A&P II -- Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is sensation?

A

Conscious awareness of the effects of stimuli, received by sensory receptors. The brain perceives info about body and environment via senses.

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2
Q

What are the 5 types of sensory receptors according to the categorized by the type of stimulus?

A

Mechanoreceptors: Respond to manual stimulus tickle, touch, vibration.

Chemoreceptors: Respond to different chemicals. Smell and taste.

Thermoreceptors: Respond to change in temperature.

Photoreceptors: Respond to light. Sense of vision.

Nociceptors (pain receptors): Extreme mechanical, chemical or thermal stimuli. Causes sense of pain.

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3
Q

What are the 3 types of receptors catergorized by location?

A

Exteroreceptors: Associated with skin

Visceroreceptors: associated with organs.

Proprioceptors: Associated with joints and tendons.

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4
Q

What are Direct Pathways and what are their two tracts?

A

Control fine, skilled movements in the face and distal limbs

Corticospinal: direct control of movements below the head
Corticobulbar: direct control of movements in head and neck

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5
Q

What are the four special senses?

A

Olfaction, Taste, Sight and Balance

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6
Q

What kind of neurons are found in the olfactory system?

A

Bipolar Neurons which have 1 axon and 1 dendrite.

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7
Q

What are the three regions of the frontal lobe that affect the perception of smell?

A

Lateral Olfactory Area: Concious perception of smell

Medial Olfractory Area: Visceral and emotional reactions to smell

Intermediate Olfactory Area: affect modification of incoming information.

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8
Q

What are the 4 types of papillae in the tongue?

A

Vallate: Largest, least numerous. In the middle area of tongue.

Fungiform: Mushroom-shaped. Scattered irregularly over the superior surface of tongue.

Foliate: Leaf-shaped. In folds on the sides of the tongue. Decrease in number with age.

Filiform: fiber shaped. Most numerous on the tongue surface.

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9
Q

What are the five types of taste types?

A

Sour: Caused by Hydrogen ions

Salty: Caused by Sodium ions

Bitter: presence of g-protein that open gated channels

Sweet: Sugars and carbs. carbs break down into sugars.

Umami: Caused by amino acids. Found in rich aged foods.

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10
Q

What are the 5 accessory structures of the visual system?

A

Eyebrows: inhibit sweat

Eyelids (palpebrae): help lubricating the eyes and protect the eyes from foreign objects.

Conjunctiva: thin transparent mucous membrane. Covers the inner eyelid and part of the eye;

Lacrimal glands: produce tears (lubrication and protection of the eye);

Extrinsic eye muscles: move the eyeball (clinical test for normal eye movement – “H” test).

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11
Q

What are the four areas of the lacrimal apparatus?

A

Lacrimal gland: produces tears to moisten, lubricate, wash. Tears pass through ducts and then over eye.

Lacrimal canaliculi: collect excess tears through openings called “puncta” in the corner of eye.

Lacrimal sac: collects excess tears to drain through nasolacrimal duct.

Nasolacrimal duct: opens into nasal cavity

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12
Q

What are the three layers of the eyeball?

A

Fibrous Tunic (outer layer): contains sclera and cornea

Vascular tunic (middle layer): choroid, ciliary body, iris. Contains most of the blood vessels in eye.

Nervous tunic (inner layer): retina

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13
Q

What is the sclera?

A

The outer white area of the eye that is made of dense collagenous connective tissue.

Maintains shape and protects internal structures of eye

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14
Q

What is the cornea?

A

The transparent front area of the eye. Its is transparent to allow light to enter the eye

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15
Q

What are the two sublayers of the Nervous layer?

A

Pigmented retina: reduce light scattering

Sensory retina: contains rod and cone cells that are sensitive to light. Only area that contains photoreceptors.

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16
Q

What does the area of light focus in the retina consist of?

A

Macula Lutea and Fovea Centralis

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17
Q

Describe the Fovea Centralis?

A

The dark spot in center of retina. Contains the highest area of visual ability and the most photoreceptor cells.

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18
Q

What is the name of the blind spot in your eye? Why is it called the blind spot?

A

Optic Disc.

It is called the blind spot because it contains no photoreceptors and only contains a port in which blood vessels and the optic nerve enter/exit the eye.

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19
Q

Describe the focal point and where is the ideal place for it on the retina?

A

It is the crossing point for all converging light rays. The ideal focal point is the fovea centralis.

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20
Q

Describe Rods

A

A photoreceptor cell responsible for black and white vision. Found over retina but not in fovea centralis.

Has two components opsin and retinal

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21
Q

Describe Cones

A

Photoreceptor cells responsible for color vision and visual acuity. Found mostly in fovea centralis and macula lutea.

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22
Q

How does light travel through the retina?

A

The action potential first reaches the pigmented layer of the retina —> then goes through the photoreceptor layer containing rods and cones —> then the AP reaches the bipolar cells —> reaches the ganglion cells —> then transfers to the optic nerve.

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23
Q

Describe the eye disorders myopia and hyperopia

A

Myopia (near-sightedness) Focal point too near lens, image focused in front of retina

Hyperopia: (Farsightedness)
Image focused behind retina

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24
Q

What are the three main areas of the ear?

A

External ear: (hearing). Terminates at eardrum
(tympanic membrane). Includes auricle and external auditory meatus

Middle ear: (hearing). Air-filled space containing auditory ossicles

Inner ear: (hearing and balance). Interconnecting fluid-filled tunnels and chambers within the temporal bone

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25
Q

What is the name of the membrane of the external ear that vibrates during sound? Describe it.

A

Tympanic membrane

Sound waves cause it to vibrate

Border between external and middle ear

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26
Q

What are the names of the three bones found in the middle ear?

A

Auditory Ossicles: Malleus, incus, stapes

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27
Q

Name the three areas of the ear where we find bony labyrinth.

A

Cochlea: hearing
Vestibule: balance
Semicircular canals: balance

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28
Q

Describe two of the qualities of sound

A

Volume or amplitude: function of wave amplitude

Pitch: function of wave frequency

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29
Q

Describe how sound travels through your ear.

A
  1. Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane and cause it to vibrate.
  2. Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane and cause it to vibrate.
  3. The foot plate of the stapes vibrates in the oval window.
  4. The vibrations of the oval window causes a vibration through the cochlea and vibrates the perilymph.
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30
Q

What are the two muscles of the middle ear that move the ossicles?

A

Tensor tympani: inserts on malleus

Stapedius: inserts on stapes

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31
Q

What are the two subgroups of the Peripheral Nerves?

A

Sensory Neurons- Carry AP from the periphery to the CNS

Motor Neurons- Carry AP from the CNS to effector organs.

Sensory neurons carry info up the hill. Motor Neurons carry info down the hill.

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32
Q

What are the two types of motor neurons?

A

Somatic Motor Neurons - Supply information to the skeletal muscles.

Autonomic Motor Neurons - Supply infornation to the smooth/cardiac muscle.

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33
Q

Describe the cell bodies of Somatic Motor Neurons

A

These cell bodies are located in the CNS.

Their axons extend from CNS to skeletal muscle and the tails of the axon can sometimes be quite long.

Controlled consciously most of the times.

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34
Q

Describe the cell bodies of Autonomic Motor Neurons

A

Contain 2 Neurons. 1-preganglionic 2- postganglionic

Body of 1st neuron in CNS body of 2nd neuron in autonomic ganglia.

Synapse within the autonomic ganglia.

Unconcious control.

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35
Q

What is a gland?

A

Organ of secretion

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36
Q

What is a exocrine gland?

A

Glands that secrete substances onto the bodies external surface

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37
Q

What is an endocrine gland?

A

Glands that secrete chemical signals or hormones into the circulatory system.

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38
Q

What is a hormone?

A

Type of intercellular signal, between cells, that are produced by endocrine glands, enter circulatory system and affect distant cells.

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39
Q

What is Autocrine?

A

Released by cells and have an affect only on the same cell type from which the chemical signal was released.

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40
Q

What is Paracrine?

A

Released by cells and affect other cell types locally. Does not get transported through blood.

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41
Q

What is Pheromones?

A

Secreted into environment and modify behaviior and physiology of the other organism.

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42
Q

What are neurohormones?

A

Produced by neurons and function like hormones.

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43
Q

Describe positive feedback?

A

When the body increases the deviation from the norm.

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44
Q

Describe negative feedback?

A

When the body works against positive feedback to keep the body at homeostasis

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45
Q

What is the function of the endocrine system?

A

Responsible for maintaining homeostasis via precise regulation.

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46
Q

What is the function of the pituitary gland?

A

Regulates many body functions and other endocrine glands.

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47
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A

Beneath the hypothalumus of the brain in the skull bone indentation called Stella Turcica which forms a nest to protect the gland.

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48
Q

What are the two areas of the pituitary gland?

A

Posterior Pituitary: Extention of the hypothalumus, produces neurohormones.

Anterior Pituitary: Produces endocrine hormones. Contains glandular tissue.

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49
Q

What is the name of the structure that connects the Hypothalumus and the Posterior Pituitaty? How does it function?

A

Hypothalamo-Hypophysial Tract

Nerve cells are produced by the hypothalumus, they are sent through the posterior pituitary via the HHT and then they are released into the bloodstream.

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50
Q

What is the name of the structure that connects the hypothalumus to the anterior pituitary gland? How does it function?

A

Hypothalamo-hypophysial Portal System

Neurohormones are produced by Hypothalumus and decend through portal system. They enter anterior pituitary and leave the capillaries and enter the endocrine glands and tell them to produce certain hormones.

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51
Q

What hormones are produced by the Posterior Pituitary?

A

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) - Prevents the output of large amounts of urine.

Oxytocin: Stimulates smooth muscle fibers in the uterus for childbirth and promotes ejection of milk during lactation.

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52
Q

How does the thyroid gland function to produce T3/T4?

A

First the follicular cells produce thyrogobulin and fills the follicle.

Then Iodine enters the cell from the outside.

Iodine then binds with the component of the thyrogobulin called tyrosine.

This binding causes T3/T4

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53
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperthyroidism or the overproduction of T3/T4?

A

Increase metabolic rate

Increase blood pressure/heart rate

Increase appetite/weight loss

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54
Q

What hormone does the parathyroid secrete?

A

PTH- parathyroid hormone.

This inreases calcium levels in the blood by promoting calcium reabsorbtion.

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55
Q

Describe the composition of the adrenal gland

A

Found on the superior poles of the kidneys.

Has two sections: Cortex - outer layer, Medulla - inner layer.

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56
Q

What does the adrenal medulla secrete?

A

Secretes the neurohormone epinephrine and norepinephrine.

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57
Q

What hormone is produced by the Zona glomerulosa layer of the adrenal cortex?

A

Mineralocorticoids: increase the rate of sodium reabsorption by the kidneys.

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58
Q

What hormone is produced by the Zona fasciculata layer of the adrenal cortex?

A

Glucocorticoids: increases fat and protein breakdown.

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59
Q

What hormone is produced by the Zona reticularis layer of the adrenal cortex?

A

Androgens: Stimulate pubic and axillary hair growth.

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60
Q

Describe the structure and function of the pancreas

A

Located along the small instestine and stomach.

Has a dual function as both an endocrine and exocrine gland.

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61
Q

How is the pancreas an exocrine gland?

A

It secretes digestive juices into the small intestine to break down food that did not fully digest in the stomach.

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62
Q

What are the three hormones secretes by the pancreas?

A

Alpha Cells: Secrete glucagon

Beta Cells: Secrete Insulin

Delta Cells: Secrete somatostatin

63
Q

What is the function of the insulin produced by the pancreas’ beta cells?

A

Increases the absorption of glucose and makes the cells use the sugar for energy. Keeps the blood sugar stabilized.

64
Q

What is the function of the glucagon produced by the pancreas’ alpha cells?

A

Causes the breakdown of the secondary storages areas for sugar glycogen and fats. Uses it for energy.

65
Q

Describe Type I diabetes

A

Insulin Depending Diabetes Melatose

Pancreas not producing enough insulin

66
Q

Describe Type II diabetes

A

Non-Insulin Depending Diabetes Melatose

Receptors that are stimulated by insulin are not functioning properly

67
Q

What is the function of the blood?

A

Transport of nutrients and waste products and hormones and gases.

Maintenance of body temperature, Protection against different pathogens, Clot formation

68
Q

What is the composition of blood?

A

Plasma (55%)

Formed Elements (45%)

69
Q

What is the composition of blood plasma?

A

Consists of : 91% water + proteins and other components

70
Q

Describe red blood cells

A

Called erythrocytes.

Biconcave discs, anucleate, contain hemoglobin; transports oxygen and carbon dioxide

71
Q

Describe white blood cells

A

Called leukocytes

Two different types:

Granulocytes: cytoplasm contains large granules; have multi-lobed nuclei

Agranulocytes: cytoplasm contains small granules and nuclei that are not lobed

72
Q

What are the five hemocytoblasts and what do they eventually form into?

A

Proerythroblasts: Develop into red blood cells

Myeloblasts: Develop into basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils (granulocytes)

Lymphoblasts: Develop into lymphocytes

Monoblasts: Develop into monocytes

Megakaryoblasts: Develop into platelets

73
Q

What hormone stimulates red blood cell production and what organ produces it?

A

Erythropoietin

produced by kidneys in response to low blood O2 levels.

74
Q

What is the role of leukocytes?

A

Protect body against microorganisms and remove dead cells and debris.

75
Q

Which leukocyte is the marine of the immune system and is the first responder during damage and phagosizes bacteria and secretes lysozyme?

A

Neutrophil

76
Q

Which leukocytes enter damaged tissues and release histamine and heparin that promotes inflammation?

A

Basophil

77
Q

Which leukocyte enters the tissue during inflammatory response and is prevalant in allergic reactions?

A

Eosinophils

78
Q

Which leukocyte is responsible for antibody production and accounts for 20-25% of the white blood cells?

A

Lymphocytes

79
Q

What leukocyte becomes a macrophage after its job and breaks down antigens and presents them to lymphoctes?

A

Monocytes

80
Q

What are the two atrium’s of the heart?

A

Two upper chambers of heart.

Right Atrium: Receives Deoxygenated blood to heart from body.

Left Atrium: Receive blood from pulmonary veins, receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.

81
Q

What are the three major openings of the right atrium that receive blood?

A

Superior Vena Cava: Receives deoxygenated blood from upper body.

Inferior Vena Cava: Receives deoxygenated blood from lower body.

Coronary Sinus: Receives deoxygenated blood from the heart only.

82
Q

What are the two ventricles of the heart?

A

Two Lower Chambers of Heart

Right Ventricle: carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

Left Ventricle: Carries oxygenated blood to the aorta which supplies body.

83
Q

What type of blood is found in the right side of the heart (right atrium & right ventricle)?

A

Deoxygenated blood that is low in O2 and high in CO2

84
Q

What type of blood is found in the left side of the heart (left atrium & left ventricle)?

A

Oxygenated blood that is high in O2 and low in CO2

85
Q

What is the function of arteries?

A

Carry blood away from the heart to the body.

86
Q

What is the function of veins?

A

Carry blood toward the heart from the body.

87
Q

What are the two AV Valves found in the heart?

A

Tricuspid Valve: Separate R Atrium from R Ventricle.

Bicuspid Valve: Separate L Atrium from L Ventricle.

88
Q

What are the two semilunar valves?

A

Aortic Valve: Seperates Aorta from the Left Ventricle

Pulmonary Valve: Separates pulmonary trunk from right ventricle.

89
Q

What are the three layers of the heart tissue?

A

Epicardium: Smooth outer surface of the heart. Protects against friction during the hearts beating.

Myocardium: Thick middle layer. Only place that contains cardiac muscle. Responsible for contraction and pumping of heart

Endocardium: Innermost layer of heart. Reduces friction as blood passes through the heart.

90
Q

Describe the AV Valves?

A

AV valves prevent backflow of blood back into the atria. This valve separate the atrium and ventricles.

91
Q

Describe semilunar Valves?

A

Halfmoon valves that prevent bloodflow from major vessels back into the ventricles.

92
Q

Where is the SA Node and what is its function?

A

Found in the right atria near the entrance to the superior vena cava.

It functions as the natural pacemaker of the heart. It generates action potential and causes the atria of the heart to contract.

93
Q

What is the AV Node and what is its function?

A

Found below the SA node close to the right AV Valve.

Allows for the completion of the atrial contraction then after begins contraction of the ventricle.

94
Q

What are the three functions of the Lymphatic System?

A
  • Fluid Balance
  • Fat Absorption
  • Defense
95
Q

How does the lymphatic system regulate fluid balance?

A

Excess interstitial fluid enters lymphatic capillaries and becomes lymph. Small lymphatic vessels are embedded in our tissues and drains fluid to prevent swelling.

96
Q

What is the composition of lymph?

A

Water plus solutes from nutrients, gases, cells and proteins.

97
Q

What are the two lymph ducts and there function?

A

They drain tissues and move lymph into major veins.

Right Lymphatic Duct: Drains right side of head, right upper limbs and right thorax.

Thoracic Duct: Drains remainder of body.

98
Q

Which Lymphatic Duct is the largest?

A

Thoracic Duct because it drains the lower body tissues and the left side body tissues.

99
Q

What are tonsils?

A

Large groups of lymphatic nodules in the naso-pharynx and oral cavity

100
Q

What are the three groups of tonsils?

A

Palatine

Pharyngeal

Lingual

101
Q

Where do Pre-B cells mature?

A

In the red bone marrow before they are released into the blood.

102
Q

Where do Pre-T cells mature?

A

In the thymus then move into the blood.

103
Q

What do B and T cells do after they migrate into the blood?

A

They populate all lymphtic tissues and respond to infections.

104
Q

What areas are contained in the upper tract of the respiratory system?

A

Nose, Pharynx, Nasal Cavity,

105
Q

What areas are contained in the lower tract of the respiratory system?

A

Larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs and tubing of the lungs.

106
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

The common opening for digestive and respiratory systems

107
Q

What are the three regions of the pharynx?

A

Nasopharynx: Where the nasal cavity opens into the throat.

Oropharynx: Where the oral cavity opens into the throat.

Laryngopharynx: Epiglottis to esophagus.

108
Q

What type of cells are found in the nasopharynx?

A

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells. Secretes mucous.

109
Q

What type of cells are found in the oropharynx and laryngopharynx?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium. This protects the area from high levels of friction caused by passing food and drink.

110
Q

What two sections does the trachea divide into?

A

Left Primary Bronchi and Right Primary Bronchi

111
Q

What is the entire breakdown of the tracheobronchial tree?

A

Trachea –> L&R Primary Bronchi –> Secondary Bronchi –> Tertiary Bronchi –> Bronchioles –> Terminal Bronchioles

112
Q

Where is the site of gas exchange in the lungs found?

A

Alveoli

113
Q

What is the hilus?

A

The medial surface of the lungs where the bronchi and blood vessels enter the lung.

114
Q

What is the cavity that surrounds each lung?

A

Pleural Cavity

115
Q

What are the two “pleura”

A

Visceral Pleura: Adheres to the lung

Parietal Pleura: Adheres to the thoracic wall

116
Q

What structures make up the “GI Tract?”

A

Stomach and Instestines

117
Q

What organs and openings make up the Digestive System?

A

Mouth, Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach, Small Intestine, Large Instestine, Anus

118
Q

What are the 4 layers of the digestive tract tissue?

A

Mucosa

Submucosa

Muscularis

Serosa

119
Q

What are the 3 sublayers of the mucosa?

A

Mucous Epithelium

Lamina Propria

Muscularis Mucosae

120
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

Movement of material through the digestive tract.

121
Q

What are the two waves of peristalsis?

A

Wave of relaxation: Muscle relaxes in front of the bolus.

Wave of contraction: Muscle contracts behind the bolus to move it forward.

122
Q

What are the two sets of teeth?

A

Deciduous: “baby teeth”

Permanent: adult teeth that replace baby teeth between 5-11 years.

123
Q

How many teeth are found in the deciduous teeth set?

