-focused coping

A

A type of coping in which people take direct steps to confront or minimize a stressor. (page 457)

389
Q

Secondary appraisals

A

Part of the coping process during which people evaluate their response options and choose coping behaviors. (page 457)

390
Q

Stress

A

A type of response that typically involves an unpleasant state, such as anxiety or tension. (page 447)

391
Q

Stressor

A

Something in the environment that is perceived as threatening or demanding and therefore produces stress. (page 447)

392
Q

Tend-and-befriend response

A

Females’ tendency to protect and care for their offspring and form social alliances rather than fight or flee in response to threat. (page 451)

393
Q

Type A behavior pattern

A

A pattern of behavior characterized by competitiveness, achievement orientation, aggressiveness, hostility, restlessness, impatience with others, and inability to relax. (page 455)

394
Q

Type B behavior pattern

A

A pattern of behavior characterized by noncompetitive, relaxed, easygoing, and accommodating behavior. (page 455)

395
Q

Well-being

A

A positive state that includes striving for optimal health and life satisfaction. (page 430)

396
Q

Term

A

Description

397
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

A

Information about emotional stimuli is sent simultaneously to the cortex and the body and results in emotional experience and bodily reactions, respectively. (page 391)

398
Q

Display rules

A

Rules learned through socialization that dictate which emotions are suitable in given situations. (page 399)

399
Q

Drive

A

A psychological state that, by creating arousal, motivates an organism to satisfy a need. (page 403)

400
Q

Emotion

A

An immediate, specific negative or positive response to environmental events or internal thoughts. (page 384)

401
Q

Extrinsic motivation

A

Motivation to perform an activity because of the external goals toward which that activity is directed. (page 405)

402
Q

Homeostasis

A

The tendency for bodily functions to maintain equilibrium. (page 403)

403
Q

Incentives

A

External objects or external goals, rather than internal drives, that motivate behaviors. (page 405)

404
Q

Intrinsic motivation

A

Motivation to perform an activity because of the value or pleasure associated with that activity, rather than for an apparent external goal or purpose. (page 405)

405
Q

James-Lange theory of emotion

A

People perceive specific patterns of bodily responses, and as a result of that perception they feel emotion. (page 391)

406
Q

Motivation

A

A process that energizes, guides, and maintains behavior toward a goal. (page 402)

407
Q

Need

A

A state of biological or social deficiency. (page 402)

408
Q

Need hierarchy

A

Maslow’s arrangement of needs, in which basic survival needs must be met before people can satisfy higher needs. (page 402)

409
Q

Need to belong theory

A

The theory that the need for interpersonal attachments is a fundamental motive that has evolved for adaptive purposes. (page 410)

410
Q

Primary emotions

A

Emotions that are innate, evolutionarily adaptive, and universal (shared across cultures). (page 384)

411
Q

Secondary emotions

A

Blends of primary emotions. (page 384)

412
Q

Self-actualization

A

A state that is achieved when one’s personal dreams and aspirations have been attained. (page 403)

413
Q

Sexual response cycle

A

A four-stage pattern of physical and psychological responses during sexual activity. (page 418)

414
Q

Sexual strategies theory

A

A theory that maintains that women and men have evolved distinct mating strategies because they faced different adaptive problems over the course of human history. The strategies used by each sex maximize the probability of passing along their genes to future generations. (page 420)

415
Q

Two-factor theory of emotion

A

A label applied to physiological arousal results in the experience of an emotion. (page 392)

416
Q

Yerkes-Dodson law

A

The psychological principle that performance on challenging tasks increases with arousal up to a moderate level. After that, additional arousal impairs performance. (page 404)

417
Q

Term

A

Description

418
Q

Anti-anxiety drugs

A

A class of psychotropic medications used for the treatment of anxiety. (page 623)

419
Q

Antidepressants

A

A class of psychotropic medications used for the treatment of depression. (page 624)

420
Q

Antipsychotics

A

A class of psychotropic medications used for the treatment of schizophrenia and other disorders that involve psychosis. (page 624)

421
Q

Applied behavioral analysis (ABA)

A

An intensive treatment for autism, based on operant conditioning. (page 657)

422
Q

Behavior therapy

A

Treatment based on the premise that behavior is learned and therefore can be unlearned through the use of classical and operant conditioning. (page 618)

423
Q

Biological therapies

A

Treatment of psychological disorders based on medical approaches to disease (what is wrong with the body) and to illness (what a person feels as a result). (616)

424
Q

Client-centered therapy

A

An empathic approach to therapy; it encourages people to fulfill their individual potentials for personal growth through greater self-understanding. (page 621)

425
Q

Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

A

A therapy that incorporates techniques from cognitive therapy and behavior therapy to correct faulty thinking and change maladaptive behaviors. (page 620)

426
Q

Cognitive restructuring

A

A therapy that strives to help clients recognize maladaptive thought patterns and replace them with ways of viewing the world that are more in tune with reality. (page 619)

427
Q

Cognitive therapy

A

Treatment based on the idea that distorted thoughts produce maladaptive behaviors and emotions; treatment strategies attempt to modify these thought patterns. (page 619)

428
Q

Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT)

A

A form of therapy used to treat borderline personality disorder that combines elements of the behavioral and cognitive treatments with a mindfulness approach based on Eastern meditative practices. (page 651)

429
Q

Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

A

A procedure that involves administering a strong electrical current to the person’s brain to produce a seizure; it is effective for some cases of severe depression. (page 626)

430
Q

Exposure

A

A behavioral therapy technique that involves repeated exposure to an anxiety-producing stimulus or situation. (page 619)

431
Q

Expressed emotion

A

A pattern of negative actions by a client’s family members; the pattern includes critical comments, hostility directed toward the person by family members, and emotional over involvement. (page 622)

432
Q

Insight

A

The goal of psychoanalysis; a client’s awareness of his own unconscious psychological processes and how these processes affect daily functioning. (page 617)

433
Q

Placebo effect

A

An improvement in physical or mental health following treatment with a placebo – that is, with a drug or treatment that has no active component on the disorder being treated. (page 628)

434
Q

Psychodynamic therapy

A

A form of therapy based on Freudian theory; it aims to help clients examine needs, defenses, and motives as a way of understanding distress. (page 618)

435
Q

Psychotherapy

A

The generic name given to formal psychological treatment. (page 616)

436
Q

Psychotropic medications

A

Drugs that affect mental processes. (page 623)

Introduction to Psychology FINAL (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions