Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPLEX II TIA > ALL PHARM > Flashcards

ALL PHARM Flashcards

1
Q

what are CCBs used for?

A

HTN, arrythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are ACE-inhibitors used for?

A

uncomplicated HTN, good choice for 55+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are beta blockers used for?

A

HTN, arrythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

diltiazem drug class

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

amlodipine drug class

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CI CCBs

A

pregnancy, CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

are there any adverse effects or CI for amlodipine?

A

CI: preg, CHF (all CCB)
AEs: depletes potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

verapamil drug class

A

CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CI diltiazem

A

pregnancy, CHF (all CCB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

are there any adverse effects or CI for verapamil?

A

CI: pregnancy, CHF (all CCB)
AE: depletes vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the beta blockers? which are the specific B1 BBs?

A

-olols
B1 specific: atenolol, metoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CIs of beta blockers

A

asthma
diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

AEs beta blockers

A

rebound HTN if not tapered properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the ACE inhibitors?

A

-prils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

are there any adverse effects and/or CIs for ACE-inhibitors?

A

CI: pregnancy
AE: dry persistent cough, hyperkalemia, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the ARBs used for?

A

uncomplicated HTN
often used if someone is having ACEi SEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the ARBs?

A

-sartans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

are there any AEs or CI for ARBs?

A

CI: pregnancy
AE: hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the alpha 2 agonists?

A

clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is clonidine used for?

A

emergency BP lowering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

clonidine AEs

A

vasodilation
dec peripheral resistance > mental depression, swelling of lower limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the alpha 1 antagonists?

A

-zosins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are alpha 1 antagonists (alpha blockers) used for?

A

HTN, BPH (dec norepi > dec sys resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

are there any AEs or CIs for alpha 1 antagonists?

A

AE: syncope (1st dose), anesthia, rare priapism or ED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the sympathomimetics? what are they used for?

A

epinephrine
HF, bradycardia, stabilization before pacemaker implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the K wasting diuretics?

A

thiazide (HCTZ)
furosemide (loop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

aer there any CI or AE for the K wasting diuretics?

A

CI: sulfonamide drugs
AE: hypokalemia, hypertriglyceridemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the K sparing diuretics?

A

triamterene
spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what drug class are the statins?

A

HMG CoA Reductase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is cholesevalam?

A

bile sequestrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is gemfibrozil?

A

fibrate; decrease FFA uptake by liver > lowers VLDL
may inc HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

are there any AEs or CIs for gemfibrozil?

A

AE: inc homocysteine, DVT, SOB, PE, hemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is ezetimibe?

A

cholesterol absorption inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

are there any adverse effects or CIs for ezetimibe?

A

CI: severe liver disease, cyclosporine, fibrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the antiarrythmics?

A

class I - Na ch blockers: lidocaine, flecicaine
class III - k channel blockers: amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

are there any AEs or CI for class I antiarrythmics?

A

CI: amiodarone, CYP450, digoxin, fluoxetine, paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

are there any AEs or CI for class III antiarrythmics?

A

AEs: pulmonary toxicity, hyper/hypo thyroid, AV block, bradycardia

short term use only, many toxicities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is digoxin?

A

glycoside; used for HF and afib (rate control)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

are there any AEs or CIs for digoxin?

A

CI: CCB, BB, potassium wasters, abx, amiodarone, quinidine

low K inc MOA digoxin so monitor levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the cardiac vasodilators?

A

nitroglycerin
hydralazine
isosorbide monocitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

are there any AEs or CI for the cardiac vasodilators?

A

AE: headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

are there any AEs or CI for hydralazine?

A

prolonged use can cause lupus, deplete B6, and inc hypotensive effects of BP drugs/alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

are there any AEs or CI for isosorbide monocitrate?

A

CI: PDE inhibitors like sildenafil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is a risk of IV potassium chloride?

A

AP termination > death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is benzoyl peroxide usually used for and what is its MOA?

A

comolytic, bactericidal
acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is isotretinoin usually used for and what is its MOA?

A

dec sebum; acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

are there any CIs or AEs for isotretinoin?

