801-1000 Flashcards

1
Q

On the psychosocial stressor scale, what factor receives the highest rating?

A

Death of a spouse

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2
Q

What is the term for the biologic predisposition to be sensitive to particular stimuli and to associate them with an unconditioned stimulus?

A

Preparedness

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3
Q

In what somatoform disorder with two subtypes does the patient experiences pain in a body part without any discernible organic cause (One subtype is associated with psychological factors, and the other with both physical and psychological factors.)?

A

Pain disorder

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4
Q

In what type of somatoform disorder does a person have an unrealistically negative evaluation of some aspect of his or her personal appearance?

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

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5
Q

At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?

A

Phallic stage (4 to 6 years)

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6
Q

True or false-only men have sexual refractory periods?

A

True-some women can have multiple successive orgasms without a break.

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7
Q

What is the term for involuntary vulgar or obscene utterances?

A

Coprolalia (seen 30% of the time as a feature of Tourette’s syndrome)

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8
Q

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: See death as irreversible?

A

Concrete operations (6 to 12 years)

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9
Q

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: Have abstract thinking?

A

Formal operations ( > 12 years)

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10
Q

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: Lack law of conservation and are egocentric?

A

Preoperational (2 to 6 years)

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11
Q

What hormone is inhibited by sleep?

A

TSH

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12
Q

With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated?

A

REM

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13
Q

With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?

A

Stage 4-they are not remembered

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14
Q

What percentage of patients with HIV have AIDS dementia complex before death?

A

70% to 95%

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15
Q

What is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Dementia, gait apraxia, and urinary incontinence

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16
Q

What category of symptoms of schizophrenia associated with muscarinic receptors include affective flattening, social withdrawal, apathy, anhedonia, poverty of thought and of content of speech, and lack of interest?

A

Negative symptoms (type II)

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17
Q

In biostatistics, what type of error is due to chance?

A

Random error

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18
Q

Dementia is associated with a decrease in what neurotransmitter in the amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal neocortex?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

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19
Q

Name the incurable disease affecting adults which is a spongiform encephalopathy caused by a prion ; is fatal usually within 1 year of onset; results in cortical and cerebellar atrophy; and is characterized by a rapidly progressive dementia?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

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20
Q

What disease, occurring in patients approximately 40 years of age, is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance associated with chromosome 4, atrophied caudate nucleus, choreoathetoid movements, and progressive dementia?

A

Huntington’s chorea

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21
Q

What DSM-IV axis II diagnosis would the following patient fulfill: perfectionist, male, first born, preoccupied with rules, harsh discipline upbringing, lacks sense of humor, inflexible, miserly?

A

Obsessive-compulsive

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22
Q

What symptoms of schizophrenia associated with dopamine receptors include delusions, hallucinations, and agitation?

A

Positive symptoms (type I)

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23
Q

In biostatistics, what type of error has unanticipated factors that obscure the relationship and cause a bias?

A

Confounding error

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24
Q

What is the most frequently occurring value in a set?

A

Mode

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25
What is the difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a set?
Range
26
What type of study has diffusional effects if you separate the groups and test the entire population?
Community trial
27
What type of study is under the greatest possible degree of control of the investigator?
Experimental study
28
In what type of skew is the tail to the right and the mean greater than the median?
Positive skew
29
In what type of error is the null hypothesis rejected when it is true?
Type I error (alpha error)
30
If the P-value is less than or equal to .05, what do you do to the null hypothesis?
Reject it
31
What is the single best predictor of suicide?
Previous suicide attempt
32
What is the leading cause of death in men between the ages of 25 and 44 years of age?
AIDS
33
What is the foremost cause of cancer death in both men and women?
Lung cancer
34
What are the top three causes of infant mortality?
1. Birth defects 2. Low birth weight 3. SIDS
35
What is the most common form of sexually transmitted disease (STD)?
Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
36
What is the primary cause of injury to American women?
Domestic abuse
37
What is the leading cause of preventable mental retardation?
Fetal alcohol syndrome
38
What is the most abused drug for people of all ages?
Alcohol
39
What is the most common bacterial STD?
Chlamydia trachomatis infection
40
How many teenagers become pregnant each year?
1,000,000
41
What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?
Disulfiram
42
Which drug is used to treat opiate withdrawal, attention deficit hyperactive disorder (ADHD), and sometimes Tourette's syndrome?
Clonidine
43
Which drug is used to treat the respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?
Naloxone or naltrexone
44
Which opioid agonist, more addictive than heroin, is used in the treatment of heroin dependence?
Methadone
45
What type of reinforcement strengthens each response and involves fast learning and fast extinction?
Continuous reinforcement
46
According to operant conditioning theory, what type of reinforcement is occurring in avoidance behaviors such as phobias and compulsive rituals?
Negative reinforcement
47
What form of learning occurs when, for example, a child watches her mother react in fear to a snake, and learns to be afraid of snakes?
Modeling or observational learning
48
What is the term for silently removing a reinforcement without the patient's awareness?
Fading
49
What is the name of the technique used to treat avoidance or obsessive-compulsive behaviors, in which patients are gradually confronted with the objects or situations they fear?
Exposure
50
In what type of conditioning is the stimulus that produces a deviant behavior paired with an unpleasant stimulus?
Aversive conditioning
51
What is the term for removal of a stimulus in order to stop a behavior?
Extinction
52
True or false according to social learning theory, people who believe that luck, chance, or the actions of others control their fate have an internal locus of control?
False-these beliefs are characteristic of people with an external locus of control.
53
Which IQ test is used for children between 4 and 6 years of age?
Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI)
54
What is the most widely used projective test?
Rorschach ink blot test
55
What is the range of the low-average IQ?
80 to 89
56
What term describes the ability of a test to measure something consistently?
Reliability
57
What is the name of the most widely used personality test consisting of 550 true/ false questions, in which the overall score is more important than an evaluation on an individual scale?
Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
58
What was the first formal IQ test, which is used for persons 2 to 18 years of age, proves best for children who are 6 years of age, and is used for the very bright or the impaired?
Stanford-Binet scale
59
What is the range of the borderline IQ?
70 to 79
60
What court case states that a woman has a right to privacy and to abort a fetus?
Roe v. Wade
61
If short-term memory and long-term memory are spared, but new learning is impaired, what is the location of the lesion?
Medial temporal lobe lesion
62
What is the term for return to an earlier stage of development?
Regression
63
What is the defense mechanism in which the person perceives his or her unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or impulses as belonging to another person?
Projection
64
What four characteristics define the sick role?
1. Exempt from normal responsibilities 2. Not to blame for the illness 3. Obligated to get well 4. Obligated to seek help
65
What is the defense mechanism in which a patient projects his or her thoughts, feelings, or wishes onto the physician or therapist?
Transference
66
What is the term for the state of being arrested in a stage of development?
Fixation
67
According to Freud, what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals and values of one's parents?
Superego
68
What term refers to acting out the reverse of an unacceptable behavior?
Undoing
69
What is the defense mechanism which involves "unconscious forgetting"?
Repression
70
In psychoanalytic theory, which mature defense mechanism uses comedy to express feelings and thoughts without causing personal discomfort?
Humor
71
Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression (instincts) associated?
Id
72
What is the term for: Wasting away due to malnutrition?
Cachexia
73
What is the term for: Sexual energy?
Cathexis
74
What is the term for: A purging of emotions?
Catharsis
75
Which defense mechanism involves preparation for future events?
Anticipation
76
What term describes conscious forgetting?
Suppression
77
What is the term for the mature defense mechanism whereby one helps others with no apparent expectation of help in return?
Altruism
78
What five qualities in an object attract a newborn's attention?
1. Largeness 2. Brightness 3. Contrasts 4. Curves 5. Complex design
79
What type of depression can occur in an infant if there is prolonged separation from the primary caregiver?
Anaclitic depression
80
School phobia can result from failure to resolve what?
Separation anxiety
81
At what stage of sleep do you see sleep spindles and K complexes on EEG?
Stage 2
82
What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?
Prolactin
83
Which stages of sleep decrease in length when a person grows older?
REM, non-REM, and total sleep time
