9) Maternal Medicine: Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Prevalence of epilepsy in pregnancy

A

0.5-1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Percentage of WWE in reproductive age group

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can women be considered “no longer epileptic”?

A

If 10 years seizure free (5 of those off medication) or if childhood seizures but have reached adulthood without seizures or treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Women with which type of seizures are highest risk for SUDEP

A

Tonic-clinic seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rate of congenital malformations in WWE (including on AED)

A
Unmediated: 2.8% (comparable to background risk)
Medicated: 4-10% risk
   - Levetiracetam 1-2%
   - Lamotrigine 2-5% (Dose dependent)
   - Carbemazepine 3.4%
   - Valproate 10%
   - Polypharmacy 17%
17% risk if previous child affected by AED congenital malformation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Types of congenital malformations

A

Valproate - NTD, orofacial cleft, hypospadias, poor cognition and neurodevelopment (learning difficulties and autism)

Lamotrigine: Cardiac defects + clefts.
Levetiracetam: Cardiac defects + NTD
These have a lower risk of cognitive problems than SV.

Carbamazepine & Phenytoin - Cardiac/Cleft
Phenobarbital - Cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When should folic acid be used?

A

5mg 3/12 pre-conception and at least until end of first trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What proportion of patients will remain seizure free throughout pregnancy?

A

67% seizure free.
As high as 74-92% if seizure free for 9-12m pre-conception.
Generalised seizures 74%, focal seizures 60%.

(17% will have improved control, 17% worsened control)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Risk of child having epilepsy

A

4-5% if one parent affected.
15-20% if both parents affected.
10% if previous child affected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Advice re: AED dosing

A

Drug levels likely to fall in pregnancy (lamotrigine can fall by up to 70%). No role for routine level checking but need to consider clinical symptoms and likely increase dose in pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which infants should receive vitamin K?

A

Mothers on anti-epileptic drugs - 1mg vitamin K IM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should WWE be delivered?

A

No indication for early delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Risk of seizure intrapartum

A

1-2% risk in labour
1-2% risk in first 24 hours postpartum
(Overall risk 3.5%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can be used prophylactically for women at high risk of seizures in labour?

A

Clobazam orally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What percentage of pregnancies are complicated by status epileptics?

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of seizures in pregnancy/labour

A

If IV access: 4mg lorazepam or 5-10mg diazepam.
If no IV access: 10-20mg rectal diazepam, 10mg buccal midazolam.
If not resolving: 10-15mg/kg phenytoin.

If persistent uterine hypertonic - tocolytic.
If not resolved after 5 minutes then expedite delivery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Risk of PND in WWE

A

29%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Contraception in WWE

A

If enzyme inducing drug (carbamazepine, phenytoin, topimarate, phenobarbitals, primidone) - either depot or coil (Mirena or copper).

If non-enzyme inducing drug then any method.

Lamotrigine levels are reduced by oestrogen containing contraceptives therefore avoid those or increase dose.

Emergency contraception - if enzyme inducer then copper coil or double dose LNG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In what percentage of pregnancies are AEDs used?

A

1 in 200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What percentage of WWE will deliver a healthy baby?

A

96%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Risk of mortality in WWE compared to general population

A

10 x higher

60 per 100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is fetal harm from AEDs highest?

A

1st trimester for congenital malformations. 3rd trimester for cognitive impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Risk of SGA in WWE taking AEDs

A

2 x higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Other risks of epilepsy in pregnancy

A
Miscarriage
APH
Hypertension
IOL
CS
PTB
PPH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which are the first line AEDs in people with generalised epilepsy syndromes?

A

Lamotrigine and Levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Breastfeeding in epilepsy

A

Yes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is SUDEP?

A

Death unrelated to trauma/drowning/status epileptics.

Main cause of death in WWE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Incidence of SUDEP

A

On Lamotrigine: 2.5 per 1000 pt years

On other AEDs: 0.5-1 per 1000 pt years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In SCI, percentage of worsening spasticity?

A

12%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In SCI, treatment of spasticity

A

Intrathecal baclofen

Oral oxybutynin can be used for bladder spasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What percentage of women with SCI conceive post injury?

A

14%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what level of SCI is a ventilation assessment in pregnancy advised?

A
Above T4
(Vital capacity <12-15ml/kg requires mechanical ventilation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

At what level of SCI is there a risk of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Above T6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

At what level of SCI is there a risk of late PTL, altered perception of FM and inability to feel labour pains?

A

Above T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What percentage of patients with SCI have PTL?

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

At what level of SCI is there an increased risk of malpresentation?

A

Above T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Above what level of SCI is there a risk of scarring in epidural space affecting analgesia?

A

Above L2-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What percentage of patients with SCI have their mobility limited further by pregnancy?

A

4.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the effect of SCI on congenital malformations and stillbirths?

A

Not increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the recommended mode of delivery for patients with SCI?

A

Vaginal delivery unless concerns re: cephalopelvic disproportion.
- If SCI at young age or pelvic trauma then clinical pelvimetry recommended and likely CS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Is admission recommended in patients with SCI?

A

Recommended late in 3rd trimester to avoid unattended delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the effect of SCI on VTE risk?

A
  • First 6 months are SCI risk is increased, after this it reverts to normal.
  • Score “1” on VTE for immobility in chronic SCI.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens in autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Any noxious stimuli below level of lesion isn’t modulated by the brain and so sympathetic system goes crazy!

Hypertension –> Vagal stimulation –> Bradycardia

Life threatening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia

A

Nausea, anxiety, malaise, prickling sensation in skull, ringing in head, throbbing headache.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treatment of autonomic dysreflexia

A

Removal of noxious stimuli.

Medical treatment: SL nifedipine, GTN patch/spray, Nitroglycerine ointment, Labetalol/Hydralazine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Who needs an epidural in SCI?

A

Should be recommended early in labour for people with lesion above T6 to prevent AD.
Can be used as an option for analgesia for others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What level is sensory supply from uterus?

A

L1-T11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What level is cervical dilatation perceived at?

A

T11/T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Rules for suprapubic catheter and CS

A

Change catheter in 24 hours prior to surgery
Incision 2cm above suprapubic catheter
Use non-absorbable sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Breastfeeding in SCI

A

Yes! Initiation may be delayed if SCI above T4 (may require visual stimulation or oxytocin nasal spray)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Risks of spinal cord injury occurring during pregnancy

A

Increased rates of miscarriage and congenital anomalies (secondary to hypoxia from spinal shock).
Direct trauma to uterus from compression can cause injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MS is more common in men or women?

A

2-3 x more common in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mean age of onset of MS

A

30 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What proportion of women with MS will develop during their reproductive years?

A

50%

55
Q

Incidence of MS

A

1 in 330

56
Q

What percentage of people with MS have an affected family member?

A

80%

57
Q

Risk of MS based on family history

A
1 in 67 if one affected parent
20% if both parents affected or monozygotic twin
10% if one parent and one sibling
5% if dizygotic twin
2.7% if one affected sibling
58
Q

What are the types of MS and which are most common?

A

85% is relapsing and remitting
10-15% primary progressive
Secondary progressive

59
Q

Effect of pregnancy on MS relapses

A
  • Less likely to relapse during pregnancy
  • 20-30% relapse rate in 3-4m postpartum
  • Relapses occur less often in parous women
  • Pregnancy after MS onset associated with lower risk of progression

Overall pregnancy does not alter risk of MS or long term progression.

60
Q

Epidural in MS?

A

Can do! No effect on risk of relapse.

61
Q

Breastfeeding in MS?

A

Yes! Beneficial - reduces risk of relapse 3 x

62
Q

Effect of MS on fertility/reproduction

A

No effect on fertility although lower AMH
Higher frequency of voluntary childlessness and TOP (20% v 12%)
ART (particularly unsuccessful attempts or agonist protocols) associated with increased relapse rate of 7 x in the 3/12 following.

63
Q

Percentage of women with MS with sexual dysfunction

A

30-70%

64
Q

Effect of MS on miscarriage, stillbirth, congenital abnormality, perinatal mortality, antenatal hospital admissions, CS and instrumental delivery?

A

None of the fetal risks are increased.

Antenatal admission, CS and instrumental are increased.

65
Q

Effect of MS on PTB

A

Increased

66
Q

Effect of MS on FGR

A

1.7 x increased risk

67
Q

Which drugs can be continued until conception?

A

Interferon and glatiramer

68
Q

Which drugs can be used in pregnancy?

A

Steroids

Some women with severe disease may continue natalizumab which crosses placenta after 2nd trimester and can cause SGA/haematological abnormalities (but not miscarriage/congenital abnormalities).

69
Q

Growth scans in MS?

A

Yes please

70
Q

Mode of delivery in MS

A

Vaginal delivery safe

If severe neurological problems likely planned CS

71
Q

Lifetime risk of stroke

A

1/6

72
Q

Incidence of stroke in pregnancy (and compare rate to general population)

A

30 in 100,000 (3 x compared to normal population)

73
Q

When do the majority of strokes in pregnancy occur?

A

90% peripartum or in 6 weeks postpartum

74
Q

Mortality associated with stroke in pregnancy

A

10-20% (14% haemorrhage, 3% ischaemic)

75
Q

Residual disability associated with stroke in pregnancy

A

50% Haemorrhagic

33% Ischaemic

76
Q

What percentage of strokes are ischaemic/haemorrhagic/venous thrombus?

A

1/3 for each

77
Q

Which symptoms are more common with haemorrhage stroke?

A

Headache, reduced consciousness, nausea & vomiting

78
Q

Investigations for stroke in pregnancy

A

Imaging:

  • MRI first line in pregnancy if QUICK
  • If not quick, non-contrast CT scan (5% background radiation for fetus - not a concern)
  • CT angiogram for occlusions

Detecting cause:

  • ECG/24h tape
  • Echo
  • Doppler of carotid and vertebral artery
  • Consider thrombophilia screening
79
Q

Management of ischaemic stroke in pregnancy

A

Intravenous thrombolysis (recombinant tissue plasminogen activator)

  • pregnancy relative contraindication
  • major surgery in last 2/52 relative contraindication
80
Q

What is the risk of haemorrhage transformations after thrombolysis for ischaemic stroke?

A

2-6%

81
Q

Treatment of haemorrhagic stroke

A

Haemostasis
Correction of coagulopathy
BP control
VTE prevention

82
Q

What proportion of strokes are recurrent strokes?

A

25-30%

83
Q

Mode of delivery after stroke

A

No evidence that CS safer

84
Q

Risk of stroke recurrence

A

2% in future pregnancy
0.5% outside of pregnancy
In presence of thrombophilia 20%

85
Q

Incidence of cerebral venous thrombosis

A

1 in 5000

86
Q

Greatest risk of CVT

A

3rd trimester to 4 weeks postpartum

87
Q

Presentation of CVT

A

Headache, papilloedema, focal neurological deficits, reduced consciousness, seizures

88
Q

Diagnosis of CVT

A

MRI

89
Q

Treatment of CVT

A

Anticoagulation 6 months

Follow up MRI after 6 months

90
Q

Most common site for CVT

A

Sagittal sinus with extension into cortical veins or primary thrombosis of cortical veins.

91
Q

Most common prodromal symptom prior to seizure in PET

A

Headache

92
Q

What percentage of headaches are migraine or tension?

A

> 90%

93
Q

Effect of pregnancy on idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

Worsens during pregnancy

94
Q

Describe the headache of IIH

A
  • Throbbing, retrobulbar
  • Worse with coughing/straining
  • Worse with eye movements
  • Associated visual disturbances, diplopia
  • Associated N/V
  • Papilloedema
  • Visual field defect with enlarged blind spot
  • 10% pseudo-localising sign of sixth nerve palsy (can’t look out)
95
Q

Diagnosis of IIH

A

Abnormally elevated CSF pressure (>25cmH20) with normal CSF constituents measured in lateral position.

96
Q

Treatment of idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A
Monitor visual fields and acuity
Limit weight gain
Therapeutic LP
Acetazolamide
(Can use loop diuretics, avoid thiazide diuretics, can use steroids, can consider surgical/shunts)
97
Q

In what percentage of epidurals does a dural puncture occur?

A

0.5-2.5%

98
Q

If dural puncture occurs, what is likelihood of headache?

A

70-80%

99
Q

Describe the headache of dural puncture

A

Fronto-occipital into neck, worse on standing and occurring 24-48h postpartum.

100
Q

How long does dural puncture headache last if managed conservatively?

A

7-10d but can be up to 6 weeks

101
Q

Cure rate with epidural blood patch

A

60-90%

102
Q

When does posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES) occur?

A

In association with PET

103
Q

Headache of PRES

A

Headache, vomiting, visual disturbances, seizures and altered mental state.

104
Q

Radiological findings in PRES

A

Oedema posterior circulation of brain

105
Q

Management of PRES

A

As for severe PET

106
Q

Headache associated with reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome

A

Recurrent severe sudden onset headaches over period of 1-3 weeks. Often with nausea/vomiting/photophobia/confusion/blurred vision.

107
Q

When does reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome occur?

A

Postpartum period

108
Q

Imaging findings in reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome

A

Diffuse arterial beading on angiography with resolution over 1-3 months

109
Q

Effect of pregnancy on migraines

A

Usually reduces frequency and severity

110
Q

Management of migraine

A

Analgesia, anti-emetics.
2nd line sumatriptan.
Prophylaxis: Propranolol or low dose amitryptiline.

111
Q

Increased risk of PET in patients with migraine

A

2 x

112
Q

Which women improve/worsen/stable with MG in pregnancy?

A

40% worsen, 30% stable, 30% improve.

113
Q

When are MG relapses most common?

A

First trimester or postpartum

114
Q

Effect of MG on obstetric outcomes

A

None! No increase in risk of miscarriage, PET, CS, FGR or PTB.

115
Q

Effect of MG on labour

A

Doesn’t affect first stage may affect 2nd stage.

116
Q

Mode of delivery for MG

A

Vaginal delivery recommended

117
Q

Epidural for MG

A

Yes, recommended (avoid GA and opiates)

118
Q

Risk of transient neonatal MG from antibodies

A

10-30%

119
Q

What drug can’t you have with MG in PTL?

A

Magnesium

120
Q

Treatment for MG

A

Pyridostigmine (anti-cholinesterase inhibitor)
Steroids
Tacrolimus/ciclosporin
IVIG or plasmapheresis if acute crisis

121
Q

When does neonatal MG present and resolve?

A

Presents within 4d and resolved within 4 weeks

122
Q

What percentage of patients with MG have thymoma?

A

15%

123
Q

Baseline investigations for patient with MG

A

Baseline motor strength
Pulmonary function
ECG
Thyroid function

124
Q

Proportion of patients with MG with thyroid dysfunction

A

10-15%

125
Q

Incidence of Bells palsy

A

45 in 100000

126
Q

When does Bells palsy occur?

A

3rd trimester or immediate postpartum

127
Q

Increase in risk of Bells palsy with PIH/PET

A

4 x more likely

128
Q

Treatment of Bells palsy

A

Steroids if within 72h of onset

129
Q

How common is Carpal tunnel?

A

25%

130
Q

What proportion of women with Carpal tunnel have bilateral symptoms?

A

75%

131
Q

What percentage of women with Carpal tunnel have residual symptoms postnatally?

A

15%

132
Q

Treatment of Carpal tunnel

A

Wrist splints

Local steroid injection

133
Q

What causes paraesthesia meralgia?

A

Stretching and compression lateral femoral cutaneous nerve under inguinal ligament.
Occurs third trimester but can be precipitated by protracted labour. Sx exaggerated by standing/walking.