A&P Midterm Flashcards
The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
parietal
The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the
diaphragm
The red dot is ____________ to the blue dot.
rostral
The structure that divides the ventral cavity into two parts is the
diaphragm
Which of these is an example of microanatomy?
examining cells on a blood smear
Inflammation of the pleura membrane is known as _______________________.
pleuritis
Which anatomic plane divides the body into equal R and L halves?
median plane
The dog has 13 pairs of ribs- each rib on the right side of the thorax has a matching rib on the left side of the thorax. This is an example of
bilateral symmetry
The study of the normal function of living organisms is
physiology
An example of a group of different types of tissues working together for a common purpose is/are
the brain.
The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the
transverse plane.
Which end of a donkey’s tail attaches to the body?
proximal
The layer of the pleura membrane that covers the organs in the thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
visceral
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
plantar
Which anatomic plane divides the body into equal R and L halves?
median plane
The shoulder of a camel is ____________ to its carpus.
proximal
Choose the correct term to complete the statement. In the picture of the horse, G in on the ________ aspect of the right rear leg.
medial
Which anatomic plane separates the body into cranial and caudal regions?
transverse plane
The thin membrane that lines the thoracic cavity is known as the ______________________ membrane.
pleura
If you were told to look for a cut on the palmar surface of a dog”s leg, where would you look?
the back surface of the front leg below the carpus
The body cavity that contains the heart is the
thoracic cavity.
Choose the correct term to complete the statement. In the picture of the horse, F is ________ to E.
distal
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
cranial
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
caudal
The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
parietal
The layer of the peritoneum membrane that lines the entire abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
parietal
Which letter in the diagram indicates “plantar”?
D
The layer of the pleura membrane that covers the organs in the thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
visceral
The outer surface of a cow’s leg that is facing away from its body is the __________ surface.
lateral
The red dot is on the ____________ aspect of the leg.
medial
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
palmar
The red dot is ____________ to the blue dot.
proximal
The red dot is on the ____________ aspect of the leg.
lateral
The layer of the pleura membrane that lines the entire thoracic cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
parietal
In the picture above C is ________ to D.
rostral
The thin membrane that lines the whole thoracic cavity is called the parietal layer of _________________.
pleura
Inflammation of the pleura membrane is known as _______________________.
pleuritis or pleurisy
The red line lies along the ____________ plane.
dorsal
The red line is along the ____________ aspect of the leg.
dorsal
The type of tissue that forms sweat glands is __ tissue.
epithelial
On a horse, the area dorsal to the scapulas is known as the
withers
The layer of the peritoneum membrane that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
visceral
The plane labelled B in the diagram is the
dorsal place
Which anatomic plane separates the body into cranial and caudal regions?
transverse plane
The body cavity that contains the heart is the
thoracic cavity.
The reference plane that divides the body into cranial and caudal parts that are not necessarily equal is the
transverse plane.
The layer of the peritoneum membrane that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity is known as the _____________________ layer.
visceral
This body cavity lies caudal to the diaphragm. This is the _____________________ cavity.
abdominal
H + is the symbol for ____________ ion.
hydrogen
Mg +2 is the symbol for ____________ ion.
magnesium
NH 4 + is the symbol for ____________ ion.
ammonium
CA +2 is the symbol for ____________ ion.
calcium
Which group of lipids has a hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end that causes them to line up in two layers when placed in water?
phospholipids
A/An ______ is formed when an atom gains or loses an electron.
ion
Water is the most abundant substance in the body. Which is true of water?
It is a compound.
An ____________ bond is formed when one atom in a molecule loses electrons and another gains electrons.
ionic
Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?
neutral fats
Substances that are catalyzed by enzymes are
substrates
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen are the ____________ that make up most of the matter found in living organisms.
elements
____________ have a negative electrical charge and orbit around the nucleus of the atom.
electrons
Denatured proteins become
a straight chain of amino acids.
A covalent bond is formed between two molecules when they share _____________.
electrons
Choose the term that makes the statement true. If at atom (gains/ loses) electrons it will become a positively charged ion.
loses
Electrolytes are ________ _________.
ionized salts.
Water and fats don”t mix well because fats are
hydrophobic
To buffer a solution means to
keep the solution in a neutral pH range.
An ion with a positive charge is a/an
cation
A ____________ is the smallest unit of a compound that retains the unique properties of the compound.
molecule
____________ have a neutral electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.
neutrons
Which of these is an example of a pure substance?
100% oxygen in a tank.
Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?
neutral fats
A(n) ____________ is a protein that acts as a catalyst for chemical reactions in the cell.
enzyme
Iodine-127 and I-131 are isotopes. This means
they have different numbers of neutrons.
Water is the universal ____________.
solvent
Which is true of buffers?
They are weak acids or weak bases.
Which is true of buffers?
They are weak acids or weak bases.
Which group of lipids is made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids?
neutral fats
____________ have a positive electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.
protons
Substances that are catalyzed by enzymes are
substrates
Electrolytes are present when a ________ is dissolved in water.
salt
The three major subatomic particles are protons, neutrons and ____________.
electrons
Blood samples are typically centrifuged to separate the blood cells from the serum. This is an example of
a physical process
Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is a
polysaccharide.
A covalent bond is formed between two molecules when they share _____________.
electrons
Which group of lipids contains prostaglandins that help mediate an inflammatory reaction?
eicosanoids
Hair is an example of a ___________ protein.
structural
Of the pH values below, which is considered ‘neutral’ pH?
7
Choose the term that makes the statement true. If at atom (gains/ loses) electrons it will become a negatively charged ion.
gains
Digestive enzymes help breakdown complex molecules like proteins and carbohydrates by catalysing ____________ reactions.
hydrolysis
Special proteins in living organisms that speed up a chemical reaction but are not destroyed or used up are called
catalysts/enzymes.
Fe+3 is the symbol for ____________ ion.
ferric or iron (III)
The energy source for cells of the body to function properly is stored in and released by
ATP
____________ have a positive electrical charge and are found in the nucleus of the atom.
protons
A polypeptide can be made up of a chain of as many as _____ amino acids.
100
Which four elements make up 96% of the matter found in all living organisms?
Correctb. hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, nitrogen
A saturated fatty acid is defined as
a chain of carbon atoms with one or two hydrogen atoms attached to each carbon atom by a single bond.
A sequence of nucleotides that carries information to make one peptide chain is a/an
gene
Which is true of hydrogen bonds?
They form between complementary bases in strands of nucleic acid.
An example of an organic compound is
carbohydrate
HCO 3 - is the symbol for ____________ ion.
bicarbonate
Which organelle in the cell breaks down large nutrient molecules into smaller molecules that can be used as fuel in the cell?
mitochondria
This thickest and strongest fiber in a cell is the
mitochondria
This thickest and strongest fiber in a cell is the
microtubule
Within the cell secretory granules, mitochondria and lysosomes will attach to
microtubules
Within the cell secretory granules, mitochondria and lysosomes will attach to
microtubules
The powerhouse of a cell is the
mitochondria
Actin and myosin proteins form
microfilaments
Transport of glucose across the cell membrane
a type of passive transport
Which organelle in the cell is an important site for protein synthesis?
ribosome
DNA replication takes place during
interphase
7% saline is a hypertonic solution. This means its osmolarity is
greater than the osmolarity of ICF
Under light microscopy the dark strands visible in the nucleoplasm are
coiled chromatin.
Where in the cell does respiration, where oxygen is consumed and carbon dioxide is excreted, take place?
mitochondria
The Kreb’s Cycle or Citric Acid Cycle involves _________ respiration that takes place in the ___________.
aerobic: mitochondrial matrix
Pores in the cell membrane are formed by
integral proteins.
Which of these helps cells maintain or change shape?
microfilaments
Which organelle in a cell acts as a modification, packaging, and distribution center for molecules destined for secretion?
Golgi apparatus
The control center of a cell is the
nucleus.
Small invaginations in the cell membrane are called
caveolae.
Protein molecules are moved from the cytoplasm into the nucleus through
nuclear pore complexes.
The function of a flagellum is to
move a cell through a fluid.
Cilia are located
on the surface of the cell.
In nerve cells the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium out of the cell against the concentration gradient. This is an example of
active transport
The outer layer of a cell”s nuclear membrane is continuous with the
endoplasmic reticulum.
Which organelle in the cell breaks down large nutrient molecules into smaller molecules that can be used as fuel in the cell?
mitochondria
In the lipid bilayer that makes up the cell membrane the hydrophobic fatty acids are
the inside of the membrane.
The nitrogen base thymine (T) found in DNA can bind only to
adenine
Transcription refers to
synthesis of mRNA from DNA template
Glycoproteins that cover the surfaces of almost all mammalian cells and allow the cells to bond with one another are called
cell adhesion molecules (CAMs).
Which of these cell structures is visible with the light microscope?
nucleolus
Prions are unique in that they
lack DNA and RNA
Transport of glucose across the cell membrane
is a type of passive transport
A virus is composed of a
protein-covered capsule that contains either one strand of DNA or one strand of RNA.
Which of these helps cells maintain or change shape?
microfilaments
Abnormal buildup of fluid in the abdominal cavity is called
ascites.
Chemotherapeutic drugs work by
blocking cell division and protein synthesis.
A patient that has a capillary refill time (CRT) of 2.5 seconds is
5% to 7% dehydrated.
During replication, the double-stranded DNA unwinds and produces two nucleotide chains. If the original strand reads GTTAGA, what is the configuration of the complementary new strand that is formed?
CAATCT
Lactated Ringers Solution, a frequently administered IV fluid, is a/an
isotonic, crystalloid fluid.
Facilitated diffusion
moves molecules from extracellular spaces to intracellular spaces using no energy from the cell.
Which compartment of water makes up the majority of total body water?
intracellular fluid
A macrophage ‘ingests’ a dead neutrophil (white blood cell) through
phagocytosis
Which process is limited by the number of available carrier proteins?
facilitated diffusion
Protein synthesis begins in the
DNA
In a healthy animal, insensible water loss is the water lost
during respiration.
X-shaped chromosomes are linked together at the
centromere
A patient is depressed and lying down. The mucous membranes and tongue are dry. It is conscious with a weak and rapid pulse. What would you estimate the percentage of dehydration to be?
10% to 12%
What is the source of energy for the symport system of electrolyte transport across a cell membrane?
ATP
A solution that contains more solutes than plasma is ______________ to the plasma.
hypertonic.
if cells (e.g., red blood cells) are placed in a hypotonic solution, what will happen to them?
They will burst (lyse)
Protein synthesis begins in the
DNA.
Transcription results in
mRNA production.
Cell differentiation and development is dependent on
the position of genes in chromosomes.
When a liquid is taken into a cell and the cell uses energy to bring it in, the process is known as
pinocytosis
Fluid therapy to correct dehydration in an animal would be
replacement therapy.
A phagosome found in a cell will contain
solid material.
Waste products of cellular metabolism that are carried in the blood are slightly acidic. To counteract the effects of the acidic waste materials, what would be an ideal pH for blood?
7.4
The concentration of salt in water in normal saline is
0.9% NaCl.
Which form of passive transport requires a pressure gradient to drive the activity of molecules?
filtration
Ions that have a negative charge are called
anions
Osmolality measures the concentration of ___________ in fluid.
solutes
When waste materials are released from a cell into the interstitial fluid, the process is known as
excretion
The basement membrane
is formed by a network of fibers
These fibers in the tissue of arterials walls allows these vessels to stretch when blood is pumped from the heart into the arteries, then return to normal size.
elastic
The type of membrane that lines the cavities of joints is
synovial membrane
The _____________ ____________ anchors a cell to its underlying connective tissue.
basement membrane
A normal transudate in the abdominal cavity is called
peritoneal fluid.
Which type of muscle has muscle cells that connect to one another at junctions called intercalated disks?
striated involuntary muscle
The _____________ has many tiny blood vessels that supply nutrients to cartilage.
perichondrium
During the inflammatory process phagocytosis is the job of
macrophages.
The capillary refill time test is performed
on the gums.
Glands produce their secretions in their
endoplasmic reticulum.
The urinary bladder is partially lined by _______________ ______________ , giving it the ability to expand and contract as needed.
transitional epithelium
Keratin is found
in skin cells.
A scab is a/an
external clot.
If a gland loses an entire secretory cell during the secretory process, it is classified as a/an
holocrine gland
Which type of muscle is responsible for constricting the walls of blood vessels?
nonstriated involuntary muscle
The epithelial cells lining the proximal tubule of the kidney have the function of reabsorbing glucose, amino acids and electrolytes so these essential substances are not excreted in the urine. Which of these characteristics is useful for cells which act to absorb substances?
microvilli
The most abundant tissue type by weight in the body is
connective tissue.
An example of a wandering cell type in connective tissue is
white blood cells.
A high fever can lead to _______ mucous membranes
red
The most rigid type of cartilage is ____________ cartilage.
hyaline
If a tissue has more than one layer of epithelial cells, the epithelial cells are classified as
stratified.
The major muscles in all four legs of a horse are
striated voluntary muscle.
The major muscles in all four legs of a horse are
striated voluntary muscle.
If a gland has a branched duct that carries secretions to the deposition site, it is a
compound gland
Which type of muscle makes up the majority of the heart?
striated involuntary muscle
Which is a characteristic of second-intention wound healing?
A scar develops
The longest cells in the body are
nerve cells
The longest cells in the body are
nerve cells.
Which of these is NOT a typical characteristic of connective tissue?
closely packed cells
Goblet cells are
secretory cells
The type of membrane that has no epithelium is
synovial membrane.
Exocrine glands
are lined with epithelial tissue
Scar tissue is made from
granulation tissue.
The type of membrane that lines the cavities of joints is
synovial membrane.
A scab is a/an
external clot
Glands produce their secretions in their
endoplasmic reticulum.
These fibers in the tissue of arterials walls allows these vessels to stretch when blood is pumped from the heart into the arteries, then return to normal size.
elastic
The type of connective tissue associated with haversian canals is
bone.
The matrix of blood in the body is
plasma.
Which of these tissues has the MOST intercellular material?
cancellous bone
Ciliated pseudostratified epithelium is found lining the
respiratory tract
What part of the pelvis can be seen as the point of the hip in cattle?
ilium
The coffin bone in horses is the
distal phalanx.
The coffin bone in horses is the
distal phalanx
Which face bone forms the caudal portion of the hard palate?
palatine
Which type of joint allows for only rotation movement?
trochoid
A large, round, articular surface found at the distal end of the humerus is called a
condyle.
Which bone in the appendicular skeleton has an olecranon process?
ulna
Which bone forms the brachium?
humerus
Which group of bones forms the joint that is comparable to the wrist in humans?
carpal
Which bone of the cranium houses the pituitary gland?
sphenoid
Large blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves enter large long bones through channels called
nutrient foramina.
The cribriform plate is contained in the __ bone.
ethmoid
What bony structure on the face of cats and dogs forms the easily palpable widest part of the skull?
zygomatic arches
Decreasing the angle between two bones results in
flexion.
Dewclaws in dogs are found on the __ surface of the leg.
medial
Which face bone forms the lower jaw?
mandible
A depressed or sunken area on the surface of a bone is called a/an
fossa.
In long bones of a mature animal cartilage is found
covering the articular surfaces of the bone
The pelvic symphysis is a
cartilaginous joint
Fractures of the __ of long bones are especially common in young animals.
epiphyseal plate
Cancellous bone is sometimes called
spongy bone.
How many dewclaws does a cow have on its thoracic limb?
2
An ununited anconeal process is seen in what bone?
ulna
The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the
patella.
Red bone marrow consists primarily of
blood-forming tissue.
The obturator foramina is found in the
pelvis.
Which two species of animal are most commonly affected with Wobbler syndrome?
equine and canine
The cells that secrete the matrix of a bone are the
osteoblasts.
Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures?
skull
Firm connective tissue bands that help stabilize the bones that make up a joint and help hold the joint together are called
ligaments.
The point of the hock is actually the
calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.
The coffin bone in horses is the
distal phalanx.
Which one of the following bones is classified as an irregular bone?
patella
Cancellous bone is sometimes called
spongy bone.
In long bones of a mature animal cartilage is found
covering the articular surfaces of the bone
Red bone marrow consists primarily of
blood-forming tissue.
Where would you find immovable fibrous joints called sutures?
skull
The costochondral junction is found
at the ventral end of the bony part of a rib.
Splint bones in horses are
vestigial metacarpal bones
An ununited anconeal process is seen in what bone?
ulna
Hinge joints are capable of only two movements. They are
extension and flexion
Besides in the neck region, intervertebral disk disease is usually seen in the __ region.
thoracolumbar
Besides in the neck region, intervertebral disk disease is usually seen in the __ region.
thoracolumbar
Which bones fuse to make up the acetabulum?
ilium, ischium, pubis
Which bone forms part of the nasal septum?
vomer
From cranial to caudal what is the correct sequence of letter designations for the five regions of the spinal column?
C, T, L, S, CY
Which group of bones forms the joint that is comparable to the wrist in humans?
carpal
Which face bones are elongated in dolichocephalic dogs?
nasal
The bone that forms the forehead region of the skull is the
frontal bone.
Which of these is an example of a ball and socket joint?
hip joint
The movement of an extremity away from median plane of the body is
abduction.
Besides alignment and immobilization of a fracture, what else is needed for optimal healing to occur?
time
What is the correct order of bones on the thoracic limb starting distally and working proximally?
phalanges, metacarpal bones, carpal bones, radius, ulna, humerus, scapula
How many dewclaws does a cow have on its thoracic limb?
2
Increasing the angle between two bones results in
extension.
The point of the hock is actually the
calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.
The point of the hock is actually the.
calcaneal tuberosity of the fibular tarsal bone.
Which face bone forms the rostral part of the hard palate?
maxillary
The navicular bone is another name for the __ bone in horses.
distal sesamoid
As a young animal grows so must its bones grow. Where does creation of new bone that allows long bones to lengthen as the animal grows take place?
epiphyseal plates
Which face bone forms the lower jaw?
mandible
