Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

YR2 - Clinical Pathology > 9. Soft tissue (MSK) > Flashcards

9. Soft tissue (MSK) Flashcards

1
Q

What structures are affected in soft tissue tumours

A

Non-epithelial extra-skeletal structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Soft tissue tumours originate from what?

A

Mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common soft tissue tumour?

A

Benign tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the malignant soft tissue tumour called?

A

Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 1 is a type of what soft tissue?

A

Neurofibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Gardner syndrome has what type of soft tissue tumour?

A

Fibromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Carney syndrome has what type of soft tissue tumour?

A

Myxoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Turner syndrome has what type of soft tissue tumour?

A

Cystic hygroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A benign cartilage tumour

A

Chondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Osteosarcomas are commonly found where?

A

Knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What syndrome is associated with systemic sclerosis

A

CREST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is associated with polymyalgia Rheumatica

A

Giant cell arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Myopathy definition

A

Muscle disease not affected by neuromuscular junction // innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Myositis definition

A

Inflammation of muscle fibres + overlying skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Malignant hyperthermia presents itself especially during what?

A

Px under general anaesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dark brown urine is indicative of what?

what is the medical term?

A

Destruction of skeletal muscle

Myoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most common type of joint disease

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of structure is formed in osteoarthritis?

A

Bony spurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

give 2 examples of secondary osteoarthritis causes

A

Basketball players

Baseball players

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of cysts form in osteoarthritis

A

Subchondral cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of cell is found in osteoarthritis?

What does it do

A

Chondrocytes => IL-1 => Matrix breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prostaglandins found in osteoarthritis do what?

A

Prevent matrix synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of synovitis is produced in Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Non suppurative proliferative synovitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Synoviocyte hyperplasia =>

A

Pannus

** found in RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the Pannus erode into in RA?

A

Subchondral bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is ankylosis?

What disease is this found in?

A

Fusion of bones ==> RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What viruses are associated with RA?

A

EBV /// Borrelia (Lyme disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is a good diagnosis of RA?

A

Detection of neutrophils in synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tophi is the formation of what?

A

Crystallization of urates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hyperuricemia is the end product of what?

A

Purine Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Secondary Osteoporosis is caused by what?

A

Endocrine disorders

=> Hyper PTH // DDM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Paget’s disease is caused by what (virally)?

A

Paramyxovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What hallmark is found in Paget’s disease?

A

Mosaic pattern of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hyperparathyroidism leads to what (calcium)

A

Hypercalcaemia

***PTH released in low Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Subacute dermatitis has what type of exudate?

A

Reduced amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acute dermatitis has what type of exudate?

A

Weeping excudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Chronic dermatitis has what type of hyperplasia present?

What does the skin feel like

A

Epidermal Hyperplasia

Leathery

38
Q

Atopic Eczema is what type of hypersens?

39
Q

Contact allergic dermatitis is what type of hypersens?

40
Q

What genes are involved in psoriaasis?

Chromosomes?

A

PSORS genes

6p2

41
Q

Lichen Planus is what type of hypersens?

42
Q

Lupus Erythematosus affects what?

A

Connective tissue

43
Q

Discoid Lupus Vs Systemic Lupus

A

Discoid ==> Skin only

Systemic ==> Visceral w/skin

44
Q

Dermatomyositis has what type of rash present

A

Heliotropic rash

45
Q

Pemphigus has a loss of cohesion between what?

What type of blister is formed?

A

No cohesion between keratinocytes

Intraepidermal blister

46
Q

What type of blister is formed in Bullous Pemphigoid

A

Sub epidermal blister

47
Q

What type of blister ruptures easily

A

Intraepidermal blister => Rupture easily

Sub-epidermal blister => Hard to rupture

48
Q

Dermatitis Herpetiformis is associated with what disease?

A

Coeliac disease

49
Q

What is the most common malignant skin tumour?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

50
Q

A rodent ulcer is associated with what carcinoma

A

Basal cell carcinoma

51
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma causes are associated with what? (2)

A

Sun exposed

Exposure to hydrocarbons

52
Q

Melanocytes originate from what? (embro)

A

Neural crest

53
Q

Are Naevi benign

A

Yes

Benign collection of melanocytes

54
Q

What type of mutations are present in melanomas

55
Q

Gardasil = >

A

HPV vaccine

56
Q

what type of HPV causes cancers

57
Q

Pilonidal cysts are associated with what

A

Ingrowing of hair

58
Q

What part of the skin layers are affected in cellulitis

A

Dermis + Subcutaenous fat => Lymphatics

59
Q

Type 1 Necrotising fasciitis is associated with what type of bac?

A

Gram Negative

60
Q

Type 2 Necrotising fasciitis is associated with what type of bac?

A

Group A strep

61
Q

Type 3 Necrotising fasciitis is associated with what type of bac?

A

Vibrio Vulnificus

62
Q

Crepitus is associated with what type of gangrene?

A

Gas gangrene

63
Q

Spirochete =>

What is it associated with (disease)

A

Spiral shaped bacteria

Syphilis

64
Q

primary syphilis key hallmark?

A

Chancre

=> Painless ulcer at point of contact

65
Q

papilloma =>

A

Benign epithelial tumour

66
Q

Nasal Polyps are triggered by what?

A

Allergic irritation or infection

67
Q

Samter’s triad

What is it associated with (what condition)

A

Nasal polyps // Asthma // Aspirin Intolerance

Nasal Polyps

68
Q

In nasal polyps, what is the predominant cell type in an infectious cause?

And in an allergic type?

A

Neutrophils => Infection

Eosinophils => Allergic

69
Q

Wickham striae is generally found in what condition?

A

Oral lichen planus

70
Q

Epiglottis cause

A

Haemophillis influenza type B

71
Q

Vocal cord poylps // nodules can be caused by what trauma?

What nodes form?

A

Phonatory trauma

Singers nodes

72
Q

Sialadenitis =>

A

Infection of the salivary gland

73
Q

Bacterial sialandenitis occurs in people with what?

A

Xerostomia (Dry mouth)

74
Q

Viral sialadenitis occurs in people with what?

75
Q

Ranula ->

Where does it generally affect (structure / part)

A

Mucous retention cyst

Floor of mouth

76
Q

Majority of salivary neoplasms are what?

What gland does it affect

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

Parotid gland

77
Q

Warthin tumour

Malignant or benign?

78
Q

Majority of malignant neoplasms in oral cavity are what?

A

Oral squamous cell carcinoma

79
Q

Where do oral squamous cell carcinomas affect the most?

Where do they least affect?

A

Lower lip => Most common

Uvula => Least common

80
Q

What side is genearlly affected in laryngeal cancer?

A

Unilateral in larynx

81
Q

Common symptom of laryngeal cancer?

A

hoarseness of voice

82
Q

salmon pink scaly plaque = ?

83
Q

keratin layer + nodule could indicate what kinda of carcinoma?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

84
Q

central depression, pearly appearance, telangiectasia are characteristic of what?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

85
Q

laryngeal dysplasia 2 predisposing factors =>

A

tobacco

alcohol

86
Q

how much of the population is affected by psoriasis?

87
Q

commonest malignant tumour, which only very rarely metastasizes?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

88
Q

type of testing is commonly used in diagnosing soft tissue tumours?

A

Cytogenetic

89
Q

most common salivary gland tumour location

90
Q

does prostate gland metastasis spread to bone?

91
Q

RB mutation is associated with what

A

retinoblastoma

YR2 - Clinical Pathology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions