801-1000 Flashcards

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1
Q

On the psychosocial stressor scale, what factor receives the highest rating?

A

Death of a spouse

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2
Q

What is the term for the biologic predisposition to be sensitive to particular stimuli and to associate them with an unconditioned stimulus?

A

Preparedness

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3
Q

In what somatoform disorder with two subtypes does the patient experiences pain in a body part without any discernible organic cause (One subtype is associated with psychological factors, and the other with both physical and psychological factors.)?

A

Pain disorder

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4
Q

In what type of somatoform disorder does a person have an unrealistically negative evaluation of some aspect of his or her personal appearance?

A

Body dysmorphic disorder

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5
Q

At what stage of psychosexual development (according to Freud) do children fear castration?

A

Phallic stage (4 to 6 years)

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6
Q

True or false-only men have sexual refractory periods?

A

True-some women can have multiple successive orgasms without a break.

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7
Q

What is the term for involuntary vulgar or obscene utterances?

A

Coprolalia (seen 30% of the time as a feature of Tourette’s syndrome)

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8
Q

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: See death as irreversible?

A

Concrete operations (6 to 12 years)

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9
Q

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: Have abstract thinking?

A

Formal operations ( > 12 years)

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10
Q

At what stage of cognitive development (according to Piaget) do children: Lack law of conservation and are egocentric?

A

Preoperational (2 to 6 years)

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11
Q

What hormone is inhibited by sleep?

A

TSH

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12
Q

With what stage of sleep are nightmares associated?

A

REM

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13
Q

With what stage of sleep are night terrors associated?

A

Stage 4-they are not remembered

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14
Q

What percentage of patients with HIV have AIDS dementia complex before death?

A

70% to 95%

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15
Q

What is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Dementia, gait apraxia, and urinary incontinence

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16
Q

What category of symptoms of schizophrenia associated with muscarinic receptors include affective flattening, social withdrawal, apathy, anhedonia, poverty of thought and of content of speech, and lack of interest?

A

Negative symptoms (type II)

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17
Q

In biostatistics, what type of error is due to chance?

A

Random error

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18
Q

Dementia is associated with a decrease in what neurotransmitter in the amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal neocortex?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

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19
Q

Name the incurable disease affecting adults which is a spongiform encephalopathy caused by a prion ; is fatal usually within 1 year of onset; results in cortical and cerebellar atrophy; and is characterized by a rapidly progressive dementia?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

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20
Q

What disease, occurring in patients approximately 40 years of age, is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance associated with chromosome 4, atrophied caudate nucleus, choreoathetoid movements, and progressive dementia?

A

Huntington’s chorea

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21
Q

What DSM-IV axis II diagnosis would the following patient fulfill: perfectionist, male, first born, preoccupied with rules, harsh discipline upbringing, lacks sense of humor, inflexible, miserly?

A

Obsessive-compulsive

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22
Q

What symptoms of schizophrenia associated with dopamine receptors include delusions, hallucinations, and agitation?

A

Positive symptoms (type I)

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23
Q

In biostatistics, what type of error has unanticipated factors that obscure the relationship and cause a bias?

A

Confounding error

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24
Q

What is the most frequently occurring value in a set?

A

Mode

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25
Q

What is the difference between the highest and the lowest scores in a set?

A

Range

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26
Q

What type of study has diffusional effects if you separate the groups and test the entire population?

A

Community trial

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27
Q

What type of study is under the greatest possible degree of control of the investigator?

A

Experimental study

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28
Q

In what type of skew is the tail to the right and the mean greater than the median?

A

Positive skew

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29
Q

In what type of error is the null hypothesis rejected when it is true?

A

Type I error (alpha error)

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30
Q

If the P-value is less than or equal to .05, what do you do to the null hypothesis?

A

Reject it

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31
Q

What is the single best predictor of suicide?

A

Previous suicide attempt

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32
Q

What is the leading cause of death in men between the ages of 25 and 44 years of age?

A

AIDS

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33
Q

What is the foremost cause of cancer death in both men and women?

A

Lung cancer

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34
Q

What are the top three causes of infant mortality?

A
  1. Birth defects 2. Low birth weight 3. SIDS
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35
Q

What is the most common form of sexually transmitted disease (STD)?

A

Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection

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36
Q

What is the primary cause of injury to American women?

A

Domestic abuse

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37
Q

What is the leading cause of preventable mental retardation?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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38
Q

What is the most abused drug for people of all ages?

A

Alcohol

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39
Q

What is the most common bacterial STD?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis infection

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40
Q

How many teenagers become pregnant each year?

A

1,000,000

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41
Q

What drug is used to prevent alcohol consumption by blocking aldehyde dehydrogenase?

A

Disulfiram

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42
Q

Which drug is used to treat opiate withdrawal, attention deficit hyperactive disorder (ADHD), and sometimes Tourette’s syndrome?

A

Clonidine

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43
Q

Which drug is used to treat the respiratory depression associated with an overdose of opioids?

A

Naloxone or naltrexone

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44
Q

Which opioid agonist, more addictive than heroin, is used in the treatment of heroin dependence?

A

Methadone

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45
Q

What type of reinforcement strengthens each response and involves fast learning and fast extinction?

A

Continuous reinforcement

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46
Q

According to operant conditioning theory, what type of reinforcement is occurring in avoidance behaviors such as phobias and compulsive rituals?

A

Negative reinforcement

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47
Q

What form of learning occurs when, for example, a child watches her mother react in fear to a snake, and learns to be afraid of snakes?

A

Modeling or observational learning

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48
Q

What is the term for silently removing a reinforcement without the patient’s awareness?

A

Fading

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49
Q

What is the name of the technique used to treat avoidance or obsessive-compulsive behaviors, in which patients are gradually confronted with the objects or situations they fear?

A

Exposure

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50
Q

In what type of conditioning is the stimulus that produces a deviant behavior paired with an unpleasant stimulus?

A

Aversive conditioning

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51
Q

What is the term for removal of a stimulus in order to stop a behavior?

A

Extinction

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52
Q

True or false according to social learning theory, people who believe that luck, chance, or the actions of others control their fate have an internal locus of control?

A

False-these beliefs are characteristic of people with an external locus of control.

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53
Q

Which IQ test is used for children between 4 and 6 years of age?

A

Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI)

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54
Q

What is the most widely used projective test?

A

Rorschach ink blot test

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55
Q

What is the range of the low-average IQ?

A

80 to 89

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56
Q

What term describes the ability of a test to measure something consistently?

A

Reliability

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57
Q

What is the name of the most widely used personality test consisting of 550 true/ false questions, in which the overall score is more important than an evaluation on an individual scale?

A

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

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58
Q

What was the first formal IQ test, which is used for persons 2 to 18 years of age, proves best for children who are 6 years of age, and is used for the very bright or the impaired?

A

Stanford-Binet scale

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59
Q

What is the range of the borderline IQ?

A

70 to 79

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60
Q

What court case states that a woman has a right to privacy and to abort a fetus?

A

Roe v. Wade

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61
Q

If short-term memory and long-term memory are spared, but new learning is impaired, what is the location of the lesion?

A

Medial temporal lobe lesion

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62
Q

What is the term for return to an earlier stage of development?

A

Regression

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63
Q

What is the defense mechanism in which the person perceives his or her unacceptable feelings, thoughts, or impulses as belonging to another person?

A

Projection

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64
Q

What four characteristics define the sick role?

A
  1. Exempt from normal responsibilities 2. Not to blame for the illness 3. Obligated to get well 4. Obligated to seek help
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65
Q

What is the defense mechanism in which a patient projects his or her thoughts, feelings, or wishes onto the physician or therapist?

A

Transference

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66
Q

What is the term for the state of being arrested in a stage of development?

A

Fixation

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67
Q

According to Freud, what facet of the psyche represents the internalized ideals and values of one’s parents?

A

Superego

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68
Q

What term refers to acting out the reverse of an unacceptable behavior?

A

Undoing

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69
Q

What is the defense mechanism which involves “unconscious forgetting”?

A

Repression

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70
Q

In psychoanalytic theory, which mature defense mechanism uses comedy to express feelings and thoughts without causing personal discomfort?

A

Humor

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71
Q

Per Freud, with what part of the unconscious are sex and aggression (instincts) associated?

A

Id

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72
Q

What is the term for: Wasting away due to malnutrition?

A

Cachexia

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73
Q

What is the term for: Sexual energy?

A

Cathexis

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74
Q

What is the term for: A purging of emotions?

A

Catharsis

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75
Q

Which defense mechanism involves preparation for future events?

A

Anticipation

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76
Q

What term describes conscious forgetting?

