Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Radiology > Abnormal extremity > Flashcards

Abnormal extremity Flashcards

1
Q

effusion

A

escape of fluid into a cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sprain

A

injury to a joint ligament or capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

strain

A

injury to a muslce or tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pathologic fracture

A

a fracture through abnormally fragile bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

fatigue or stress fracture

A

an incomplete fracture due to repetative stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DJD

A

degenerative joint disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

dislocation

A

disruption of normal articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

osteomyelitis

A

bone infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

seven signs of fracture

A
  1. increase lucency
  2. opacity (hematoma)
  3. contour disruption
  4. masses
  5. hematoma or swelling
  6. unexplained fragments despite absnese of obvious fracture
  7. callus formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is OLDACID used for?

A

to describe fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define OLDACID

A

Open vs closed

Location

Degree

Articular extension

Communition/pattern

Intrinsic bone quality

Displacement/angulation/rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

open vs closed facture

A

open fractures break through the skin or body cavity

close fractures have intact skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how should location of a fracture be described

A

giving the bone involved and the location on the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is the degree of a fracture described

A

either as complete or incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

complete vs incomplete fracature

A

a complete fracture disrupts both cortices

an incomplete fracture just disrupts one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is another name for an incomplete fracture

what population do you normally see these in?

why?

A

greenstick fracture

in children

because their bones have not hardened yet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the articular extension of a fracture

A

if the fracture extends into the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are two ways to describe articular extension of a fracture

A

intra-articular

extra-articular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe the articular extension of this fracture

A

extra-articular, displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe the articular extension of this fracture

A

intra-articular, displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

describe the articular extension of this fracture

A

intra-articular, non-displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe the articular extension of this fracture

A

extra-articulat non displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which are more complicated, intra or extra articular fractures

A

intra, because the joint surface is damaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

14 ways to describe the pattern of a fracture

A
  1. simple
  2. transverse
  3. oblique
  4. spiral
  5. linear/longitudinal
  6. comminuted
  7. segmental
  8. compression
  9. impacted
  10. torus
  11. distraction
  12. avulsion
  13. stress
  14. pathologic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

simple fracture

A

a closed fracture with two ends but no fragmentation and little tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

simple fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

is this a complete or incomplete fracture

A

incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

transverse fracture

A

fracture occuring on a horizonal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

oblique fracture

A

fracture breaks at an angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

describe the fractute of this bone

A

O closed

L distal 1/3 of the tibia

D complete

A extra-articular

C oblique

I no abnormalities

D no displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

spiral fracture

A

a helical fracture that appears S shaped on Xray, usually from a twisting motion or injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L midshaft of the humerus

D complete

A extra articular

C spiral

I no abnormalities

D slightly displace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L midshaft of the femur

D complete

A extra-articular

C spiral

I no abnormalities

D severly displaced, 20deg displacement lateral apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

linear fracture

A

fracture line that runs parallel to the long axis of a bone with no displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

comminuted fracture

A

a fracture with more than two fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

comminuted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L proximal 1/3 of the humerus

D complete

A no articular extension

C mildly comminuted

I no abnormalities

D mildly displaced, 10deg angulation medial apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are three general descriptors of comminution

A
  1. non-comminuted
  2. mildy comminuted
  3. severely comminuted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

segmental fracture

A

fractute which separates large bone fragments from the body of the fractured bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe this fracture pattern

A

segmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

describe this fracture pattern

A

butterfly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

compression fracture

A

collapsed vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

impacted fracture

A

shortening of the bone with no loss of alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

describe the fracture pattern

A

impacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is a torus fracture?

what age group are they common in

A

compression fracture of a long bone that causes the cortex to buckle

pediatrics

50
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L distal 1/3 of the radius

D complete

A no articular extension

C torus

I no abnormalites

D no displacement

51
Q

what is a distracted fracture?

what can caused this

A

a fracture where bone length is increased due

muscle tension on the fractured ends of a bone pulling in opposite directions

52
Q

avulsion fracture

A

when a small chunk of bone attached to a tendon or ligament is tore off the main bone

53
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L proximal head of the 1st phalanx

D incomplete

A intra-articular, displaced

C non-comminuted

I no abnormalities

D slightly displaced

54
Q

two types of stress fractures

A

fatigue and insufficiency

55
Q

what is the difference between fatigue and insufficiency stress fractures

A

fatigue fractures are caused by abnormal stress on a normal bone

insufficiency fractures are due to normal stress placed on an abnormal bone

56
Q

pathologic fracture

A

fracture that occurs due a weakened area of bone

57
Q

osteopenia

A

decreased bone density that often results in pathological fracture

58
Q

when is osteopenia visable on x ray

A

not until there has been a 50% loss

59
Q

what disease process is present here

A

osteopenia

60
Q

how is displacement descibed

A

the displacement of the distal fragment in relation to the proximal

61
Q

5 categories of displacement

A
  1. dislocation
  2. angulation
  3. rotation
  4. translation
  5. shortening
62
Q

what category of dislocation is this

A

dislocation

63
Q

how is rotational displacement described

A

by the amount of rotation in the distal fragement relative to the proximal

64
Q

translation

A

sideways movement of the fracture

65
Q

how is translation described

A

by the percent of movement relative to the diameter of the bone

66
Q

how is shortening displacement described?

what is another name

A

the amount the fracture has collapsed

bayonette apposition

67
Q

complete describe this fracture

A

O closed

L distal radius

D complete

A extra-articular, displaced

C transverse

I no abnormalites

D 30 degrees angulation apex volar

68
Q

what is the Salter-Harris classification used for

A

to grade pediatric fracture that involve the growth plate

69
Q

define the SALTR acronym

A

Seperation through the growth plate

Above the growth plate

Lower or below the growth plate

Through the growth plate above and below

Ram, compression at the growth plate

70
Q

Salter Harris type one

A

separation of the growth plate but no fracture of the metaphysis or diaphysis

71
Q

what Salter-Harris classification is this

A

type I, separation

72
Q

what Salter-Harris classification is this

A

SH type II, fracture through the metaphysis with seperation of the growth plate

73
Q

Salter-Harris type II

A

fracture through the metaphysis with separation of the growth plate

74
Q

what Salter Harris classifiction is this

A

Type III, epiphyseal fracture with growth plate separation

75
Q

Salter Harris type III

A

fracture of the epiphysis with separation of the growth plate

76
Q

Salter Harris type IV

A

fracture extends through physis into the epiphysis and metaphysis

77
Q

what Salter-Harris classification is this

A

Salter Harris IV, meta/epi/physeal

78
Q

Salter Harris Type V

A

ram, compression of the physis

79
Q

what Salter-Harris classification is this

A

Type V, ram

80
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L distal radius

D complete

A non-articular

C distraction

I no abnormalities

D 2cm dorsal dislocation

S Salter Harris I

81
Q

complete describe this fracture

A

O closed

L distal femer

D complete

A extra-articular, displaced

C mildy comminuted

I no abnormalities

D 5cm lateral displacement

S SH II

82
Q

what will malignant tumors look like on xray

A

aggressive pattern of bone destruction with a wide transition, destruction of bone, and soft tissue masses

83
Q

what will benign tumors look like on xray

A

a less aggressive pattern of bone destruction with clear borders and no cortical destruction

84
Q

what type of metastatic process is at work here

85
Q

what type of metastatic process is at work here

86
Q

what are the three main types of arthritis

A
  1. hypertrophic
  2. erosive
  3. infectious
87
Q

three examples of hypertrophic arthritis

A
  1. DJD
  2. Charcot
  3. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease
88
Q

four types of erosive arthritis

A
  1. RA
  2. Gout
  3. Psoriatic
  4. Hemophilia
89
Q

two types of infectious arthritis

A
  1. pyogenic
  2. tuberculosis
90
Q

DJD (osteoarthritis)

A

wearing down of the articular cartilage

91
Q

where is DJD commonly seen

A

hips, knees, back, DIP and PIP joints

92
Q

what is the pathology of DJD

A
  • articular cartilage wears down
  • bone on bone action produces inflammation and pain
  • osteophytes form in response
93
Q

subarticular cysts

A

cysts that form in subarticular bone affected by DJD

94
Q

four radiographic signs of DJD

A
  1. assymetrical joint space narrowing
  2. periarticular sclerosis
  3. osteophytes
  4. subarticular cysts
95
Q

what type of arthritis is this?

how can you tell?

A

osteoarthritis

subarticular cysts, periarticular sclerosis, narrowed joint spaces with osteophytes

96
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

inflammatory process of the synovium

97
Q

4 signs radiographic signs of RA

A
  1. Soft tissue edema
  2. loss of articular cartilage
  3. joint subluxation
  4. no osteophytes
98
Q

what type of arthritis is displayed here

how can you tell

A

RA

displaced joints, loss of articular cartilage, no osteophytes/sclerosis/cysts

99
Q

gout

A

a metabolic disorder associated with high uric acid and the accumlation of crystals in the joint

100
Q

how will gout look on a radiograph

A

large erosions of bone with sclerotic, overhanging hook like margins

can also have no radiographic signs

101
Q

what disease process is displayed here

how can you tell

A

gout

soft tissue edema, hook like projections proximal to the joint

102
Q

what causes septic arthritis

A

infection causing effusion and swelling of adjacent soft tissue

103
Q

focal osteopenia

A

bone degeneration on either side of a septic joint

104
Q

what will septic arthritis look like on radiograph

A

soft tissue swelling, periarticular osteopenia, joint space narrowing

105
Q

what disease process is present here?

what other diagnosis could this be mistaken for

A

septic joint

metastasis

106
Q

avascular necrosis

where does it often occur?

A

bone death caused by poor blood supply to an area of bone

the femoral head unilaterally

107
Q

four radiographic signs of avascular necrosis

A
  1. osteopenia
  2. sclerosis
  3. dark cresent
  4. collapse
108
Q

what are two common causes of avascular necrosis

A

fracture and chronic steroid injection

109
Q

what sign is present on this?

what is it indicative of

A

bite out lesion

avascular necrosis

110
Q

what sign is present on this?

what is it indicative of

A

sclerosis “snow topped moutain”

avascular necrosis

111
Q

what sign is present on this?

what is it indicative of

A

femoral collapse

avascular necrosis

112
Q
A

avascular necrosis of the humeral head

113
Q
A

avascular necrosis of the humeral head

114
Q

three radiographic signs of osteomyelitis

A
  1. lytic lesion
  2. sequestrum
  3. perostitis
115
Q

sequestrum

A

a devascularized piece of bone that may persist in a lesion

116
Q

perostitis

A

inflammation of adjacent periosteum related to osteomyelitis

117
Q

when would osteomyelitis develop into septic arthritis

A

when it extends into a joint

118
Q

T/F osteomyelitis is usually evident on xray by day 1

A

false, radiographs can be normal for the first 10 days

119
Q

what is this?

what sign might be present here?

A

acromioclavicular separation

“piano key sign”

120
Q

what is this?

how cann you tell

A

anterior shoulder dislocation

because the humeral head is displaced under the coracoid process

121
Q

what is this? how can you tell? what sign might be present with this injury?

A

posterior shoulder dislocation

light bulb sign

the humeral head is under the acromion

Radiology (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions