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Radiology > Abnormal extremity > Flashcards

Abnormal extremity Flashcards

1
Q

effusion

A

escape of fluid into a cavity

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2
Q

sprain

A

injury to a joint ligament or capsule

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3
Q

strain

A

injury to a muslce or tendon

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4
Q

pathologic fracture

A

a fracture through abnormally fragile bones

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5
Q

fatigue or stress fracture

A

an incomplete fracture due to repetative stress

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6
Q

DJD

A

degenerative joint disease

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7
Q

dislocation

A

disruption of normal articulation

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8
Q

osteomyelitis

A

bone infection

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9
Q

seven signs of fracture

A
  1. increase lucency
  2. opacity (hematoma)
  3. contour disruption
  4. masses
  5. hematoma or swelling
  6. unexplained fragments despite absnese of obvious fracture
  7. callus formation
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10
Q

what is OLDACID used for?

A

to describe fractures

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11
Q

define OLDACID

A

Open vs closed

Location

Degree

Articular extension

Communition/pattern

Intrinsic bone quality

Displacement/angulation/rotation

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12
Q

open vs closed facture

A

open fractures break through the skin or body cavity

close fractures have intact skin

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13
Q

how should location of a fracture be described

A

giving the bone involved and the location on the bone

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14
Q

how is the degree of a fracture described

A

either as complete or incomplete

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15
Q

complete vs incomplete fracature

A

a complete fracture disrupts both cortices

an incomplete fracture just disrupts one

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16
Q

what is another name for an incomplete fracture

what population do you normally see these in?

why?

A

greenstick fracture

in children

because their bones have not hardened yet

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17
Q

what is the articular extension of a fracture

A

if the fracture extends into the joint

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18
Q

what are two ways to describe articular extension of a fracture

A

intra-articular

extra-articular

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19
Q

describe the articular extension of this fracture

A

extra-articular, displaced

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20
Q

describe the articular extension of this fracture

A

intra-articular, displaced

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21
Q

describe the articular extension of this fracture

A

intra-articular, non-displaced

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22
Q

describe the articular extension of this fracture

A

extra-articulat non displaced

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23
Q

which are more complicated, intra or extra articular fractures

A

intra, because the joint surface is damaged

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24
Q

14 ways to describe the pattern of a fracture

A
  1. simple
  2. transverse
  3. oblique
  4. spiral
  5. linear/longitudinal
  6. comminuted
  7. segmental
  8. compression
  9. impacted
  10. torus
  11. distraction
  12. avulsion
  13. stress
  14. pathologic
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25
Q

simple fracture

A

a closed fracture with two ends but no fragmentation and little tissue damage

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26
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

simple fracture

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27
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

transverse

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28
Q

is this a complete or incomplete fracture

A

incomplete

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29
Q

transverse fracture

A

fracture occuring on a horizonal plane

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30
Q

oblique fracture

A

fracture breaks at an angle

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31
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

oblique

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32
Q

describe the fractute of this bone

A

O closed

L distal 1/3 of the tibia

D complete

A extra-articular

C oblique

I no abnormalities

D no displacement

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33
Q

spiral fracture

A

a helical fracture that appears S shaped on Xray, usually from a twisting motion or injury

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34
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

spiral

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35
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L midshaft of the humerus

D complete

A extra articular

C spiral

I no abnormalities

D slightly displace

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36
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L midshaft of the femur

D complete

A extra-articular

C spiral

I no abnormalities

D severly displaced, 20deg displacement lateral apex

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37
Q

linear fracture

A

fracture line that runs parallel to the long axis of a bone with no displacement

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38
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

linear

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39
Q

comminuted fracture

A

a fracture with more than two fragments

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40
Q

describe the pattern of this fracture

A

comminuted

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41
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L proximal 1/3 of the humerus

D complete

A no articular extension

C mildly comminuted

I no abnormalities

D mildly displaced, 10deg angulation medial apex

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42
Q

what are three general descriptors of comminution

A
  1. non-comminuted
  2. mildy comminuted
  3. severely comminuted
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43
Q

segmental fracture

A

fractute which separates large bone fragments from the body of the fractured bone

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44
Q

describe this fracture pattern

A

segmental

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45
Q

describe this fracture pattern

A

butterfly

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46
Q

compression fracture

A

collapsed vertebrae

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47
Q

impacted fracture

A

shortening of the bone with no loss of alignment

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48
Q

describe the fracture pattern

A

impacted

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49
Q

what is a torus fracture?

what age group are they common in

A

compression fracture of a long bone that causes the cortex to buckle

pediatrics

50
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L distal 1/3 of the radius

D complete

A no articular extension

C torus

I no abnormalites

D no displacement

51
Q

what is a distracted fracture?

what can caused this

A

a fracture where bone length is increased due

muscle tension on the fractured ends of a bone pulling in opposite directions

52
Q

avulsion fracture

A

when a small chunk of bone attached to a tendon or ligament is tore off the main bone

53
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L proximal head of the 1st phalanx

D incomplete

A intra-articular, displaced

C non-comminuted

I no abnormalities

D slightly displaced

54
Q

two types of stress fractures

A

fatigue and insufficiency

55
Q

what is the difference between fatigue and insufficiency stress fractures

A

fatigue fractures are caused by abnormal stress on a normal bone

insufficiency fractures are due to normal stress placed on an abnormal bone

56
Q

pathologic fracture

A

fracture that occurs due a weakened area of bone

57
Q

osteopenia

A

decreased bone density that often results in pathological fracture

58
Q

when is osteopenia visable on x ray

A

not until there has been a 50% loss

59
Q

what disease process is present here

A

osteopenia

60
Q

how is displacement descibed

A

the displacement of the distal fragment in relation to the proximal

61
Q

5 categories of displacement

A
  1. dislocation
  2. angulation
  3. rotation
  4. translation
  5. shortening
62
Q

what category of dislocation is this

A

dislocation

63
Q

how is rotational displacement described

A

by the amount of rotation in the distal fragement relative to the proximal

64
Q

translation

A

sideways movement of the fracture

65
Q

how is translation described

A

by the percent of movement relative to the diameter of the bone

66
Q

how is shortening displacement described?

what is another name

A

the amount the fracture has collapsed

bayonette apposition

67
Q

complete describe this fracture

A

O closed

L distal radius

D complete

A extra-articular, displaced

C transverse

I no abnormalites

D 30 degrees angulation apex volar

68
Q

what is the Salter-Harris classification used for

A

to grade pediatric fracture that involve the growth plate

69
Q

define the SALTR acronym

A

Seperation through the growth plate

Above the growth plate

Lower or below the growth plate

Through the growth plate above and below

Ram, compression at the growth plate

70
Q

Salter Harris type one

A

separation of the growth plate but no fracture of the metaphysis or diaphysis

71
Q

what Salter-Harris classification is this

A

type I, separation

72
Q

what Salter-Harris classification is this

A

SH type II, fracture through the metaphysis with seperation of the growth plate

73
Q

Salter-Harris type II

A

fracture through the metaphysis with separation of the growth plate

74
Q

what Salter Harris classifiction is this

A

Type III, epiphyseal fracture with growth plate separation

75
Q

Salter Harris type III

A

fracture of the epiphysis with separation of the growth plate

76
Q

Salter Harris type IV

A

fracture extends through physis into the epiphysis and metaphysis

77
Q

what Salter-Harris classification is this

A

Salter Harris IV, meta/epi/physeal

78
Q

Salter Harris Type V

A

ram, compression of the physis

79
Q

what Salter-Harris classification is this

A

Type V, ram

80
Q

completely describe this fracture

A

O closed

L distal radius

D complete

A non-articular

C distraction

I no abnormalities

D 2cm dorsal dislocation

S Salter Harris I

81
Q

complete describe this fracture

A

O closed

L distal femer

D complete

A extra-articular, displaced

C mildy comminuted

I no abnormalities

D 5cm lateral displacement

S SH II

82
Q

what will malignant tumors look like on xray

A

aggressive pattern of bone destruction with a wide transition, destruction of bone, and soft tissue masses

83
Q

what will benign tumors look like on xray

A

a less aggressive pattern of bone destruction with clear borders and no cortical destruction

84
Q

what type of metastatic process is at work here

A

malignant

85
Q

what type of metastatic process is at work here

A

benign

86
Q

what are the three main types of arthritis

A
  1. hypertrophic
  2. erosive
  3. infectious
87
Q

three examples of hypertrophic arthritis

A
  1. DJD
  2. Charcot
  3. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease
88
Q

four types of erosive arthritis

A
  1. RA
  2. Gout
  3. Psoriatic
  4. Hemophilia
89
Q

two types of infectious arthritis

A
  1. pyogenic
  2. tuberculosis
90
Q

DJD (osteoarthritis)

A

wearing down of the articular cartilage

91
Q

where is DJD commonly seen

A

hips, knees, back, DIP and PIP joints

92
Q

what is the pathology of DJD

A
  • articular cartilage wears down
  • bone on bone action produces inflammation and pain
  • osteophytes form in response
93
Q

subarticular cysts

A

cysts that form in subarticular bone affected by DJD

94
Q

four radiographic signs of DJD

A
  1. assymetrical joint space narrowing
  2. periarticular sclerosis
  3. osteophytes
  4. subarticular cysts
95
Q

what type of arthritis is this?

how can you tell?

A

osteoarthritis

subarticular cysts, periarticular sclerosis, narrowed joint spaces with osteophytes

96
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

inflammatory process of the synovium

97
Q

4 signs radiographic signs of RA

A
  1. Soft tissue edema
  2. loss of articular cartilage
  3. joint subluxation
  4. no osteophytes
98
Q

what type of arthritis is displayed here

how can you tell

A

RA

displaced joints, loss of articular cartilage, no osteophytes/sclerosis/cysts

99
Q

gout

A

a metabolic disorder associated with high uric acid and the accumlation of crystals in the joint

100
Q

how will gout look on a radiograph

A

large erosions of bone with sclerotic, overhanging hook like margins

can also have no radiographic signs

101
Q

what disease process is displayed here

how can you tell

A

gout

soft tissue edema, hook like projections proximal to the joint

102
Q

what causes septic arthritis

A

infection causing effusion and swelling of adjacent soft tissue

103
Q

focal osteopenia

A

bone degeneration on either side of a septic joint

104
Q

what will septic arthritis look like on radiograph

A

soft tissue swelling, periarticular osteopenia, joint space narrowing

105
Q

what disease process is present here?

what other diagnosis could this be mistaken for

A

septic joint

metastasis

106
Q

avascular necrosis

where does it often occur?

A

bone death caused by poor blood supply to an area of bone

the femoral head unilaterally

107
Q

four radiographic signs of avascular necrosis

A
  1. osteopenia
  2. sclerosis
  3. dark cresent
  4. collapse
108
Q

what are two common causes of avascular necrosis

A

fracture and chronic steroid injection

109
Q

what sign is present on this?

what is it indicative of

A

bite out lesion

avascular necrosis

110
Q

what sign is present on this?

what is it indicative of

A

sclerosis “snow topped moutain”

avascular necrosis

111
Q

what sign is present on this?

what is it indicative of

A

femoral collapse

avascular necrosis

112
Q
A

avascular necrosis of the humeral head

113
Q
A

avascular necrosis of the humeral head

114
Q

three radiographic signs of osteomyelitis

A
  1. lytic lesion
  2. sequestrum
  3. perostitis
115
Q

sequestrum

A

a devascularized piece of bone that may persist in a lesion

116
Q

perostitis

A

inflammation of adjacent periosteum related to osteomyelitis

117
Q

when would osteomyelitis develop into septic arthritis

A

when it extends into a joint

118
Q

T/F osteomyelitis is usually evident on xray by day 1

A

false, radiographs can be normal for the first 10 days

119
Q

what is this?

what sign might be present here?

A

acromioclavicular separation

“piano key sign”

120
Q

what is this?

how cann you tell

A

anterior shoulder dislocation

because the humeral head is displaced under the coracoid process

121
Q

what is this? how can you tell? what sign might be present with this injury?

A

posterior shoulder dislocation

light bulb sign

the humeral head is under the acromion

Radiology (14 decks)

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