A

Suppression

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77
Q

What is the term for the mature defense mechanism whereby one helps others with no apparent expectation of help in return?

A

Altruism

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78
Q

What five qualities in an object attract a newborn’s attention?

A
  1. Largeness 2. Brightness 3. Contrasts 4. Curves 5. Complex design
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79
Q

What type of depression can occur in an infant if there is prolonged separation from the primary caregiver?

A

Anaclitic depression

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80
Q

School phobia can result from failure to resolve what?

A

Separation anxiety

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81
Q

At what stage of sleep do you see sleep spindles and K complexes on EEG?

A

Stage 2

82
Q

What hormone level increases in the first 3 hours of sleep?

A

Prolactin

83
Q

Which stages of sleep decrease in length when a person grows older?

A

REM, non-REM, and total sleep time

84
Q

What hormone increases at nighttime and is associated with seasonal affective disorder?

A

Melatonin

85
Q

What are the five Kiibler-Ross stages of adjustment to dying?

A
  1. Denial 2. Anger 3. Bargaining 4. Depression 5. Acceptance
86
Q

What five things are checked in the APGAR test?

A
  1. Sldn color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone 5. Respiratory rate APGAR Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration
87
Q

A baby’s smile at birth is known as what?

A

Endogenous smile

88
Q

What is the term for a baby’s fear of unfamiliar people that begins at about 6 months of age, peaks at about 8 months, and is usually gone at 12 months?

A

Stranger anxiety

89
Q

What stage of sleep is assodated with theta waves and the disappearance of alpha waves?

A

Stage 1

90
Q

At what stage of sleep is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) output elevated?

A

Stage 4

91
Q

What is the most prevalent sexual disorder in men?

A

Secondary impotence

92
Q

What is the term used when someone has sexual orientation distress?

A

Ego-dystonic sexual orientation

93
Q

What is the name of the painful involuntary muscle contraction of the outer one third of the vagina?

A

Vaginismus

94
Q

What is the term for inability to have an orgasm?

A

Anorgasmia (occurs in 35% of women)

95
Q

What is the term for recurrent and persistent pain during intercourse?

A

Dyspareunia

96
Q

What neurotransmitter produces arousal and wakefulness?

A

Dopamine

97
Q

What hormone initiates sleep?

A

Serotonin

98
Q

What hormone increases during REM sleep?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

99
Q

What is the term for the lack of respiration during sleep?

A

Sleep apnea

100
Q

What hormone decreases during REM sleep?

A

Norepinephrine (NE)

101
Q

What are the four pathognomonic signs of narcolepsy?

A
  1. Cataplexy 2. Sleep attacks 3. Sleep paralysis 4. Hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations (disorders of REM)
102
Q

At what stage of sleep does bruxism (grinding of the teeth) occur?

A

Stage 2

103
Q

What is an irrational fear called?

A

A phobia

104
Q

What three laboratory tests are used to test for probable depression?

A
  1. Test for decreased levels of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenlyglycol (MHPG), which is an NE metabolite 2. TRH stimulation test 3. Dexamethasone suppression test
105
Q

What is the most common psychiatric illness in women, which presents as a vague feeling of apprehension or worrying accompanied by one or more body sensations?

A

Generalized anxiety disorder

106
Q

An adult with a 2-year history of depressed mood, low energy, feelings of hopelessness, and low selfesteem, but with no major depressive episodes or manic episodes has what disorder?

A

Dysthymic disorder

107
Q

What is the disorder in which the patient has concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and depression or mania?

A

Schizoaffective disorder

108
Q

In statistics, what form of bias is at work when the experimenter’s expectation induces results?

A

Pygmalion effect

109
Q

Someone who is excessively shy, has a fear of rejection, and is socially isolated has what type of personality disorder?

A

Avoidant personality disorder

110
Q

Name the personality disorders described below: A person who has a longstanding feeling of mistrust or suspicion, no hallucinations, no delusions, and no antisocial behavior?

A

Paranoid personality disorder

111
Q

Name the personality disorders described below: A person who is uncomfortable not being the center of attention, is an attention seeker, and has seductive behavior that is colorful, dramatic, and extroverted?

A

Histrionic personality disorder

112
Q

Name the personality disorders described below: A person who gets others to assume responsibility, has difficulty expressing disagreement, and often has an abusive spouse?

A

Dependent personality disorder

113
Q

What type of seizure is associated with young children and involves a brief loss of consciousness with minor motor activity?

A

Petit mal (absence) seizure

114
Q

What is the drug of choice for treatment of Petit Mal seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

115
Q

What neurotransmitter is responsible for allergic conditions, and regulates emotions and acid secretions in the stomach?

A

Histamine

116
Q

What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter of the brain?

A

Glutamic acid

117
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter of sensory neurons for pain?

A

Substance P

118
Q

Increased levels of what neurotransmitter, released from the raphe nuclei of the brain stem, is used to treat depression and also to regulate homeostasis?

A

Serotonin

119
Q

What naturally occurring substances mimic the effects of opiates?

A

Enkephalins

120
Q

What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with frontal and temporal lobe atrophy and is manifested primarily as dementia?

A

Pick’s disease

121
Q

What disease causes ceruloplasmin deficiency, hepatolenticular degeneration, and Kayser-Fleischer rings?

A

Wilson’s disease

122
Q

What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter to the spinal cord and the brain stem?

A

Glycine

123
Q

The effect on a person’s behavior caused by the act of being studied is called what?

A

Hawthorns effect

124
Q

What type of bias is involved when you ask leading questions?

A

Sampling bias

125
Q

What level of retardation is involved if a person has an IQ of 20 to 34 and cannot be trained but can learn basic habits?

A

Severe

126
Q

What is the half-way point on the x-axis of a gaussian curve?

A

Median

127
Q

As prevalence increases, what happens to: Sensitivity?

A

No change

128
Q

As prevalence increases, what happens to: Specificity?

A

No change

129
Q

As prevalence increases, what happens to: Positive predictive value?

A

Increases

130
Q

As prevalence increases, what happens to: Negative predictive value?

A

Decreases

131
Q

In medical screening, what is the term for: The proportion of individ uals with a positive test result for the disease that the test is intended to reveal?

A

Sensitivity

132
Q

In medical screening, what is the term for: The total percentage of correctly identified subjects for what you are testing?

A

Accuracy

133
Q

What rate is represented by the total number of cases divided by the population at risk?

A

Prevalence rate

134
Q

What is the name for the type of study in which neither the investigator nor the subjects know which participants are receiving the placebo (i.e., the control group) and which are receiving the test drug?

A

Double-blind study

135
Q

What is the term for the form of bias in which preconception leads to a biased interpretation?

A

Prejudice

136
Q

What is the most scientifically rigorous study in which subjects in a population are randomly allocated into groups?

A

Randomized controlled study

137
Q

In what form of trial is it unethical to withhold treatment from any specific group?

A

Crossover trial (e.g., azidothymidine [AZT] trials)

138
Q

In what type of skew is the tail to the left, and the median greater than the mean?

A

Negative skew

139
Q

In what form of drug trial do researchers administer regimens to humans to evaluate the efficacy and safety of a drug?

A

Clinical trial

140
Q

What term describes the average on a normal curve?

A

Mean

141
Q

In reference to the tail on a curve, what is the greatest value-the mean, median, or mode?

A

The mean (mean > median > mode)

142
Q

What type of scale has a true zero point and orders items with equal intervals?

A

Ratio scale

143
Q

What statement is the opposite of what the experimenter hopes to prove?

A

Null hypothesis

144
Q

What is the degree to whichtwo measures are related?

A

Correlation coefficient (does not employ causality)

145
Q

What term denotes the probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected if it is indeed false?

A

Power

146
Q

What is used to predict one variable from another with interval data only?

A

Regression

147
Q

What type of error is made when you fail to reject the null hypothesis when it is indeed false?

A

Type II error (beta error)

148
Q

What do you do with the null hypothesis if the P-value is greater than .05?

A

Do not reject the null hypothesis.

149
Q

If the confidence interval contains 1.0, what would this indicate?

A

There is no significant effect.

150
Q

What test is used to compare two interval scales?

A

Pearson correlation

151
Q

What type of scale ranks with an equal distance between groups?

A

Interval scale

152
Q

What type of scale ranks without distance or set spaces between the groups?

A

Ordinal scale

153
Q

What percentage of a normal curve falls between ± 1 standard deviation?

A

68%

154
Q

A 95% confidence score means the z score is equal to what?

A

2

155
Q

What is the term for the hypothesis that the experimenter hopes to prove true?

A

Alternative hypothesis

156
Q

What test compares two ordinal levels?