84
What hormone increases at nighttime and is associated with seasonal affective disorder?
Melatonin
85
What are the five Kiibler-Ross stages of adjustment to dying?
1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance
86
What five things are checked in the APGAR test?
1. Sldn color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
87
A baby's smile at birth is known as what?
Endogenous smile
88
What is the term for a baby's fear of unfamiliar people that begins at about 6 months of age, peaks at about 8 months, and is usually gone at 12 months?
Stranger anxiety
89
What stage of sleep is assodated with theta waves and the disappearance of alpha waves?
Stage 1
90
At what stage of sleep is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) output elevated?
Stage 4
91
What is the most prevalent sexual disorder in men?
Secondary impotence
92
What is the term used when someone has sexual orientation distress?
Ego-dystonic sexual orientation
93
What is the name of the painful involuntary muscle contraction of the outer one third of the vagina?
Vaginismus
94
What is the term for inability to have an orgasm?
Anorgasmia (occurs in 35% of women)
95
What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain during intercourse?
Dyspareunia
96
What neurotransmitter produces arousal and wakefulness?
Dopamine
97
What hormone initiates sleep?
Serotonin
98
What hormone increases during REM sleep?
Acetylcholine (ACh)
99
What is the term for the lack of respiration during sleep?
Sleep apnea
100
What hormone decreases during REM sleep?
Norepinephrine (NE)
101
What are the four pathognomonic signs of narcolepsy?
1. Cataplexy 2. Sleep attacks 3. Sleep paralysis 4. Hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations (disorders of REM)
102
At what stage of sleep does bruxism (grinding of the teeth) occur?
Stage 2
103
What is an irrational fear called?
A phobia
104
What three laboratory tests are used to test for probable depression?
1. Test for decreased levels of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenlyglycol (MHPG), which is an NE metabolite 2. TRH stimulation test 3. Dexamethasone suppression test
105
What is the most common psychiatric illness in women, which presents as a vague feeling of apprehension or worrying accompanied by one or more body sensations?
Generalized anxiety disorder
106
An adult with a 2-year history of depressed mood, low energy, feelings of hopelessness, and low selfesteem, but with no major depressive episodes or manic episodes has what disorder?
Dysthymic disorder
107
What is the disorder in which the patient has concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and depression or mania?
Schizoaffective disorder
108
In statistics, what form of bias is at work when the experimenter's expectation induces results?
Pygmalion effect
109
Someone who is excessively shy, has a fear of rejection, and is socially isolated has what type of personality disorder?
Avoidant personality disorder
110
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who has a longstanding feeling of mistrust or suspicion, no hallucinations, no delusions, and no antisocial behavior?
Paranoid personality disorder
111
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who is uncomfortable not being the center of attention, is an attention seeker, and has seductive behavior that is colorful, dramatic, and extroverted?
Histrionic personality disorder
112
Name the personality disorders described below: A person who gets others to assume responsibility, has difficulty expressing disagreement, and often has an abusive spouse?
Dependent personality disorder
113
What type of seizure is associated with young children and involves a brief loss of consciousness with minor motor activity?
Petit mal (absence) seizure
114
What is the drug of choice for treatment of Petit Mal seizures?
Ethosuximide
115
What neurotransmitter is responsible for allergic conditions, and regulates emotions and acid secretions in the stomach?
Histamine
116
What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain?
Glutamic acid
117
What is the major neurotransmitter of sensory neurons for pain?
Substance P
118
Increased levels of what neurotransmitter, released from the raphe nuclei of the brain stem, is used to treat depression and also to regulate homeostasis?
Serotonin
119
What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opiates?
Enkephalins
120
What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with frontal and temporal lobe atrophy and is manifested primarily as dementia?
Pick's disease
121
What disease causes ceruloplasmin deficiency, hepatolenticular degeneration, and Kayser-Fleischer rings?
Wilson's disease
122
What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter to the spinal cord and the brain stem?
Glycine
123
The effect on a person's behavior caused by the act of being studied is called what?
Hawthorns effect
124
What type of bias is involved when you ask leading questions?
Sampling bias
125
What level of retardation is involved if a person has an IQ of 20 to 34 and cannot be trained but can learn basic habits?
Severe
126
What is the half-way point on the x-axis of a gaussian curve?
Median
127
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Sensitivity?
No change
128
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Specificity?
No change
129
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Positive predictive value?
Increases
130
As prevalence increases, what happens to: Negative predictive value?
Decreases
131
In medical screening, what is the term for: The proportion of individ uals with a positive test result for the disease that the test is intended to reveal?
Sensitivity
132
In medical screening, what is the term for: The total percentage of correctly identified subjects for what you are testing?
Accuracy
133
What rate is represented by the total number of cases divided by the population at risk?
Prevalence rate
134
What is the name for the type of study in which neither the investigator nor the subjects know which participants are receiving the placebo (i.e., the control group) and which are receiving the test drug?
Double-blind study
135
What is the term for the form of bias in which preconception leads to a biased interpretation?
Prejudice
136
What is the most scientifically rigorous study in which subjects in a population are randomly allocated into groups?
Randomized controlled study
137
In what form of trial is it unethical to withhold treatment from any specific group?
Crossover trial (e.g., azidothymidine [AZT] trials)
138
In what type of skew is the tail to the left, and the median greater than the mean?
Negative skew
139
In what form of drug trial do researchers administer regimens to humans to evaluate the efficacy and safety of a drug?
Clinical trial
140
What term describes the average on a normal curve?
Mean
141
In reference to the tail on a curve, what is the greatest value-the mean, median, or mode?
The mean (mean > median > mode)
142
What type of scale has a true zero point and orders items with equal intervals?
Ratio scale
143
What statement is the opposite of what the experimenter hopes to prove?
Null hypothesis
144
What is the degree to whichtwo measures are related?
Correlation coefficient (does not employ causality)
145
What term denotes the probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected if it is indeed false?
Power
146
What is used to predict one variable from another with interval data only?
Regression
147
What type of error is made when you fail to reject the null hypothesis when it is indeed false?
Type II error (beta error)
148
What do you do with the null hypothesis if the P-value is greater than .05?
Do not reject the null hypothesis.
149
If the confidence interval contains 1.0, what would this indicate?
There is no significant effect.
150
What test is used to compare two interval scales?
Pearson correlation
151
What type of scale ranks with an equal distance between groups?
Interval scale
152
What type of scale ranks without distance or set spaces between the groups?
Ordinal scale
153
What percentage of a normal curve falls between ± 1 standard deviation?
68%
154
A 95% confidence score means the z score is equal to what?
2
155
What is the term for the hypothesis that the experimenter hopes to prove true?
Alternative hypothesis
156
What test compares two ordinal levels?
Spearman correlation
157
What does a one-tailed null hypothesis state?
That one group is better or worse than the other (depending on what is asked); it is directional
158
What does a two-tailed null hypothesis state?
That two groups are not the same; they are nondirectional
159
What test is used when one interval scale and two nominal data sets are available?
Two-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)
160
On a normal curve, what percentage of the curve falls between ± 2 standard deviations?
95.50%
161
What is the most common cancer in men?
Prostate
162
What is the most common cancer in women?
Breast
163
What is the most commonly reported STD?
Gonorrhea
164
What is the most commonly made diagnosis in men?
Hypertension
165
What is the most commonly made diagnosis in women?
Pregnancy
166
What is the most common cause of: Hospital admissions?
GI disturbances
167
What is the most common cause of: Hospital days?
Cardiovascular disease
168
What is the most common cause of: Days lost from work?
Upper respiratory tract infection
169
What is the most common cause of: Ambulatory clinic visits?
Back pain
170
What is the most common cause of: Work-related injury?
Musculoskeletal problem
171
What are the CAGE questions of alcoholism?
1. Cut down 2. Annoyed about criticism 3. Guilty 4. Eye opener
172
What type of learning is described as an old response to a new behavior?
Classical conditioning
173
What type of learning is described as a new response to an old behavior?
Operant conditioning
174
What is the tendency to respond to related stimuli with the same response or a similar response?
Stimulus generalization
175
What term describes any stimulus that will increase the probability of a response?
Reinforcement
176
In classical conditioning, what is the cause of the original response?
Unconditioned stimulus
177
What response occurs when a conditioned stimulus is added to an unconditioned stimulus?
Conditioned response
178
What is used to stop stimulus generalization and discontinue a reinforcement that is maintaining an operant?
Extinction
179
What sort of ratio is on a fixed time and has a continuous schedule?
Fixed interval ratio
180
In this form of reinforcement, not every response is reinforced, and the response is hard to extinguish and slow to be learned?
Intermittent reinforcement
181
What technique uses successive reinforcements to establish a behavior?
Shaping (funneling)
182
What treatment used to treat anxiety and phobias is slow, stepwise, and based on counterconditioning?
Systemic desensitization
183
What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To encourage a particular behavior?
Positive reinforcement
184
What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To stop a behavior?
Punishment
185
What is it called when a stimulus unconsciously controls a behavior?
Stimulus control
186
What type of learning provides the organism with information about internal functioning via monitoring of autonomic function?
Biofeedback
187
What method of learning involves a faced number of responses to obtain reinforcement?
Fixed ratio
188
According to Rotter's social learning theory, people who feel that they are in control of their own lives, and who believe that effort, care, and persistence pays off have what locus of control?
Internal locus of control
189
What IQ test is used for persons aged 6 to 17?
Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Revised (WISC-R)
190
What method of learning involves a varying number of responses to give reinforcement?
Variable ratio schedule
191
What is the range of the average IQ?
90-109
192
Which IQ test is used for persons 17 years of age and older?
Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R)
193
Below what IQ level is a person perceived as being mentally retarded?
Below 69
194
What method of learning delivers the reinforcement after an unpredictable period of time?
Variable interval ratio
195
What are the three advanced directives?
1. Oral directive 2. Living will 3. Healthy power of attorney
196
What defense mechanism involves temporary inhibition of thoughts or impulses, in which the person is aware that he is "forgetting"?
Blocking
197
What defense mechanism involves defining things as either "bad" or "good"?
Splitting
198
The qualities of an object are internalized, obliterating the distinction between subject and object, in what defense mechanism?
Introjection
199
What defense mechanism is operating when a person avoids becoming aware of some painful aspect of reality?
Denial
200
What term describes the accuracy of a test?
Validity (You need reliability for validity.)