A

black box warning for birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is tretinoin usually used for and what is its MOA?

A

synth vit A; acne
flammable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are topical sterids typically used for in dermatology?

A

eczema

50
Q

mometasone drug class and uses

A

topical steroids; eczema, asthma, hay fever

51
Q

fluocinonide drug class and uses

A

topical steroid; eczema

52
Q

triamcinolone drug class and uses

A

topical steroid; eczema
stronger and longer lasting

53
Q

clobetasol proprionate drug class and uses

A

topical steroid; eczema

54
Q

are there any AEs or CIs for clobetasol proprionate?

A

AEs: systemic absorption can lead to reversible HPA axis suppresion >
cushings, hyperglycemia, glucosuria, thinning skin/elasticity

55
Q

mupirocin drug class and uses

A

topical antimicrobial; MRSA, impetigo, wounds

56
Q

sulfacetamide drug class and uses

A

antimicrobial; acne, seb derm

57
Q

permethrin drug class and uses

A

scabies, lice

58
Q

are there any AEs or CIs for permethrin?

A

AEs: pruritis, edema, rash, burning

59
Q

calcipotriol drug class and uses

A

synthetic vit D; psoriasis

60
Q

are there any CIs or AEs for calcipotriol?

A

CI: do not use on face
AEs: vit D toxicity, hypercalcemia, dermatitis

61
Q

adalimumab drug class and uses

A

TNF inhibitor; inflammation modulation
psoriasis, IBD

62
Q

selenium disulfide drug class and uses

A

used for dandruff, seb derm, tinea

63
Q

imiquimod drug class and uses

A

immunomodulator; act keritosis, genital warts

64
Q

are there any AEs or CIs of imiquimod?

A

AEs: local inflammation, flu like sx

65
Q

MOA botox

A

blocks Ach from NMJ

66
Q

ipillimumab drug class and uses

A

antineoplastic; melanoma

67
Q

are there any AEs or CIs for ipillimumab?

A

CIs: pregnancy, chronic infections, MS, immunosuppressed
test for TB before initiation

68
Q

bupivacaine drug class and uses

A

long acting Na inhibitor; anesthetic

69
Q

procaine drug class and uses

A

short acting Na inhibitor; anesthetic

70
Q

olopatadine drug class and uses

A

opth H1 antagonist; allergic conjunctivitis

71
Q

atropine drug class and uses

A

parasympathoLYTIC; blocks Ach
cycloplegia (accomodation) and mydriasis (pupil dilation)

72
Q

nepafenac drug class and uses

A

NSAID; pain and inflammation post cataract surgery

73
Q

cyclosporine drug class and uses

A

opth; chronic dry eyes, scleroderma, sjogrens (oral form used for organ rejection prevention)

74
Q

latanoprost drug class and uses

A

opth; PG analog; dec IOP by inc aq humor outflow
ocular HTN, glaucoma

75
Q

timolol drug class and uses

A

BB that dec aq hum formation; glaucoma, ocular HTN

76
Q

are there any AEs or CIs for timolol?

A

CI: COPD, bronchial asthma, bradycardia, AV block

77
Q

pilocarpine drug class and uses

A

cholinergic agonist; inc outflow aq humor

glaucoma, dry mouth

78
Q

sulfacetimide drug class and uses

A

abx; conjunctivitis, superficial ocular infxn, acne, seb derm

78
Q

are there any AEs or CIs for pilocarpine?

A

AEs: poor low light vision, retinal detachment, iritis

79
Q

gentamicin drug class and uses

A

conjunctivitis, kerativitis, corneal ulcers, blepharitis

80
Q

erythromycin drug class and uses

A

superficial ocular lesions

81
Q

DHEA actions

A

Inc estrogen and testosterone
Dec cortisol

82
Q

Testosterone is a schedule ___ drug

A

III

83
Q

Testosterone is used in what scenarios

A

Testosterone <300
Gender affirming care

84
Q

AE testosterone

A

Transfer to female partner
Peliosis hepatic (blood cysts in liver/spleen)
Liver tumors
Inc LDL

85
Q

E1 name and uses

A

Estrone
Menopause
Osteoporosis prophylaxis
Marker for menopause and post CA

86
Q

E2 name, forms, and uses

A

Estradiol
Oral, patch, transdermal
Menopause, osteoporosis

87
Q

E3 name, uses

A

Estriol
Menopause
Protective

88
Q

What estrogen is highest in pregnancy?