A

20

124
Q

How many teeth are found in the permanent teeth set?

A

32

125
Q

What are the 4 types of teeth?

A

Incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

126
Q

What are the two openings into the stomach?

A

Gastroesophageal (cardiac): upper opening from esophagus to stomach.

Pyloric: lower opening from stomach to duodenum.

127
Q

What are the main parts of the stomach (4)?

A

Cardiac: superior opening into stomach.

Fundus: superior rounded area of stomach.

Body: Largest part of stomach.

Pylorus: funnel shaped area which controls movement out of the stomach.

128
Q

What are the two curvatures of the stomach?

A

Greater and Lesser curvatures.

129
Q

What are the two sphincters of the stomach?

A

Cardiac: Part of lower esophagus.

Pyloric: Between lower stomach and small intestine.

130
Q

Where in the digestive system is the greatest amount of digestion and absorption of nutrients?

A

Small Intestine

131
Q

Where is the major site of nutrient absorption in the intestines?

A

Jejunum and Ileum

132
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A

To store bile and release it

133
Q

What are the cells that make up the liver called and what are their functions?

A

Hepatocytes

Bile production, detox, phagocytosis.

134
Q

What are the three divisions of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum: First 10 inches of small intestine

Jejunum

Ileum

135
Q

Where is bile produced and stored?

A

Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the gallbladder.

136
Q

What makes up the large intestine?

A

Consists of cecum, colon, rectum, anal canal

137
Q

What is absorbed in the large intestine?

A

Water, salt, vitamins and medicine.

138
Q

What are the two sphincters of the large intestine?

A

Internal anal sphincter: Involuntary control, smooth muscle

External anal sphincter: Voluntary control, skeletal muscle.

139
Q

What four organs and vessels make up the Urinary System?

A

Kidney

Ureter

Urinary Bladder

Urethra

140
Q

What are the 4 functions of the urinary system?

A

Filter blood
Regulation of blood volume, ph, solutes

Synthesis of Vitamin D

Synthesis of Erythropoietin

141
Q

What is the function of the ureters?

A

Brings urine from renal pelvis to urinary bladder.

142
Q

What is the function of the urinary bladder?

A

Stores urine in its hollow muscular container.

143
Q

What is the trigone?

A

Triangular area between the entry of the two ureters and the exit of the urethra.

144
Q

What is the function of the urethra?

A

Muscular tube that transports urine to the outside of the body.

145
Q

What are the 4 parts of the nephron?

A

Bowman’s capsule – capsule that surrounds the glomerulus.

Proximal Tubule

Distal Tubule

Loop of Henle

146
Q

What are the two different types of nephrons?

A

Juxtamedullary Nephron: has a loop of henle that extend deep into the medulla.

Cortical Nephron: has a loop of henle that stays nearer to the cortex.

147
Q

What is the structure of the filtration membrane within the bowman’s capsule?

A

Where the wall of the capillaries are up against the walls of the podocyte. Capillary Endothelium & Podocyte of B-Cells.

148
Q

What are the three processes in urine formation?

A

Glomerulal Filtration (GF): Movement of material between capillaries and bowman’s capsule.

Tubular Reabsoption (TR): Reabsorbs materials back into blood if there was too much taken.

Tubular Secretion (TS): Checks if something was left behind that wasn’t absorbed from blood.

149
Q

What is the first stage of urine formation

A

Occurs when fluid from blood in capillaries move across the filtration membrane into the lumen of the bowman’s capsule through the capillaries smal fenestrae or pores.

150
Q

What are the anatomical differences between the right and left kidney?

A

Right kidney is slightly lower because liver pushes it down.

Left kidney is slightly longer and bigger.

151
Q

What is the renal capsule?

A

The fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the entire organ of the kidney.

152
Q

What is the function of the renal fascia?

A

It anchors the kidneys to surrounding adipose tissue and the abdominal wall.

153
Q

What is he development of egg cells?

A

Oogenia

Primary oocytes

Secondary oocytes

Ovum

154
Q

What is the development of sperm cells?

A

Spermatogonia

Primary spermocytes

Secondary spermocytes

Spermatids

Sperm cells