A

Spearman correlation

157
Q

What does a one-tailed null hypothesis state?

A

That one group is better or worse than the other (depending on what is asked); it is directional

158
Q

What does a two-tailed null hypothesis state?

A

That two groups are not the same; they are nondirectional

159
Q

What test is used when one interval scale and two nominal data sets are available?

A

Two-way analysis of variance (ANOVA)

160
Q

On a normal curve, what percentage of the curve falls between ± 2 standard deviations?

A

95.50%

161
Q

What is the most common cancer in men?

A

Prostate

162
Q

What is the most common cancer in women?

A

Breast

163
Q

What is the most commonly reported STD?

A

Gonorrhea

164
Q

What is the most commonly made diagnosis in men?

A

Hypertension

165
Q

What is the most commonly made diagnosis in women?

A

Pregnancy

166
Q

What is the most common cause of: Hospital admissions?

A

GI disturbances

167
Q

What is the most common cause of: Hospital days?

A

Cardiovascular disease

168
Q

What is the most common cause of: Days lost from work?

A

Upper respiratory tract infection

169
Q

What is the most common cause of: Ambulatory clinic visits?

A

Back pain

170
Q

What is the most common cause of: Work-related injury?

A

Musculoskeletal problem

171
Q

What are the CAGE questions of alcoholism?

A
  1. Cut down 2. Annoyed about criticism 3. Guilty 4. Eye opener
172
Q

What type of learning is described as an old response to a new behavior?

A

Classical conditioning

173
Q

What type of learning is described as a new response to an old behavior?

A

Operant conditioning

174
Q

What is the tendency to respond to related stimuli with the same response or a similar response?

A

Stimulus generalization

175
Q

What term describes any stimulus that will increase the probability of a response?

A

Reinforcement

176
Q

In classical conditioning, what is the cause of the original response?

A

Unconditioned stimulus

177
Q

What response occurs when a conditioned stimulus is added to an unconditioned stimulus?

A

Conditioned response

178
Q

What is used to stop stimulus generalization and discontinue a reinforcement that is maintaining an operant?

A

Extinction

179
Q

What sort of ratio is on a fixed time and has a continuous schedule?

A

Fixed interval ratio

180
Q

In this form of reinforcement, not every response is reinforced, and the response is hard to extinguish and slow to be learned?

A

Intermittent reinforcement

181
Q

What technique uses successive reinforcements to establish a behavior?

A

Shaping (funneling)

182
Q

What treatment used to treat anxiety and phobias is slow, stepwise, and based on counterconditioning?

A

Systemic desensitization

183
Q

What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To encourage a particular behavior?

A

Positive reinforcement

184
Q

What is the term for a stimulus which is introduced: To stop a behavior?

A

Punishment

185
Q

What is it called when a stimulus unconsciously controls a behavior?

A

Stimulus control

186
Q

What type of learning provides the organism with information about internal functioning via monitoring of autonomic function?

A

Biofeedback

187
Q

What method of learning involves a faced number of responses to obtain reinforcement?

A

Fixed ratio

188
Q

According to Rotter’s social learning theory, people who feel that they are in control of their own lives, and who believe that effort, care, and persistence pays off have what locus of control?

A

Internal locus of control

189
Q

What IQ test is used for persons aged 6 to 17?

A

Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-Revised (WISC-R)

190
Q

What method of learning involves a varying number of responses to give reinforcement?

A

Variable ratio schedule

191
Q

What is the range of the average IQ?

A

90-109

192
Q

Which IQ test is used for persons 17 years of age and older?

A

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-Revised (WAIS-R)

193
Q

Below what IQ level is a person perceived as being mentally retarded?

A

Below 69

194
Q

What method of learning delivers the reinforcement after an unpredictable period of time?

A

Variable interval ratio

195
Q

What are the three advanced directives?

A
  1. Oral directive 2. Living will 3. Healthy power of attorney
196
Q

What defense mechanism involves temporary inhibition of thoughts or impulses, in which the person is aware that he is “forgetting”?

A

Blocking

197
Q

What defense mechanism involves defining things as either “bad” or “good”?

A

Splitting

198
Q

The qualities of an object are internalized, obliterating the distinction between subject and object, in what defense mechanism?

A

Introjection

199
Q

What defense mechanism is operating when a person avoids becoming aware of some painful aspect of reality?

A

Denial

200
Q

What term describes the accuracy of a test?

A

Validity (You need reliability for validity.)