A

Estriol (E3)

89
Q

What is the strongest natural estrogen?

A

Estradiol (E2)

90
Q

What is the weakest natural estrogen?

A

Estriol (E3)

91
Q

Conjugated estrogens are used for what conditions

A

Menopause
Breast CA
AUB

92
Q

What is pregnenolone? What is it used to treat?

A

Precursor steroid;
Memory issues

93
Q

Oral micronized progesterone; what is it and what is it used for?

A

Progestin
Contraception
Amenorrhea
PMS

94
Q

Levonorgestrel; what is it and what is it used for?

A

Plan B, Mirena
Progestin;
Contraceptive
Menorrhagia

95
Q

Medroxyprogesterone acetate; what is it and what is it used for?

A

Depo; progestin
Contraception
Endo
Prevention of endometrial hyperplasia with use of exogenous estrogen
AUB
Secondary amenorrhea

96
Q

Norethindrone; what is it and what is it used for?

A

Progestin only contraceptive

97
Q

Megestrol acetate; what is it and what is it used for?

A

Progestin;
Appetite stimulation
Cachexia
Breast/endo CA

98
Q

What do the combined oral contraceptives contain? What is included in this class?

A

Estrogen/progestin
- / ethinyl estradiol
Drospirenone -
Norgestimate -
Norelgestromin -

99
Q

CI / AEs of combined oral contraceptives

A

CI:
smokers
>35
Inc GB dz

100
Q

Leuprolide class/action and uses

A

Inhibits gonadotropin release
Tx: endo, fibroids

101
Q

Clomiphene class/action and uses

A

Binds to estrogen receptors/ stim ovulation
Tx;
infertility in PCOS
Psychogenic amenorrhea
Post OCs

102
Q

CI/AEs clomiphene

A

Potential for ovarian hyperstimulation and liver dysfunction

103
Q

Metronidazole class/action and uses

A

Bactericidal;
BV, PID

104
Q

HCG class/action and uses

A

Preg test, induce ovulation
Stimulation test for hypogonadism/male infertility

105
Q

Finasteride class and uses

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitor (inh testosterone > DHT)
Tx:
Urinary retention
BPH
Hair loss

106
Q

Alpha 1 antagonists suffix and uses

A

-zosins and tamulosin
HTN/BPH

107
Q

Alpha 1 antagonists AE/CIs

A

AE: syncope (1st dose), priapism,ED,asthenia

108
Q

How does tamulosin differ from the rest of the alpha 1 antagonists?

A

Not a -zosin
More selective for urinary over BP
Tx: urinary retention, BPH

109
Q

Phenazopyridine class, uses

A

Urinary analgesic for pain, burning, urgency, frequency
1st line for IC

110
Q

Phenazopyridine AE/CIs

A

AE:
Discolored contacts
Orange urine
Interferes with UA results

111
Q

Sildenafil class and uses

A

Phosphoest. Type 5 inhibitor
ED

112
Q

Sildenafil AE/CIs

A

AE:
Flushing, sudden cardiac death, vision loss

113
Q

Bethanechol class/uses

A

PS mimetic
Tx:
Urinary retention
Dry mouth
Post Op/PP retention

114
Q

Bethanechol AE/CIs

A

CI:
Drug/drug with other PSmimetics (such as pilocarpine)

115
Q

Anticholinergics/Ach antagonists urinary uses

A

Overactive bladder
Spastic conditions

116
Q

What are the anticholinergics/ACh antagonists?

A

Tolterodine
Oxybutynin
Solifenacin

117
Q

CI/AEs anticholinergics/ACh antagonists

A

AE: dry mouth, dry eyes, constipation, HA, dizziness

CI: narrow angle glaucoma, gastric/uro retention

118
Q

What anticholinergics/ACh antagonists are more/less likely to have SEs?

A
119
Q
A

NPLEX II TIA (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions