Abnormal extremity Flashcards
1
Q
effusion
A
escape of fluid into a cavity
2
Q
sprain
A
injury to a joint ligament or capsule
3
Q
strain
A
injury to a muslce or tendon
4
Q
pathologic fracture
A
a fracture through abnormally fragile bones
5
Q
fatigue or stress fracture
A
an incomplete fracture due to repetative stress
6
Q
DJD
A
degenerative joint disease
7
Q
dislocation
A
disruption of normal articulation
8
Q
osteomyelitis
A
bone infection
9
Q
seven signs of fracture
A
- increase lucency
- opacity (hematoma)
- contour disruption
- masses
- hematoma or swelling
- unexplained fragments despite absnese of obvious fracture
- callus formation
10
Q
what is OLDACID used for?
A
to describe fractures
11
Q
define OLDACID
A
Open vs closed
Location
Degree
Articular extension
Communition/pattern
Intrinsic bone quality
Displacement/angulation/rotation
12
Q
open vs closed facture
A
open fractures break through the skin or body cavity
close fractures have intact skin
13
Q
how should location of a fracture be described
A
giving the bone involved and the location on the bone
14
Q
how is the degree of a fracture described
A
either as complete or incomplete
15
Q
complete vs incomplete fracature
A
a complete fracture disrupts both cortices
an incomplete fracture just disrupts one
16
Q
what is another name for an incomplete fracture
what population do you normally see these in?
why?
A
greenstick fracture
in children
because their bones have not hardened yet
17
Q
what is the articular extension of a fracture
A
if the fracture extends into the joint
18
Q
what are two ways to describe articular extension of a fracture
A
intra-articular
extra-articular
19
Q
describe the articular extension of this fracture
A
extra-articular, displaced
20
Q
describe the articular extension of this fracture
A
intra-articular, displaced
21
Q
describe the articular extension of this fracture
A
intra-articular, non-displaced
22
Q
describe the articular extension of this fracture
A
extra-articulat non displaced
23
Q
which are more complicated, intra or extra articular fractures
A
intra, because the joint surface is damaged
24
Q
14 ways to describe the pattern of a fracture
A
- simple
- transverse
- oblique
- spiral
- linear/longitudinal
- comminuted
- segmental
- compression
- impacted
- torus
- distraction
- avulsion
- stress
- pathologic
25
simple fracture
a closed fracture with two ends but no fragmentation and little tissue damage
26
describe the pattern of this fracture
simple fracture
27
describe the pattern of this fracture
transverse
28
is this a complete or incomplete fracture
incomplete
29
transverse fracture
fracture occuring on a horizonal plane
30
oblique fracture
fracture breaks at an angle
31
describe the pattern of this fracture
oblique
32
describe the fractute of this bone
**O** closed
**L** distal 1/3 of the tibia
**D** complete
**A** extra-articular
**C** oblique
**I** no abnormalities
**D** no displacement
33
spiral fracture
a helical fracture that appears S shaped on Xray, usually from a twisting motion or injury
34
describe the pattern of this fracture
spiral
35
completely describe this fracture
O closed
L midshaft of the humerus
D complete
A extra articular
C spiral
I no abnormalities
D slightly displace
36
completely describe this fracture
O closed
L midshaft of the femur
D complete
A extra-articular
C spiral
I no abnormalities
D severly displaced, 20deg displacement lateral apex
37
linear fracture
fracture line that runs parallel to the long axis of a bone with no displacement
38
describe the pattern of this fracture
linear
39
comminuted fracture
a fracture with more than two fragments
40
describe the pattern of this fracture
comminuted
41
completely describe this fracture
O closed
L proximal 1/3 of the humerus
D complete
A no articular extension
C mildly comminuted
I no abnormalities
D mildly displaced, 10deg angulation medial apex
42
what are three general descriptors of comminution
1. non-comminuted
2. mildy comminuted
3. severely comminuted
43
segmental fracture
fractute which separates large bone fragments from the body of the fractured bone
44
describe this fracture pattern
segmental
45
describe this fracture pattern
butterfly
46
compression fracture
collapsed vertebrae
47
impacted fracture
shortening of the bone with no loss of alignment
48
describe the fracture pattern
impacted
49
what is a torus fracture?
what age group are they common in
compression fracture of a long bone that causes the cortex to buckle
pediatrics
50
completely describe this fracture
O closed
L distal 1/3 of the radius
D complete
A no articular extension
C torus
I no abnormalites
D no displacement
51
what is a distracted fracture?
what can caused this
a fracture where bone length is increased due
muscle tension on the fractured ends of a bone pulling in opposite directions
52
avulsion fracture
when a small chunk of bone attached to a tendon or ligament is tore off the main bone
53
completely describe this fracture
O closed
L proximal head of the 1st phalanx
D incomplete
A intra-articular, displaced
C non-comminuted
I no abnormalities
D slightly displaced
54
two types of stress fractures
fatigue and insufficiency
55
what is the difference between fatigue and insufficiency stress fractures
fatigue fractures are caused by abnormal stress on a normal bone
insufficiency fractures are due to normal stress placed on an abnormal bone
56
pathologic fracture
fracture that occurs due a weakened area of bone
57
osteopenia
decreased bone density that often results in pathological fracture
58
when is osteopenia visable on x ray
not until there has been a 50% loss
59
what disease process is present here
osteopenia
60
how is displacement descibed
the displacement of the distal fragment in relation to the proximal
61
5 categories of displacement
1. dislocation
2. angulation
3. rotation
4. translation
5. shortening
62
what category of dislocation is this
dislocation
63
how is rotational displacement described
by the amount of rotation in the distal fragement relative to the proximal
64
translation
sideways movement of the fracture
65
how is translation described
by the percent of movement relative to the diameter of the bone
66
how is shortening displacement described?
what is another name
the amount the fracture has collapsed
bayonette apposition
67
complete describe this fracture
O closed
L distal radius
D complete
A extra-articular, displaced
C transverse
I no abnormalites
D 30 degrees angulation apex volar
68
what is the Salter-Harris classification used for
to grade pediatric fracture that involve the growth plate
69
define the SALTR acronym
**S**eperation through the growth plate
**A**bove the growth plate
**L**ower or below the growth plate
**T**hrough the growth plate above and below
**R**am, compression at the growth plate
70
Salter Harris type one
separation of the growth plate but no fracture of the metaphysis or diaphysis
71
what Salter-Harris classification is this
type I, separation
72
what Salter-Harris classification is this
SH type II, fracture through the metaphysis with seperation of the growth plate
73
Salter-Harris type II
fracture through the metaphysis with separation of the growth plate
74
what Salter Harris classifiction is this
Type III, epiphyseal fracture with growth plate separation
75
Salter Harris type III
fracture of the epiphysis with separation of the growth plate
76
Salter Harris type IV
fracture extends through physis into the epiphysis and metaphysis
77
what Salter-Harris classification is this
Salter Harris IV, meta/epi/physeal
78
Salter Harris Type V
ram, compression of the physis
79
what Salter-Harris classification is this
Type V, ram
80
completely describe this fracture
O closed
L distal radius
D complete
A non-articular
C distraction
I no abnormalities
D 2cm dorsal dislocation
S Salter Harris I
81
complete describe this fracture
O closed
L distal femer
D complete
A extra-articular, displaced
C mildy comminuted
I no abnormalities
D 5cm lateral displacement
S SH II
82
what will malignant tumors look like on xray
aggressive pattern of bone destruction with a wide transition, destruction of bone, and soft tissue masses
83
what will benign tumors look like on xray
a less aggressive pattern of bone destruction with clear borders and no cortical destruction
84
what type of metastatic process is at work here
malignant
85
what type of metastatic process is at work here
benign
86
what are the three main types of arthritis
1. hypertrophic
2. erosive
3. infectious
87
three examples of hypertrophic arthritis
1. DJD
2. Charcot
3. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease
88
four types of erosive arthritis
1. RA
2. Gout
3. Psoriatic
4. Hemophilia
89
two types of infectious arthritis
1. pyogenic
2. tuberculosis
90
DJD (osteoarthritis)
wearing down of the articular cartilage
91
where is DJD commonly seen
hips, knees, back, DIP and PIP joints
92
what is the pathology of DJD
* articular cartilage wears down
* bone on bone action produces inflammation and pain
* osteophytes form in response
93
subarticular cysts
cysts that form in subarticular bone affected by DJD
94
four radiographic signs of DJD
1. assymetrical joint space narrowing
2. periarticular sclerosis
3. osteophytes
4. subarticular cysts
95
what type of arthritis is this?
how can you tell?
osteoarthritis
subarticular cysts, periarticular sclerosis, narrowed joint spaces with osteophytes
96
rheumatoid arthritis
inflammatory process of the synovium
97
4 signs radiographic signs of RA
1. Soft tissue edema
2. loss of articular cartilage
3. joint subluxation
4. no osteophytes
98
what type of arthritis is displayed here
how can you tell
RA
displaced joints, loss of articular cartilage, no osteophytes/sclerosis/cysts
99
gout
a metabolic disorder associated with high uric acid and the accumlation of crystals in the joint
100
how will gout look on a radiograph
large erosions of bone with sclerotic, overhanging hook like margins
can also have no radiographic signs
101
what disease process is displayed here
how can you tell
gout
soft tissue edema, hook like projections proximal to the joint
102
what causes septic arthritis
infection causing effusion and swelling of adjacent soft tissue
103
focal osteopenia
bone degeneration on either side of a septic joint
104
what will septic arthritis look like on radiograph
soft tissue swelling, periarticular osteopenia, joint space narrowing
105
what disease process is present here?
what other diagnosis could this be mistaken for
septic joint
metastasis
106
avascular necrosis
where does it often occur?
bone death caused by poor blood supply to an area of bone
the femoral head unilaterally
107
four radiographic signs of avascular necrosis
1. osteopenia
2. sclerosis
3. dark cresent
4. collapse
108
what are two common causes of avascular necrosis
fracture and chronic steroid injection
109
what sign is present on this?
what is it indicative of
bite out lesion
avascular necrosis
110
what sign is present on this?
what is it indicative of
sclerosis "snow topped moutain"
avascular necrosis
111
what sign is present on this?
what is it indicative of
femoral collapse
avascular necrosis
112
avascular necrosis of the humeral head
113
avascular necrosis of the humeral head
114
three radiographic signs of osteomyelitis
1. lytic lesion
2. sequestrum
3. perostitis
115
sequestrum
a devascularized piece of bone that may persist in a lesion
116
perostitis
inflammation of adjacent periosteum related to osteomyelitis
117
when would osteomyelitis develop into septic arthritis
when it extends into a joint
118
T/F osteomyelitis is usually evident on xray by day 1
false, radiographs can be normal for the first 10 days
119
what is this?
what sign might be present here?
acromioclavicular separation
"piano key sign"
120
what is this?
how cann you tell
anterior shoulder dislocation
because the humeral head is displaced under the coracoid process
121
what is this? how can you tell? what sign might be present with this injury?
posterior shoulder dislocation
light bulb sign
the humeral head is under the acromion
